1. D
The question asks about the main shift in focus over the course of the passage. Because this is a general question, it should be done after all the specific questions. The first paragraph is a description of Rad, and the rest of the passage tells the story of an incident between Rad and Yan. According to the second paragraph, Rad’s relations to Yan may be seen in one incident. In other words, this interaction revealed the nature of their relationship. Eliminate (A) because only two sentences of the first paragraph describe a rivalry between the brothers, and the brothers do not reach a greater understanding at the end of the passage. Eliminate (B) because only two sentences of the first paragraph compare the two brothers. Also, the passage does not describe how the incident changed Yan or Rad, since it does not include any information about what happened after the incident. Eliminate (C) because the first paragraph is about Rad, who is not the protagonist of the story and because there are only a few lines of dialogue in the passage. Keep (D) because the first paragraph is a description of Rad, and the incident in the passage reveals the true nature of the brothers’ relationship. The correct answer is (D).
2. C
The question asks what the word cold most nearly means in line 10. Go back to the text, find the word cold, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The text says Rad was cold and hard, without a human fiber or a drop of red blood in his veins. Later in the same paragraph, the text describes him as unswayed by emotion. The correct answer should mean something like “without emotion.” Eliminate (A) because although something frozen would also be cold, frozen does not mean “without emotion.” Eliminate (B) because gloomy means “dismal,” not “without emotion.” Keep (C) because unfeeling is consistent with “without emotion.” Eliminate (D) because unprepared does not mean “without emotion.” The correct answer is (C).
3. D
The question asks what Yan believed that initially caused him to ask for Rad’s help. Look for a reference in the passage to Yan asking for Rad’s help. The third paragraph states Yan knew that if he were to ask permission for the workroom he would be refused, but if he and Rad together were to go it might receive favourable consideration on account of Rad’s self-asserted reputation for common sense. Yan believed that his father would be more likely to give permission if Rad was involved in the project because of Rad’s reputation for having good common sense. Eliminate (A) because, although Rad does have good carpentry skills, this was not the reason that Yan asked for his help. Eliminate (B) because there is no indication that Yan believed the project would bring them closer. Eliminate (C) because, although Rad did have muscular superiority, this was not the reason that Yan asked for his help. Keep (D) because their father perceived Rad as more practical than Yan is a paraphrase of the prediction. The correct answer is (D).
4. C
The question asks what is notable about Rad, based on the author’s descriptions of him. Look for descriptions of Rad early in the passage. The first paragraph states that he was not especially selfish, and yet he pretended to be so, simply that people should say of him significantly and admiringly: “Isn’t he keen? Doesn’t he know how to take care of himself?” Eliminate (A) because Rad delighted at showing his muscular superiority. Also the fourth paragraph states that Rad was an able carpenter and now took charge of the construction; thus, Rad is willing to do physical labor. Eliminate (B) because the first paragraph states, Though so much older, he was Yan’s inferior at school. This shows that Rad is not notable for his superior performance as a student. Keep (C) based on the first paragraph, which states He was not especially selfish, and yet he pretended to be so. Since self-regard is another word for selfish and seeming yet deceptive is supported by the phrase, this works. Eliminate (D) because there is no mention of Rad supporting his family. The correct answer is (C).
5. D
The question asks which situation is most similar to the one introduced in lines 35–42. Use the line reference to find the window. These lines say Yan thought he would be refused asking for the workshop alone, but with Rad, his father might give favourable consideration on account of Rad’s self-asserted reputation for common sense. However, Rad says they had “better not go together to ask Father.” He “could manage that part better alone,” and he did. In the end, Rad locked the door on Yan and kept the workshop for himself. The correct answer should describe a situation in which one person agrees to help another person but instead takes advantage of the opportunity for personal gain. The situations described in (A), (B), and (C) do not include offers to help or personal gain, so eliminate these choices. Keep (D) because a colleague agrees to recommend a coworker for a job is an example of an offer to help, and instead secretly applies for the job herself is an example of taking advantage of the situation for personal gain. The correct answer is (D).
6. B
The question asks what the word consideration most nearly means in line 38. Go back to the text, find the word consideration, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The text refers to Yan receiving favourable consideration from his father on account of Rad’s self-asserted reputation for common sense. The correct answer should mean something like “outcome” or “decision.” Although courtesy might initially look attractive because being courteous is the same as being considerate, eliminate (A) because courtesy does not mean “outcome.” Keep (B) because judgement is consistent with “outcome.” Eliminate (C) because reward is “something given for merit,” which is not consistent with the prediction. Eliminate (D) because generosity means “readiness to give,” which does not mean “outcome.” The correct answer is (B).
7. A
The question asks for Yan’s perspective regarding the project he undertakes with his brother. Notice that the following question is a best evidence question, so this question and Q8 can be done in tandem. Look at the answers for Q8 first. The lines in (8A) mention Yan having many brothers, but they do not reference his view of the project he undertakes. Eliminate (8A). Next, consider the lines for (8B). These lines describe Rad, not Yan, so eliminate (8B). The lines in (8C) describe Yan’s warmth and enthusiasm for what they would do in their workshop when finished. Consider the answers to Q7. Choice (7A) states that Yan is strongly optimistic, which is consistent with warmth and enthusiasm. It also states that he believes they will be successful and will continue working together, which is consistent with what they would do in their workshop when finished. Draw a line connecting (8C) and (7A). The lines in (8D) mention instructions that Rad gave to Yan, but they do not reference Yan’s view of the project. Eliminate (8D). Without any support from Q8, (7B), (7C), and (7D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (7A) and (8C).
8. C
(See explanation above.)
9. C
The question asks for support for the idea that Yan does not anticipate what Rad will do when the workroom is finished. Read the line references in the answer choices. The lines in (A) do not refer to what Yan knows about Rad’s plans, so eliminate (A). The lines in (B) are about Rad’s responses, not what Yan knows, so eliminate (B). The lines in (C) indicate that Yan feels pleasure and pride at the triumphant completion of his scheme. Since Rad ultimately excludes him from the workshop, this indicates that Yan does not anticipate that result, so keep (C). The lines in (D) describe what Rad did when the workroom was finished, but they do not describe what Yan anticipates beforehand; eliminate (D). The correct answer is (C).
10. A
The question asks how Rad viewed the idea to build a workroom. Look for references to Rad’s view of the workroom in the passage. At the end, Rad shows that he sees the workshop as something he can get for himself when he says, “Now you keep out of my workshop from this on. You have nothing to do with it. It’s mine. I got the permission to make it.” Keep (A), since Rad’s actions indicate that he viewed the project as an opportunity that he could use to his own advantage. Eliminate (B) because there is no indication that building the workroom was a way to demonstrate his muscular superiority. Eliminate (C) because there is no indication that Rad viewed the project as a typical example of Yan’s impractical schemes. Eliminate (D) because Rad takes control of the workroom and excludes Yan, contradicting the idea that he considers the workroom as a sensible plan for a business partnership with his brother. The correct answer is (A).
11. B
The question asks about the main purpose of the passage. Because this is a general question, it should be done after all the specific questions. The passage discusses social learning in animals and humans and its implications for the evolution of complex skills and language. Eliminate (A) because the passage is not a chronicle (an account of events in order of when they occurred) and because it discusses other animal species and qualities in addition to human intelligence. Keep (B) because it includes both human and animal observations and because knowledge and skill development across generations is a paraphrase for social learning. Eliminate (C) because the passage points out similarities between social learning in humans and animals; it does not try to explain why humans are more intelligent than animals. Eliminate (D) because the passage does not mention social behaviors that humans do not understand. The correct answer is (B).
12. D
The question asks about the meanings of back as used in lines 42 and 72. Go back to each reference in the text, find the word back, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit in each blank based on the context of the passage. The fifth paragraph mentions a group of macaques being placed back with other rhesus macaques. The first use of back conveys the sense of “to the place they came from.” The reference from the seventh paragraph states, Over the last seven million years (and even going much further back than that, truth be told)…. The second use of back conveys the sense of “earlier in time.” Eliminate (A) because in exchange is not consistent with “to the place they came from,” so that cannot be the right answer. Eliminate (B) because earlier is a match for the second use, not the first, and dishonestly is not consistent with either meaning. Eliminate (C) because incorrectly is not consistent with either meaning. Keep (D) because again is consistent with “to the place they came from,” and previously is consistent with “earlier in time.” The correct answer is (D).
13. A
The question asks for a description of what happened when the rhesus macaques in de Waal and Johanowicz’s experiment were raised by stump-tailed macaques. Look for the key words rhesus macaques, stump-tailed macaques, de Waal, and Johanowicz in the passage. The fifth paragraph describes an experiment in which rhesus macaques spent five months of their young lives with stump-tailed macaques, which are much more prone to reconciling disputes peacefully. These fostered rhesus macaques learned the behavior of reconciliation. The answer must have something to do with the newly learned behavior. Keep (A) because the rhesus macaques developed a behavior their species does not normally demonstrate. Eliminate (B) because it is a contradiction of what’s stated in the passage: the rhesus macaques learned the behavior of reconciliation; they did not become more violent. Eliminate (C) because it is not supported: the rhesus monkeys adopted some of the behavior of the stump-tailed macaques, but they did not become indistinguishable from them. Eliminate (D) because it is not supported: the rhesus macaques did become more conciliatory, but not more intelligent and creative. The correct answer is (A).
14. A
The question asks which potential claim about social learning was most likely ruled out by de Waal and Johanowicz’s experiment. Look for the key words de Waal and Johanowicz in the passage. The fifth paragraph describes the experiment on rhesus macaques living with stump-tailed macaques. It goes on to say that the behaviors learned by the rhesus macaques remained even after other habits they had picked up faded. Keep (A) because the idea that the rhesus macaques’ learned behavior stuck with them even after they were placed back with other rhesus macaques rules out the claim that learned habits…will last only as long as they remain in close contact with that other species. Eliminate (B) because de Waal and Johanowicz did not study passing on traits to the next generation. Eliminate (C) because there is no discussion of whether or not the rhesus macaques were ostracized by members of their own species. Eliminate (D) because de Waal and Johanowicz did not study passing behaviors on to offspring in the next generation. The correct answer is (A).
15. B
The question asks for the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. The lines that were used to answer the previous question are lines 40–45. The correct answer is (B).
16. C
The question asks what the author would most likely agree with about human beings. Notice that the following question is a best evidence question, so this question and Q17 can be done in tandem. Look at the answers for Q17 first. The lines in (17A) say that the human explosion of innovation and creativity is largely attributed to the acquisition of language. Look to see if those lines support any answers in Q16. Choice (16C) mentions that humans are able to extend their creativity with the support of language. Connect those two answers. Next, consider the lines for (17B). They say that human knowledge was transmitted socially through language. Consider the answers to Q16. Choice (16A) mentions social learning, but it says humans have achieved the best methods, which is not supported by (17B). Choice (16C) also mentions language, but (17B) doesn’t mention creativity. Since no answer to Q16 is fully supported by (17B), eliminate it. The lines in (17C) mention evolving the capacity for symbolic thought and language before they were actually used, which is not referenced in any of the answers to Q16. Eliminate (17C). Choice (17D) mentions natural selection and genetically programmed behaviors that are complex, which are not referenced in any of the answers to Q16. Eliminate (17D). Without any support from Q17, (16A), (16B), and (16D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (16C) and (17A).
17. A
(See explanation above.)
18. C
The question asks why the author uses the terms random mutation and innate knowledge in the last paragraph of the passage. Use the paragraph reference to find the window. The last paragraph says, Social learning resolves this conundrum. To understand the conundrum, look at the last sentence of the previous paragraph, which suggests that the complex behaviors we see in animals are not only due to pure genetics and “survival of the fittest.” The last paragraph makes a distinction between social learning and random mutation or innate knowledge: the text suggests that social learning can explain complex behaviors that cannot be explained by pure genetics. Eliminate (A) because these terms are used to show the importance of social learning, not natural selection. Eliminate (B) because the author does not show any uncertainty about the benefits of social learning. Keep (C) because it mentions a contrast between genetic traits and social learning. Eliminate (D) because conveying a serious tone is not the purpose of the two phrases that the question asks about. The correct answer is (C).
19. A
The question asks for the relative size of prey caught by the smaller birds that were raised by another species in the graph. Look for the key words smaller birds and raised by another species on the graph. The data about smaller bird species is in the columns on the left in the graph, and the gray columns show the data about the birds raised by another species. The gray column on the left is between 0.25 and 0.3, as shown on the left axis. Choice (A) matches the graph. Eliminate (B), (C), and (D), which do not match the information from the graph. The correct answer is (A).
20. C
The question asks for a topic that is presented in the graph but NOT discussed in the passage. Look for key words from each answer choice in the passage and the graph, and eliminate any that are mentioned in the passage or not included in the graph. Eliminate (A) because social learning from the same species is discussed in the passage, for example, in the second paragraph: humans do most of their learning socially. Eliminate (B) because social learning from other species is also discussed in the passage, for example, in the fifth paragraph, which discusses cross-fostering experiments. Keep (C) because while the graph presents data about birds that were cross-fostered by another species, the cross-fostering experiment discussed in the passage is about macaques, not birds. Eliminate (D) because animal feeding behaviors are mentioned in the fourth paragraph of the passage: “normal” food preferences that wild lemurs display. The correct answer is (C).
21. C
The question asks, according to Paredes, what the researchers were able to do that gave them further confidence in their findings in Passage 1. Look for the key word confidence in Passage 1. In the sixth paragraph, Paredes says, “The fact that we could compare newborn brains…to the adult…gave us added confidence that what we were seeing was correct.” Eliminate (A) because, although the third paragraph mentions samples from around the world, this is not the reason given for the researchers’ added confidence. Eliminate (B) because it is not the reason given; it is also contradicted in the next paragraph, which states that the researchers acknowledge that it would be impossible to definitively show that there are never any new neurons in the adult hippocampus. Keep (C) because to compare the brains of newborns to the brains of adults is a direct paraphrase of Paredes’s quote. Eliminate (D) because, although 1,618 young neurons…does appear elsewhere, this is not the reason given for their confidence. The correct answer is (C).
22. B
The question asks for a shortcoming in their study to which the authors of the study in Passage 1 concede. Notice that the following question is a best evidence question, so this question and Q23 can be done in tandem. Look at the answers to Q23 first. The lines for (23A) reference One of the liveliest debates in neuroscience; they don’t mention a shortcoming in the authors’ study, so eliminate (23A). The lines for (23B) state that neurogenesis declines throughout childhood and is undetectable in adults; this is a finding of the study, not a shortcoming, so eliminate (23B). The lines for (23C) state that the researchers found plentiful evidence of neurogenesis; this is also a finding of the study, not a shortcoming, so eliminate (23C). The lines for (23D) state that the authors acknowledge…it would be impossible to definitively show that there are never any new neurons in the adult hippocampus. This is a shortcoming of the study admitted by the authors, so look to see if those lines support any answers from Q22. They support (22B), They could not completely rule out the presence of a certain biological structure, so connect these two answers. Without support from Q23, (22A), (22C), and (22D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (22B) and (23D).
23. D
(See explanation above.)
24. D
The question asks about implications beyond showing whether or not new neurons form later in life in Passage 1. Carefully read each line reference and eliminate any that don’t answer the question. The lines in (A) describe the study’s finding that new neurons may not be born in the adult human brain at all; however, these lines don’t mention any implications beyond this finding, so eliminate (A). The lines in (B) mention an observation supporting the study’s findings about whether or not new neurons form later in life, but they don’t mention any implications beyond this finding, so eliminate (B). Similarly, the lines in (C) mention an observation supporting the study’s findings about whether or not new neurons form later in life, but they don’t mention any implications beyond this finding, so eliminate (C). The lines in (D) suggest that the study’s findings may point the way to understanding what makes the human brain distinct from other animals and set researchers on a better path to developing treatments for human brain diseases. This is an implication beyond showing whether or not new neurons form later in life, so keep it. The correct answer is (D).
25. A
The question asks what Boldrini would most likely agree with about the brains of mice, according to Passage 2. Look for the lead word mice in Passage 2. In the first paragraph, Maura Boldrini says, “In mice, researchers have shown that neurogenesis drops pretty dramatically after middle age.” Neurogenesis is defined as the production of new neurons. Keep (A), since Age is negatively correlated with neuron development in mice brains is a paraphrase of these lines. Eliminate (B) since there is no indication that studying mice brains can eliminate the need to study human brains; in fact, the rest of the passage is about a study of human brains. Choice (C) suggests the brains of mice are different from those of other animals. However, the first sentence of the passage speaks about animals in general, indicating that the capacity for production of new neurons in mice as well as other animals declines with age; this is a similarity between the cells of mouse brains and those of other animal brains, not a difference between them. Eliminate (C). Choice (D) refers to how rapidly cells deteriorate, whereas the passage discusses the brain’s ability to make new neurons; eliminate (D). The correct answer is (A).
26. B
The question asks for the purpose of the phrase prevailing view in line 81. Use the given line reference to find the window in the passage. The fourth paragraph says that Based on the prevailing view in the field, [Boldrini and Mann] expected to see neurogenesis decline with age. It didn’t. The phrase creates a contrast between an expectation and a new result. Eliminate (A) because the result was not as expected. Keep (B) because it expresses a contrast. Eliminate (C) because it is too specific; although the text mentions the prevailing view in the field, it does not mention a particular previous study. Eliminate (D) because it suggests support for the prevailing view when in fact, it is opposed by the results of the experiment, not supported. The correct answer is (B).
27. D
The question asks what Boldrini means to suggest when she describes finding neurogenesis “both in the youngest and the oldest people analyzed” in lines 87–88. Use the given line reference to find the window in the passage. These lines state, “We found there were on the order of thousands…both in the youngest and the oldest people analyzed,” said Boldrini. Eliminate (A) because the youngest and oldest people analyzed are not necessarily the same as the very young and the very old. The fourth paragraph actually indicates that the people analyzed ranged in age from 14 to 79 years old. Eliminate (B) because the passage does not say that the people in the study were at the beginning or end of their lives. Eliminate (C) because there is no indication that Boldrini believed the research sample was incomplete for their purposes. Keep (D) because the idea that researchers found new neurons in a wide range of ages is supported by Boldrini’s statement and the known ages of the people analyzed. The correct answer is (D).
28. C
The question asks for the purpose of lines 89–93. Use the given line reference to find the window in the passage. The text presents findings contradicting the previous understanding that the production of new neurons declines with age. Then, it describes an additional finding about older brains: they had less vascular development, and the neurons in older hippocampi expressed lower levels of proteins associated with plasticity, or the formation of new neural connections. The implication is that decreases in vascular development and proteins may explain the effects that scientists had originally attributed to the loss of new neuron production as people age. Eliminate (A) because, although this information wasn’t discovered in previous research, the author’s purpose is not to suggest that the research was incomplete. Eliminate (B) because it is contradicted: the study found that the hippocampus does not lose the ability to form new neurons as it ages. Keep (C) because it describes the information as a new explanation for the negative effects of aging on the brain. Eliminate (D) because the passage does not discuss a way to prevent the loss of neural development with age. The correct answer is (C).
29. A
The question asks for a common purpose of the passages related to the studies. Because this question asks about both passages, it should be done after all the questions that ask about the passages individually. The third paragraph of Passage 1 states that the lab’s new research…suggests new neurons may not be born in the adult human brain at all. The final paragraph of Passage 2 states that the results point to a new model of brain aging, in which older brains retain the ability to make new neurons. Both passages discuss studies of neuron growth. Keep (A) because it is a good paraphrase of the prediction; both of the studies examine whether or not human brains continue to create certain cells as they age. Eliminate (B) because neither passage describes the way the human brain creates new cells, only when it happens. Eliminate (C) because there is no indication that the study in Passage 1 provided evidence to contradict current beliefs. Eliminate (D) because the study in Passage 2 did not include newborns. The correct answer is (A).
30. B
The question asks for a claim with which Paredes in Passage 1 and Boldrini in Passage 2 would most likely agree. Because this question asks about both passages, it should be done after all the questions that ask about the passages individually. Consider each study and eliminate answers that are not supported by both passages. Eliminate (A) because the authors of both studies report conclusions about whether or not adult brains develop new neurons. Keep (B) because both Paredes’s and Boldrini’s studies compared the brains of the very young with the brains of the aging, indicating that they agree that this is an effective way to study brain development; Paredes’s study compared newborn and adult brains, while Boldrini’s study was based on brain tissue samples from 28 healthy donors ranging in age from 14 to 79 years old. Eliminate (C) because neither author claims to help adult brains continue to produce neurons. Eliminate (D) because there is no evidence in Passage 2 about advancements in other areas of brain health and disease. The correct answer is (B).
31. D
The question asks how Paredes and Boldrini support their conclusions. Because this question asks about both passages, it should be done after all the questions that ask about the passages individually. Consider the descriptions of each study’s results. Paredes’s study was based on careful analysis of 59 samples of human hippocampus, and Boldrini’s study dissected and examined a representative sample of human hippocampi. Each was informed by the human brain. Eliminate (A) because there is no mention of experiments that replicate conditions in the human body in Passage 1. Eliminate (B) because neither study’s conclusion was based on data gathered from various textbooks and journals. Eliminate (C) because neither study included observations of human behavior. Keep (D) because both studies included scientific analysis of human brains. The correct answer is (D).
32. D
The question asks for a larger claim supported by the author’s descriptions of John Bull. Because this is a general question, it should be done after all the specific questions. In the third and fourth paragraphs, the author observes that the secret of the matter is that John has a great disposition to protect and patronize. He thinks it indispensable to the dignity of an ancient and honorable family, to be bounteous in its appointments and eaten up by dependents. The consequence is that like many other venerable family establishments, his manor is encumbered by old retainers whom he cannot turn off, and an old style which he cannot lay down…All those whims and habits have concurred woefully to drain the old gentleman’s purse. In other words, John Bull tries to support many people and maintain a grand lifestyle, and that puts a financial strain on him. Eliminate (A) because the passage does not indicate that withdrawing from the public stage would weaken John Bull’s estate. Eliminate (B) because the passage does not indicate that it would be more difficult for John Bull to give up or abdicate his position than to safeguard it. Eliminate (C): although it mentions financial stability, the passage does not argue that financial stability is incompatible with ruling compassionately and maintaining shared traditions. Keep (D) because an overextended sphere of influence refers to the old retainers that John Bull supports and the old style he maintains, and jeopardize personal welfare refers to the drain on the old gentleman’s purse. The correct answer is (D).
33. A
The question asks about the shift in the central focus over the course of the passage. Because this is a general question, it should be done after all the specific questions. The first paragraph states that a stranger who wishes to study English peculiarities may gather much valuable information from the innumerable portraits of John Bull, as exhibited in the windows of the caricature-shops. In other words, John Bull is not an actual individual, but a representation of a certain type of English person. (This is also stated in the blurb: “John Bull” is a satirical figure used to personify England particularly the English middle class.) The author describes John Bull and the troubles he faces and in the final paragraph says, All that I wish is that John’s present troubles may teach him more prudence in future. Keep (A), since the first part of the passage is a description of a symbolic figure and the end of the passage is a call for caution and consideration regarding future conduct. Eliminate (B) because the author never denounces John Bull as a national embarrassment. Eliminate (C) because the author does not cast doubt on John Bull’s ability to improve his situation. Eliminate (D) because the author does not condemn John Bull but rather says many positive things about him. The author does criticize some of John’s extravagances, but these are not limited to familial attitudes. Finally, the passage does not end with mourning but with cautioning and a wish for John Bull’s future. The correct answer is (A).
34. A
The question asks for a contrast presented in the passage. Because this is a general question, it should be done after all the specific questions. The second and third paragraphs give examples of how John Bull tries to help others: He is a boon companion, and he will stand by a friend in a quarrel, with life and purse, and He is a busy-minded personage, who thinks not merely for himself and family but for all the country round, and is most generously disposed to be everybody’s champion. The fourth paragraph describes how these generous tendencies have led to trouble for John Bull: All those whims and habits have concurred woefully to drain the old gentleman’s purse. What is worst of all is the effect which these pecuniary embarrassments have had on the poor man himself. Instead of strutting about as formerly…he now goes about whistling thoughtfully to himself, with his head drooping down. Keep (A), since these lines present a contrast between John Bull’s well-meaning intentions and his own best interest. Eliminate (B) because there is no discussion of the duty to volunteer for one’s country. Eliminate (C) because the passage does not discuss growing up a part of the aristocracy or earning a position of influence. Eliminate (D) because these ideas are not contrasted; rather, John tries to respect traditions by honoring what he sees as his modern obligations. The correct answer is (A).
35. A
The question asks what the word sketch means in line 5. Go back to the text, find the word sketch, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The first paragraph introduces John Bull and states, I cannot resist the temptation to give a slight sketch of him, such as he has met my eye. The next paragraph begins a description of John Bull. The correct answer should mean something like “description.” Keep (A) because account is consistent with “description.” Eliminate (B) because farce means “a sham” or “a mockery,” not “description.” Eliminate (C) because a cartoon could be a literal sketch, but the word does not mean “description.” Eliminate (D) because impersonation means “imitation,” not “description.” The correct answer is (A).
36. B
The question asks for lines from the passage that support the idea that John Bull’s core values include caring for others. Read each line reference in the answers and eliminate any that don’t answer the question. The lines in (A) say that Bull has a vast deal of strong natural feeling, but there is no further information about what that feeling is or whether it includes caring, so eliminate (A). The lines in (B) say that John Bull thinks not merely for himself and family but for all the country round, and is most generously disposed to be everybody’s champion. These lines support the idea that his core values include caring for others, so keep (B). The lines in (C) say the old fellow’s spirit is as tall and as gallant as ever but do not reference caring for others, so eliminate (C). The lines in (D) reference his virtues—plain, homebred, and unaffected—but do not specifically reference caring for others, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
37. D
The question asks what the word abuses means in line 35 and line 36. Go back to the text, find the word abuses, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The third paragraph describes John Bull’s great disposition to protect and patronize and says, He thinks it indispensable to the dignity of an ancient and honorable family, to be bounteous in its appointments and eaten up by dependents. The consequence is that like many other venerable family establishments, his manor is encumbered by old retainers whom he cannot turn off…In short, John has such a reverence for everything that has been long in the family that he will not hear even of abuses being reformed, because they are good old family abuses. In other words, John Bull is financially burdened by people who live at his house. The correct answer should mean something like “burdens.” Eliminate (A) because, even though violations might initially seem consistent with abuses, that word is too strong based on the context of the passage. Eliminate (B) because no one in the family is physically attacking Bull. Eliminate (C) because the family members live in the house; there are no invasions occurring. Keep (D) because impositions is consistent with “burdens.” The correct answer is (D).
38. B
The question asks what the repeated references to a “cudgel”…emphasize about John Bull. Look for the lead word cudgel throughout the second half of the passage. The fourth paragraph contrasts John Bull’s former strutting about…flourishing his cudgel with the way he now goes about whistling thoughtfully to himself, with his head drooping down, his cudgel tucked under his arm. In the last paragraph, the author hopes that John Bull may cease to distress his mind about other people’s affairs; that he may give up the fruitless attempt to promote the good of his neighbors and the peace and happiness of the world by dint of the cudgel. The cudgel is associated with John Bull’s former confidence and influence. Eliminate (A) because although a cudgel is a physical object, it is being used to represent non-physical attributes. Keep (B) because reputation of power and authority is consistent with the references to the cudgel and the idea of Bull’s influence. Eliminate (C) because, although a cudgel can be used as a weapon, the author does not mention a capacity for violence and retaliation in Bull. The passage states that John Bull thinks not merely for himself and family but for all the country round, and is most generously disposed to be everybody’s champion; however, this is a reference to his relationships with his family and neighbors; it does not literally mean that he was a champion of England, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
39. B
The question asks what the word interest means in line 56. Go back to the text, find the word interest, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word or phrase that would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The final paragraph begins, I confess I cannot look upon John’s situation without strong feelings of interest. The author describes John Bull’s good qualities and says, All that I wish is that John’s present troubles may teach him more prudence in future. That he may cease to distress his mind about other people’s affairs…that he gradually get his house into repair and long enjoy, on his paternal lands, a green, an honorable, and a merry old age. The correct answer should mean something like “concern for his well-being.” Eliminate (A) because suspicion is a negative definition for interest that isn’t consistent with the context. Keep (B) because care is consistent with “concern for his well- being.” Eliminate (C) because amusement does not mean “concern for his well-being.” Eliminate (D) because curiosity and interest both involve wanting more information about a thing, but curiosity does not mean “concern for his well-being.” The correct answer is (B).
40. D
The question asks why John Bull suffers financial hardship. Notice that the following question is a best evidence question, so this question and Q41 can be answered in tandem. Look at the answers for Q41 first. The lines in (41A) mention that John Bull will stand by a friend in a quarrel, with life and purse. However, none of the answers for Q40 mentions supporting a friend, so eliminate (41A). The lines in (41B) state that the consequence [of allowing his family to maintain their lifestyle] is that like many other venerable family establishments, his manor is encumbered by old retainers whom he cannot turn off, and an old style which he cannot lay down. Look to see if those lines support any answers in Q40. Choice (40A) might initially look attractive, but the lines are about John and his motivations, not the actions and motivations of his family members. Choice (40D) says that John Bull suffers financial hardship because his pride in his family’s holdings compromises his ability to manage them well. Connect those two answers. The lines in (41C) state that his pockets are evidently empty, but does not offer a reason for this, so eliminate (41C). The lines for (41D) include the statement that His extravagance savors of his generosity, but these lines do not directly support any of the answers for Q40, so eliminate (41D). Without support from Q41, (40A), (40B), and (40C) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (40D) and (41B).
41. B
(See explanation above.)
42. C
The question asks how the author would most likely describe the public’s attitude toward John Bull. Look for references to the public in the passage. The final paragraph says that John Bull is at least twice as good as his neighbors represent him. This indicates that the author believes John Bull’s neighbors, representing the public in the context of the passage, view him more negatively than he deserves. Eliminate (A) because there is no discussion of the public’s view on John Bull’s financial stability. Eliminate (B) because there is no mention of the public’s view of his service to their communities. Keep (C) because the statement that the public is overly critical of his faults is supported by the statement about John Bull’s neighbors. Eliminate (D) because there is no indication that the public is indifferent to John Bull’s success or failure. The correct answer is (C).
43. D
The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. Because this is a general question, it should be done after all the specific questions. The passage describes research exploring the first-night effect: the tendency for people’s sleep to be disturbed during their first night in an unfamiliar environment. Eliminate (A) because the first-night effect is not a sleep disorder: the first paragraph states that healthy people…show this first-night effect. The passage also describes more than one study. Eliminate (B) because it does not mention the first-night effect. Eliminate (C) because the passage offers reasons, not solutions, for difficulties sleeping in new places. Keep (D) because the description of a common phenomenon in sleep is consistent with the statement that 99 percent of the time they show this first-night effect. The correct answer is (D).
44. B
The question asks what the author is suggesting about Sasaki and her colleagues by using the words “wondered” and “hunch” in lines 19–27. Use the given line reference to find the window in the passage. The text says that Sasaki wondered if humans do something similar…It was a bit of a hunch. That similarity refers to the previous paragraph: Other animals can straddle the boundaries between sleeping and wakefulness. The words wondered and hunch indicate that Sasaki and her colleagues undertook the research based on curiosity and a guess that there might be a connection, rather than concrete evidence. Eliminate (A) because there’s no indication that the researchers thought the first-night effect would be most apparent in particular people. Keep (B) because they had not previously discovered evidence. Eliminate (C) because although the passage brings up humans’ and animals’ environments, it does not mention similarities between them. Eliminate (D) because the author suggests that Sasaki did make some sort of prediction, not that the researchers failed to make a particular prediction. The correct answer is (B).
45. A
The question asks about subjects who had weaker left hemisphere slow-wave activity during the first night in the medical scanner. Notice that the following question is a best evidence question, so this question and Q46 can be done in tandem. Look at the answers to Q46 first. The lines in (46A) indicate that the stronger the asymmetry between slow-wave activity in the left and right halves of the brain, the longer the volunteers took to fall asleep. Look to see if those lines support any answers from Q45. They support (45A), which states that those with weaker left hemisphere slow-wave activity were more wakeful. Connect these two answers. The lines in (46B) describe a later study and refer to all of the participants rather than just those with weaker left hemisphere slow-wave activity, so eliminate (46B). The lines in (46C) do not describe the subjects in the study, so eliminate (46C). The lines in (46D) do not describe the subjects in the study, so eliminate (46D). Without support from Q46, (45B), (45C), and (45D) can be eliminated. The correct answers are (45A) and (46A).
46. A
(See explanation above.)
47. C
The question asks for the hypothesis that Sasaki’s group tested in their experiment with headphones. Look for the key word headphones in the passage. The seventh paragraph begins: To test this idea, Sasaki asked more volunteers to sleep in a normal bed with a pair of headphones. To know what idea was tested, read just before, which states that results fit with the idea of the first-night brain as a night watchman, in which the left default mode network is more responsive than usual. The hypothesis should have to do with the left default mode network being more responsive. Eliminate (A) because there is no mention of an electric current related to the experiment with headphones. Eliminate (B) because the experiment with the headphones was not related to how quickly the subjects fell asleep. Keep (C) because it refers to brain activity in the left hemisphere default mode network and sleep disturbances, which fits the prediction. Choice (D) also mentions the left default mode network. However, the experiment with headphones specifically tested sounds, whereas the researchers would have to test other kinds of stimuli in order to see if they were also affected; eliminate (D). The correct answer is (C).
48. B
The question asks for the main idea of the last paragraph. Carefully read the last paragraph. The text says that the research won’t help people sleep better in new places, but then it brings up something the researcher does that she hopes will make her brain a little more at ease for sleeping somewhere new. Although this paragraph acknowledges that the research will not help people sleep better in new places, it does not emphasize that the scientists could not provide useful applications for their sleep research, so eliminate (A). Keep (B) because the paragraph does suggest that people might be able to influence the severity of the first-night effect by staying in the same hotel or at least in the same chain when they travel. Eliminate (C) because, although Sasaki says she stays in the same hotel or at least in the same chain in order to possibly sleep better when traveling, the main idea of the paragraph is not to urge individuals to consider sleeping only in familiar places. Eliminate (D) because this paragraph does not question the general significance of the first-night effect; it simply states that understanding the first-night effect alone will not help people sleep better. The correct answer is (B).
49. D
The question asks what the word new means in line 84. Go back to the text, find the word new, and cross it out. Carefully read the surrounding text to determine another word that would fit in the blank based on the context of the passage. The last paragraph states the research won’t help people sleep better in new places, though. To do that, Sasaki tries to stay in the same hotel when she travels, or at least in the same chain. “I’m flying to England tomorrow and staying at a Marriott,” she says. “It’s not a completely novel environment, so maybe my brain will be a little more at ease.” The correct answer should mean something like “strange” or “different.” Eliminate (A) because pristine is a different meaning of new, rather than another word for “strange.” Eliminate (B) because singular means “extraordinary,” not “strange.” Choice (C) can be eliminated because inventive means “creative,” not “strange” or “different.” Keep (D) because unfamiliar is consistent with “different.” The correct answer is (D).
50. D
The question asks for the mean amplitude of brain responses to deviant sounds in the right hemisphere on Day 1 in figure 1. Look for the right hemisphere, Day 1, and mean amplitude on figure 1. In the figure, mean amplitude is measured on the y-axis, and the solid line represents the right hemisphere. The mean amplitude for the right hemisphere on Day 1 is approximately –2. Eliminate (A), (B), and (C), which are inconsistent with this information. The correct answer is (D).
51. D
The question asks about the relative amplitudes of left hemisphere brain responses to deviant sounds on Days 1 and 2 in figure 2. Look for information about the left hemisphere, Day 1, and Day 2 on figure 2, and eliminate any answer choices that are not consistent with the figure. Eliminate (A) because the relative amplitude for Day 2 reaches its most negative point about 700 ms after sound outset, not 1,000 ms after sound outset. Eliminate (B) because the relative amplitude for Day 2 becomes increasingly positive after 700 ms, not increasingly negative. Eliminate (C) because the relative amplitude for Day 1 is still more negative than its previous level 1,000 ms after sound outset. Keep (D) because the relative amplitudes for both Day 1 and Day 2 became more negative between 400 ms and 700 ms after sound onset. The correct answer is (D).
52. C
The question asks how the plotted points in figure 1 would change if the left hemisphere data was focused on responses 400 ms after sound onset, referring to the passage and figures 1 and 2. Read figures 1 and 2 carefully to determine how they relate to one another. The title for figure 2 indicates that it shows data for the left hemisphere. In figure 2, 400 ms after sound onset, the graph for Day 1 shows a relative amplitude of approximately –2, while the graph for Day 2 shows a relative amplitude of approximately 2. In figure 1, the mean amplitude of the left on Day 1 is approximately –6, and the mean amplitude of the left on Day 2 is approximately –1. Therefore, if the left hemisphere data in figure 1 was focused on responses 400 ms after sound onset, the points for both Day 1 and Day 2 would be more positive. Eliminate (A) because the points for the left hemisphere on both Day 1 and Day 2, not on Day 1 only, would be more positive. Eliminate (B) because the question is about a change in the left hemisphere data; there would be no effect on the points for the right hemisphere. Keep (C) because both points for the left hemisphere would be more positive. Eliminate (D) because the point for the right hemisphere on Day 2 would not change, so it would not be greater than zero. The correct answer is (C).
1. A
Commas change in the answer choices, so this question tests comma usage. The phrase former Director-General of the United Nations’ Food and Agricultural Organization is not necessary to the main meaning of the sentence, so it should be set off by commas. Choice (A) appropriately places commas both before and after the unnecessary phrase. Eliminate (B) and (C) because they lack a comma before the phrase. There is no need for a comma between Director-General and of, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (A).
2. B
Vocabulary changes in the answer choices, so this question tests precision of word choice. Look for a word or phrase with a definition that is consistent with the other ideas in the sentence. The number of words also changes in the answer choices, so this question could also test concision. Start with the most concise option, (B). The word pressing means “urgent and important,” which matches with the sentence’s meaning about water scarcity, so keep (B). Choice (A) is not as precise as (B) because more or less important does not correctly convey the idea of a severe strain on resources, so eliminate (A). Choice (C), unusually significant, is not as concise as (B), and there is no evidence from the sentence that water scarcity’s significance is unusual, so eliminate it. Choice (D), constantly thought about, is not precise, because something can be constantly thought about but not necessarily be an important issue that needs to be dealt with. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
3. B
Verbs change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of verbs. A verb must be consistent with the other verbs in the sentence. The other verbs in the sentence are are planted and is captured, which are in present tense, so the correct answer must also include a present-tense verb. Choices (A), (B), and (D) include the verb runs, which is correct. Eliminate (C): running is not consistent with the other verbs in the sentence, and it makes the sentence incomplete. Prepositions also change in the answer choices, so this question may test idioms. Look at the phrase before the preposition to determine the correct idiom. Choice (A) describes the water as of the plants. The phrase the water of is not a correct idiom, so eliminate (A). Choice (B) suggests that the water is for the plants, which is a correct idiom and makes the meaning of the sentence clear, so keep (B). Choice (D) says that the water is within the plants. The phrase the water within could be a correct idiom, but in this case the phrase does not make sense because water that is within plants could not run off into the environment. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
4. D
Note the question! The question asks whether a sentence should be added, so it tests consistency. If the content of the new sentence is consistent with the ideas surrounding it, then it should be added. The paragraph describes hydroponic systems and how they work. The new sentence explains types of produce that hydroponics can be used for, so it is not consistent with the ideas in the text; the new sentence should not be added. Eliminate (A) and (B). Eliminate (C) because this information is not given elsewhere in the passage. Keep (D) because it accurately states that types of produce are not relevant to the paragraph. The correct answer is (D).
5. C
Pronouns change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of pronouns. A pronoun must be consistent in number with the noun it refers to. The underlined pronoun refers to the phrase these plants, which is plural. To be consistent, the underlined pronoun must also be plural. Eliminate (D) because its is singular. There refers to location, which does not make sense in this context, so eliminate (A). They’re is a contraction of they are, which is needed in this sentence, so keep (C). The sentence does not indicate that these plants possess anything, so eliminate the possessive pronoun their in (B). The correct answer is (C).
6. D
Note the question! The question asks where sentence 5 should be placed, so it tests consistency of ideas. The sentence must be consistent with the ideas that come both before and after it. Sentence 5 says This reduces the environmental impact of transporting…from warmer regions. The sentence needs to come after the idea that this refers to: something that reduces transporting food from warmer regions. Sentence 3 states that indoor hydroponic systems can be used in almost any climate, which means the plants don’t have to come from warmer regions. Therefore, sentence 5 should follow sentence 3. Eliminate (A), (B), and (C). The correct answer is (D).
7. D
Verbs change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of verbs. A verb must be consistent with other verbs in the sentence. The other verb in the sentence is is, which is in simple present tense. To be consistent, the underlined verb must also be in present tense, so eliminate (A) and (C) since they are both past tense. Choice (B), are using, is in present tense, but it is not consistent with the simple present tense is. Eliminate (B). The correct answer is (D).
8. A
The number of words changes in the answer choices, so this question tests concision and precision. Check the shortest answer first: (A), criticize, provides a precise meaning, so keep it. Choices (B), (C), and (D) add the words complain or condemn, both of which are similar in meaning to criticize. There is no need to use more than one of those terms, so eliminate (B), (C), and (D). The correct answer is (A).
9. D
The subject of the phrase changes in the answer choices. There is a comparison in the sentence, so this question tests consistency. When two things are compared, they should be consistent with each other. The first item in the comparison is hydroponic produce. Eliminate (A) and (C) because farms are not consistent with produce. Eliminate (B) because from conventional places is not consistent with hydroponic in the first part of the comparison, which describes how the produce is grown. Conventionally-grown does describe how the produce is grown, so (D) makes the comparison consistent. The correct answer is (D).
10. B
Note the question! The question asks which choice most effectively supports the idea in the first part of the sentence, so it tests consistency. Eliminate answers that are inconsistent with the purpose stated in the question. The first part of the sentence says that hydroponic operations can…be more energy intensive, so the underlined portion needs to match with the idea of being energy intensive. Eliminate (A) because building materials do not have a direct connection with energy use. Keep (B) because the statement that systems may require a great deal of electricity is consistent with their being energy intensive. Eliminate (C) because the ability to grow different types of produce isn’t directly related to energy use. Eliminate (D) because urban zoning laws are also not consistent with the use of more energy. The correct answer is (B).
11. C
Note the question! The question asks which choice would conclude the passage by restating its main idea, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the main idea of the passage and find the answer that is consistent with that idea. The passage is about hydroponics, which is described as a potential solution to water scarcity. Eliminate (A) because organic status is not consistent with the passage’s main idea. Eliminate (B) because better taste also doesn’t match the main idea that hydroponics can help with water scarcity. Keep (C) because savings in water and worthy of consideration match the tone and main idea of the passage. Eliminate (D) because the passage is about hydroponics specifically and not the consequences of the use of water in general. The correct answer is (C).
12. C
Verbs change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of verbs. A verb must be consistent with the other verbs in the sentence. The sentence states that Marian Anderson was invited…to come to Washington D.C. and, so the underlined verb is in a list of two things and needs to be consistent with the verb come. In this case, come is part of the infinitive to come, and the to applies to both items in the list. The word perform completes the infinitive to perform. Eliminate (A), (B), and (C) because they do not use the correct form of perform. Keep (C) because to come…and perform is consistent. The correct answer is (C).
13. D
Vocabulary changes in the answer choices, so this question tests precision of word choice. Look for a word that is consistent with the other ideas in the sentence. The sentence describes the largest auditorium in the city and says of 4,000. A large auditorium would normally be described in terms of the number of people it can hold, so the correct word should mean something like “number of people it can hold.” Eliminate (A) because volume means “amount of space inside,” which does not refer to the number of people a building can hold. Eliminate (B) because size means “spatial dimensions,” which also does not refer to the number of people. Eliminate (C) because quantity means “number of things” and also does not refer to how many people can fit in the auditorium. Keep (D) because capacity means “how much or many something can hold,” and it can be used to refer to people. The correct answer is (D).
14. A
Note the question! The question asks which choice would introduce one of the main ideas of the passage, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the subject of the passage and find the answer that is consistent with that idea. The passage discusses how Marian Anderson wanted to eliminate prejudice and how her performance at the Lincoln Memorial is one example of why she is hailed for her role in cutting down barriers. Keep (A) because the struggle against racial prejudice is consistent with the main idea. Eliminate (B) because the organization and money are not related to the main idea about Anderson. Eliminate (C) because Anderson’s European tour is not consistent with the passage’s main idea. Eliminate (D) because Anderson’s past performance experience is not consistent with the idea that her Lincoln Memorial performance helped her to cut down barriers. The correct answer is (A).
15. D
Transitions change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of ideas. A transition must be consistent with the relationship between the ideas it connects. There is also the option to DELETE; consider this choice carefully, as it is often the correct answer. The sentence is precise without the underlined portion, so keep (D). The previous paragraph introduces Marian Anderson and describes how the DAR refused to allow an African American artist to perform at Constitution Hall. This paragraph introduces Eleanor Roosevelt and states that she resigned from the DAR in protest of its refusal to host Anderson. The information about Roosevelt’s actions describes some of the consequences of the DAR’s decision, so the correct answer should reflect that relationship between the ideas. There is no contrast between these ideas, so eliminate (B). Eliminate (A), Furthermore, and (C), In addition, because the information about Eleanor Roosevelt is part of the same story, rather than an additional point. No transition is necessary. The correct answer is (D).
16. D
Punctuation changes in the answer choices, so this question tests STOP, HALF-STOP, and GO punctuation. Use the vertical line test and identify the ideas as complete or incomplete. Draw the vertical line between the words House and resigned. The first part of the sentence, First Lady and DAR member Eleanor Roosevelt, who had previously invited Anderson to sing at the White House, is an incomplete idea. The second part of the sentence, resigned from the organization in protest of its refusal to host Anderson, is also an incomplete idea. Only GO punctuation can be used to connect two incomplete ideas. Eliminate (B) and (C) because colons and dashes are both HALF-STOP punctuation, which must come after a complete idea. The phrase who had previously invited Anderson to sing at the White House is an unnecessary phrase, so it should be set off by commas. Eliminate (A) because it lacks a comma after White House. Choice (D) appropriately places a comma after White House. The correct answer is (D).
17. C
Verbs change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of verbs. A verb must be consistent with its subject. The subject of the sentence is Roosevelt, which is singular. To be consistent, the underlined verb must also be singular. Eliminate (A), (B), and (D) because they are all plural verbs. The correct answer is (C).
18. A
Note the question! The question asks whether a sentence should be deleted, so it tests consistency. If the sentence is not consistent with the ideas surrounding it, then it should be deleted. The underlined sentence provides specific information about Anderson’s personality and what she valued. The paragraph goes on to tell about what Anderson believed and how she felt about the upcoming performance. The sentence is consistent with these ideas, so it should not be deleted. Eliminate (C) and (D). Choice (A) correctly states that the sentence supports the other claims made in the paragraph, so keep it. Eliminate (B) because the author does not later refute the ideas in the sentence. The correct answer is (A).
19. B
Punctuation changes in the answer choices, so this question tests STOP punctuation. A question mark should only be used at the end of a direct question. The writer is not directly asking a question in this sentence, so a question mark is not appropriate; eliminate (C) and (D). The wording of (A) would be appropriate for a question, but not for the description of events that this sentence contains; eliminate (A). Choice (B) correctly describes the phone call Anderson made to her manager. The correct answer is (B).
20. C
Punctuation changes in the answer choices, so this question could test STOP, HALF-STOP, and GO punctuation. The sentence contains a list of three things: 1) a patriotic song, 2) two classical songs, and 3) several spirituals. There should be a comma after each item in a list of three or more items. Eliminate (A) because it uses a semicolon instead of a comma. Eliminate (B) because it lacks a comma after songs. Keep (C) because it has a comma after each item in the list. Eliminate (D) because there should not be a comma after the word and. The correct answer is (C).
21. B
Note the question! The question asks how to effectively combine the underlined sentences, so it tests precision and concision. Eliminate (A) and (D) because the words acclaimed and praised mean the same thing, so these choices are repetitive. Keep (B) because it is concise and makes the sentence precise. Eliminate (C) because it does not precisely describe what elements of Anderson’s performance were acclaimed. The correct answer is (B).
22. A
Note the question! The question asks which choice reinforces the idea that Anderson focused on her singing as a way to fight intolerance, so it tests consistency. Eliminate answers that are inconsistent with the purpose stated in the question. Keep (A) because preferring to influence people through the power of her singing is consistent with the idea that she focused on her singing as a way to fight intolerance. Eliminate (B) because the fact that Anderson won the Spingarn Medal for outstanding achievement is not consistent with the idea that she was focused on fighting intolerance. Eliminate (C) because it focuses on the other African American artists Anderson inspired, not on what Anderson herself did to fight intolerance. Eliminate (D) because the description of Anderson’s type of classical singing voice is not consistent with the idea of fighting intolerance. The correct answer is (A).
23. D
Nouns change from singular to plural in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of nouns. A noun must be consistent in number with the other nouns in the sentence. The non-underlined portion of the sentence contains the singular noun a credit counselor; the opening phrase of the sentence describes this noun, so the underlined portion must also be singular. Eliminate (A) and (C) because they both use the plural noun specialists. The phrase acting as does not make the sentence more precise, so eliminate (B). Choice (D) is concise and consistent with the rest of the sentence. The correct answer is (D).
24. B
Punctuation changes in the answer choices, so this question tests STOP, HALF-STOP, and GO punctuation. Use the vertical line test and identify the ideas as complete or incomplete. Draw the vertical line between the words society and the. The first part of the sentence, Struggles with debt are common in American society, is a complete idea. The second part of the sentence, the 2018 Consumer Financial Literacy Survey revealed that one in four Americans admits to not paying all of his or her bills on time, while eight percent of respondents now have debts in collection, is also a complete idea. To connect two complete ideas, STOP or HALF-STOP punctuation is needed. Eliminate (C) because a comma alone is GO punctuation. Eliminate (A) and (D) because there is no need for a comma between the 2018 Consumer Financial Literacy Survey and revealed. The correct answer is (B).
25. B
Vocabulary changes in the answer choices, so this question tests precision of word choice. Look for a word with a definition that is consistent with the other ideas in the sentence. The word mite means “a small critter,” while might is used to express possibility. The sentence suggests that it is possible that resources would help, so the word might is needed, not mite. Eliminate (A) and (C). The word eliminate means “get rid of,” while illuminate means “light up.” The sentence discusses debt, so it makes more sense to “get rid of” debt than to “light up” debt. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B).
26. D
Note the question! The question asks which choice provides the best introduction to the main idea of the paragraph, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the subject of the paragraph and find the answer that is consistent with that idea. The paragraph describes how some people struggle with financial situations and explains how credit counselors can help. Eliminate (A) because academic research is not consistent with information about credit counselors. Eliminate (B) because the fact that people from all socioeconomic backgrounds can struggle with debt is not consistent with the paragraph’s focus on credit counselors. Choice (C) mentions credit counselors, but it suggests that some counselors take advantage of clients’ financial vulnerabilities, which is not consistent with the paragraph’s suggestion that credit counselors can help; eliminate (C). Keep (D) because the idea that credit counselors can be particularly effective when people face multiple complicated financial situations is consistent with the main idea of the paragraph. The correct answer is (D).
27. C
Vocabulary changes in the answer choices, so this question tests precision of word choice. Look for a word with a definition that is consistent with the other ideas in the sentence. The underlined word must be something that a counselor may propose for someone who struggles, so the correct answer should be something like “method of help.” Eliminate (A) because explanations means “meanings or reasons,” which is not consistent with the idea of “help.” Eliminate (B) because answers means “correct responses,” which may help but aren’t themselves a “method.” Keep (C) because solutions means “solving problems,” which is consistent with “method of help.” Eliminate (D) because insights means “understandings,” which is not consistent with the idea of a “method of help.” The correct answer is (C).
28. C
Apostrophes change in the answer choices, so this question tests apostrophe usage. When used with a noun, an apostrophe indicates possession. In this sentence, neither resolutions nor habits possesses anything, so an apostrophe is not needed in either word. Eliminate (A), (B), and (D) because they contain unnecessary apostrophes. The correct answer is (C).
29. A
Note the question! The question asks which choice provides accurate information from the table to support the point made in the sentence, so it tests consistency. Read the labels on the table carefully, and look for an answer that is consistent with the information given in the table. The sentence states that participants who didn’t receive counseling…increased their overall debt levels. Look for this information in the table. The row labeled Non-Counseled Individuals’ Total Debt shows that their total debt had a change of +$2,808, which indicates a debt increase of that amount. Choice (A) provides this information, so keep it. Eliminate (B) because the number it includes is labeled in the table as a change in open credit ratio for counseled individuals, not an increase in debt for those who didn’t receive counseling. Eliminate (C) because the number it provides is the total amount of debt for those who received counseling at the end of the study. Eliminate (D) because it shows the decrease in debt for individuals who received counseling. The correct answer is (A).
30. D
Note the question! The question asks which choice provides the best transition from the previous sentence, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the ideas from the sentences before and after the underlined phrase, and look for an answer choice that is consistent with both. The previous sentence states that participants who didn’t receive counseling…increased their overall debt levels. The sentence that starts with the underlined phrase states that clients who received counseling…decreased their total debt. Eliminate (A) because the stigma is not consistent with these ideas. Eliminate (B) because the phrase not always successful is not consistent with the point the two sentences are making, which is that counseling can be successful. Eliminate (C) because the idea that personal finances are so complicated is not consistent with the idea that counseling can be helpful. Keep (D) because it introduces the second sentence as proof of the success of counseling programs, which is consistent with the idea that counseling can be helpful. The correct answer is (D).
31. B
Note the question! The question asks which choice best uses information from the table to illustrate the claim made earlier in the sentence, so it tests consistency. Read the labels on the table carefully, and look for an answer that is consistent with the information given in the table. The claim made earlier in the sentence is that people who received counseling experienced a greater bump in open credit ratio. Eliminate (A) because the group whose final open credit ratio was 0.48 was the non-counseled individuals. Keep (B) because it describes an increase and refers to the correct group. Eliminate (C) because overall debt increase doesn’t have to do with open credit ratio. Eliminate (D) because it talks only about a pre-counseling ratio, which does not show an increase. The correct answer is (B).
32. C
Punctuation changes in the answer choices, so this question tests STOP, HALF-STOP, and GO punctuation. Use the vertical line test and identify the ideas as complete or incomplete. Draw the vertical line between the words overnight and nevertheless. The first part of the sentence, While a credit counselor may not be able to resolve an individual’s financial difficulties overnight, is an incomplete idea. The second part of the sentence, nevertheless, financial counseling provides valuable insights for people struggling with monetary commitments, is a complete idea. To connect an incomplete idea to a complete idea, GO punctuation is needed. Eliminate (A) and (D) because a semicolon is STOP punctuation. Eliminate (B) because a comma with a FANBOYS word such as but is also STOP punctuation, and the first part of the sentence is still incomplete. Choice (C) correctly links the sentences with a comma. The correct answer is (C).
33. C
Vocabulary changes in the answer choices, so this question tests precision of word choice. Look for a word with a definition that is consistent with the other ideas in the sentence. The sentence describes how credit counselors can help people get out of some kind of financial distress. The word beyond indicates a contrast with the second part of the sentence, which describes long-term strategies for the future. Thus, the underlined portion needs to mean something like “short-term.” Eliminate (A) because close-up means “physically near by,” which is not consistent with “short-term.” Eliminate (B) because cutting means “harmful,” which is not consistent with “short-term.” Keep (C) because immediate means “happening right away,” which is consistent with “short-term.” Eliminate (D) because fierce means “intense or hostile,” which is not consistent with “short-term.” The correct answer is (C).
34. B
The phrase containing instituted changes in the answer choices, so this question tests precision and concision. First determine whether the phrase is necessary. The words instituted and begun mean the same thing, so the additional word begun is not needed. Eliminate (A) and (C) because they repeat the same idea. Enacting also means the same thing as instituting, so eliminate (D). Choice (B) is concise and makes the meaning of the sentence precise. The correct answer is (B).
35. A
Transitions change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of ideas. A transition must be consistent with the relationship between the ideas it connects. There is also the option to DELETE; consider this choice carefully as it is often the correct answer. A transition is necessary to make the sentence complete, so eliminate (D). The idea that the TSCA might protect US citizens from toxic chemicals agrees with the statement that the act might remove dangerous substances from the environment, so a same-direction transition is needed. Eliminate (B) because however is an opposite-direction transition. The second idea adds on to the first, so eliminate (C) because the second idea is not an example of the first idea. Choice (A) appropriately links the ideas with the word and. The correct answer is (A).
36. D
Verbs change in the answer choices, so this question tests consistency of verbs. A verb must be consistent with its subject. The subject of the verb is A company, which is singular. To be consistent, the underlined verb must also be singular. Eliminate (A) and (B) because they are plural. Choice (C), being, makes the sentence incomplete, so eliminate it. Choice (D) is singular and makes the sentence complete. The correct answer is (D).
37. B
Note the question! The question asks which choice best introduces the topic of this sentence, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the subject of the sentence and find the answer that is consistent with that idea. The sentence says in order to do so, it has only 90 days to do extensive testing. The underlined portion needs to explain what has to be done through testing in 90 days and provide a noun that it refers to. Eliminate (A) because it does not contain a singular noun that it could refer to. Keep (B) because in this case it refers to the EPA, and proving that the chemical poses “unreasonable risk” could be the testing that needs to be done within 90 days. Eliminate (C) because it does not contain a singular noun that it could refer to. Eliminate (D) because it does not include something that needs to be done through extensive testing in 90 days. The correct answer is (B).
38. A
Prepositions change in the answer choices, so this question tests idioms. Choice (A), passed stricter legislation, is a correct idiom, so keep it. Eliminate (B) because passed on means “rejected,” and the sentence suggests that legislation has been passed in many states, not rejected. Eliminate (C) because had a passing of stricter legislation is not a correct idiom. The correct idiom is passed legislation. Eliminate (D) because passed by means “went past,” and the sentence does not suggest that states have traveled past legislation. The correct answer is (A).
39. C
Note the question! The question asks how to effectively combine the underlined sentences, so it tests precision and concision. Eliminate (A) and (D) because the sentence already says for example, so the phrase such as is not necessary. Eliminate (B) because it conveys the same idea as (C) but is less concise. Choice (C) is concise and effectively conveys that toys or children’s jewelry are examples of products. The correct answer is (C).
40. C
Apostrophes change in the answer choices, so this question tests apostrophe usage. When used with a noun, an apostrophe indicates possession. In this sentence, neither states nor restrictions possess anything, so no apostrophes are needed. Eliminate (A), (B), and (D) because they all use unnecessary apostrophes. The correct answer is (C).
41. A
Note the question! The question asks which information from the table provides the strongest evidence in support of the paragraph’s main point, so it tests consistency. Read the labels on the chart carefully, and look for an answer that is consistent with the information given in the chart. All answer choices are consistent with the chart, so identify the paragraph’s main point, and look for an answer that is consistent with that. The paragraph states that many states are frustrated by the federal government’s lack of action on toxic chemicals and that they have passed their own stricter legislation. The answer must be consistent with this idea. Keep (A) because the chart shows a total of 30 states with existing or pending regulation regarding the use of mercury, so this choice is consistent with the chart and with the main point of the paragraph. Eliminate (B) because ten states is not as consistent with many states as is (A). Eliminate (C) because the idea that forty-six states have not yet taken any action to regulate a specific chemical is not consistent with the main point of the paragraph. Eliminate (D) because the number of different chemicals that are more strictly regulated by states is not consistent with the main point that many states have taken legislative action—it could be that a small number of states regulated many different chemicals. The correct answer is (A).
42. B
Note the question! The question asks which choice best introduces the discussion in the rest of the paragraph, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the subject of the rest of the paragraph and find the answer that is consistent with that idea. The rest of the paragraph describes the Green Chemistry Initiative and how it combines the efforts of different types of people. Eliminate (A) because funding is not consistent with the idea of combined efforts. Keep (B) because a cooperative model is consistent with the idea of combined efforts. Eliminate (C) and (D) because reorganization and chemical testing are not consistent with combines the efforts. The correct answer is (B).
43. B
Punctuation changes in the answer choices, so this question tests STOP, HALF-STOP, and GO punctuation. Use the vertical line test and identify the ideas as complete or incomplete. Draw the vertical line between the words 1991 and has. The first part of the sentence, The California Environmental Protection Agency (CalEPA), a state agency established in 1991, is an incomplete idea. The second part, has created a Green Chemistry Initiative that combines the efforts of lawmakers, the people of California, and the chemistry industry to create a market in which all products are evaluate for their impact on human health and the environment, is also an incomplete idea. To connect two incomplete ideas, GO punctuation is needed. Keep (A) and (B) because they are both GO punctuation. Eliminate (C) and (D) because they are STOP and HALF-STOP punctuation, respectively. Now decide whether the sentence needs a comma. Because there is a comma before the unnecessary phrase a state agency established in 1991, there must be another comma after the phrase. Eliminate (A) because it does not have this comma. The correct answer is (B).
44. C
Note the question! The question asks which choice best introduces the argument made in the final sentence of the paragraph, so it tests consistency of ideas. Determine the argument in the final sentence and find the answer that is consistent with that idea. The final sentence states that The US government could accomplish a particular outcome by creating a similar, preemptive national initiative, rather than waiting for a substance to be proven toxic before restricting its use. The word by before the word creating in the second part of the sentence indicates that the underlined portion describes the imagined result of creating this initiative. The initiative that the US government could replicate, according to the paragraph, is the California initiative that the previous sentence describes as producing a market in which all products are evaluated for their impact on human health and the environment. Eliminate (A) because trendsetter is not consistent with the idea that the US government could create a similar initiative to the one in California. Eliminate (B) because appease state regulatory agencies is not consistent with the idea of creating a national initiative to evaluate chemicals. Keep (C) because protect the government’s citizens and environment from toxic chemicals is consistent with the reason given by the paragraph for the initiative. Eliminate (D) because saving taxpayer funds is not consistent with the idea in the last sentence. The correct answer is (C).
1. A
The question asks for the expression that is equivalent to the expression (3x4 + 2x3 – 7) + (4x6 – 5x3 + 9). Because the expression is the sum of two polynomials, combine like terms using Bite-Sized Pieces. Start by looking for differences in the choices. Choice (D) includes 7x10. Because there are no x10 terms in either polynomial, there can be no x10 term in the sum. This is a trap based on adding the exponents in the first terms, which is an improper use of exponent rules. Eliminate (D). All the remaining choices include 4x6, 3x4, and 2, so ignore the x6, x4, and constant terms. Combine the x3 terms to get 2x3 – 5x3 = –3x3. Eliminate (B) and (C), which don’t include –3x3. The correct answer is (A).
2. C
The question asks for the solution to the system of equations, which can be found by locating the intersection point of the two lines. The lines cross at (2, 3), so the correct answer is (C).
3. D
The question asks for the amount of additional time needed to eat all the pretzels. To find this, multiply the amount of time it takes to eat each pretzel by the number of pretzels remaining in the box. It takes Rosa 18 seconds to eat each pretzel. Also, Rosa has already eaten 10 out of the p crackers in the box, so there are p – 10 crackers remaining. Find the additional time needed by multiplying these two amounts to get 18(p – 10). The correct answer is (D).
4. C
The question asks for the slope and y-intercept of the line. The equation given is very close to standard form. To get the equation in standard form, Ax + By = C, subtract 9 from both sides to get –9 = 7y – 5x, which can be rewritten as –5x + 7y = –9. In standard form, the slope is 
, so the slope of this line is 
. Eliminate (A) and (B). The y-intercept of a line in standard form is 
, so the y-intercept of this line is 
. Eliminate (D). The correct answer is (C).
5. A
The question asks for the value of n, so solve the equation. To eliminate the fraction, multiply each term on both sides by 3 to get 15 + 3n = 27 – n. Add n to both sides to get 15 + 4n = 27. Subtract 15 from both sides to get 4n = 12. Divide both sides by 4 to get n = 3. The correct answer is (A).
6. B
The question asks for the equation that could represent line p. All of the equations are in the form y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept. The b term is the same in all the choices, so ignore the y-intercept and find the slope. Line p is perpendicular to line q. Perpendicular lines have negative reciprocal slopes, so find the slope of q using the formula 
. Identify the points (0, –4) and (3, 0) on the graph and substitute them into the formula to get 
. Since the slope of q is 
, the slope of p is 
. Eliminate (A), (C), and (D), which have the wrong slope. The correct answer is (B).
7. C
The question asks for the complex number that is equivalent to the given expression. To subtract complex numbers, subtract like terms. Subtracting the real parts results in 4 – 6 = –2, and subtracting the imaginary parts results in 7i – 2i = 5i. Therefore, (4 + 7i) – (6 + 2i) = –2 + 5i. The correct answer is (C).
8. D
The question asks for the value of n. The given equation is a rational equation, so cross-multiply to get 4(n + 2) = 5(n – 3). Distribute to get 4n + 8 = 5n – 15. Subtract 4n from both sides to get 8 = n – 15. Add 15 to both sides to get n = 23. The correct answer is (D).
9. B
The question asks for the solution set of the equation. There are numbers in the choices, so plug in the answers. Start by plugging a = 4 into the equation to get 0 = [3(4) + 1]2(4 – 4), which simplifies to 0 = (13)2(0) and 0 = 0. Therefore a = 4 is part of the solution set, so eliminate (A) and (C), which don’t include 4. The remaining choices both include
, so don’t plug in that value. Instead plug in 
to get 
, which simplifies to 
, or 
. This is false, so is not part of the solution set. Eliminate (D), which includes 
. The correct answer is (B).
10. D
The question asks for the solution set to the equation. The equation is complicated to solve, but there are numbers in the choices, so plug in the answers. The number 7 appears in exactly two choices, so start there. Plug m = 7 into the equation. However, this will put a 0 in the denominator of two of the fractions, making them undefined. Therefore, 7 cannot be a solution to the equation. (Note that an algebraic solution will yield m = 7 as an extraneous solution.) Eliminate (A) and (C), which include 7. Both remaining choices include 4, so don’t plug this in. Instead, plug in m = 5, which is in (B) but not (D). Plug m = 5 into the equation to get 
. Simplify to get 
, or 
. This is false, so 5 is not part of the solution set. Eliminate (B). The correct answer is (D).
11. A
The question asks for the value of c in a quadratic function and states that 3 is a root of the function. A root is a value of x for which the function equals 0. Substitute x = 3 into the equation, and set the equation equal to 0 to get 32 + 13(3) + c = 0. Simplify the left side to get 9 + 39 + c = 0 and 48 + c = 0. Subtract 48 from both sides to get c = –48. The correct answer is (A).
12. A
The question asks for the expression that is equivalent to the given expression, which is the difference of two fractions. To subtract fractions, use common denominators. Multiply the second fraction by 
to get 
. Now that the denominators are the same, subtract the numerators to get 
. Reduce the fraction by dividing the numerator and denominator by 2 to get 
. The correct answer is (A).
13. A
The question asks for the product of the x-coordinates of the solutions to a system of equations in the xy-plane. To get the solutions, set the two equations equal to each other to get x2 + 3 = 15x – 33. Now, get one side equal to 0. Subtract 15x from both sides to get x2 – 15x + 3 = –33. Add 33 to both sides to get x2 – 15x + 36 = 0. The question asks for the product of the x-coordinates of the solutions, so there is no need to actually get the solutions. The product of the solutions to a quadratic equation in the form ax2 + bx + c = 0 is 
. In the equation x2 – 15x + 36 = 0, a = 1 and c = 36, so the product is 
. The correct answer is (A).
14. B
The question asks for the choice that is equivalent to the given expression. Work in Bite-Sized Pieces, starting with the most straight-forward piece. When a product is raised to an exponent, apply that exponent to both factors. Raising 27 to an exponent is difficult on the no calculator section, so, start with a. Raise a10 to the power of 
to get 
. When an exponential expression is raised to an exponent, multiply the exponents to get 
. Eliminate (C) and (D), which don’t include a6. Now work with the coefficients. An expression with a fractional exponent is equivalent to a radical expression with the numerator of the exponent becoming the new exponent and the denominator of the exponent becoming the index of the root. Therefore, the coefficient on the answer will be the result of taking (–27) to the third power, then taking the fifth root of that. Calculator use is not allowed here, and doing this work without one is tricky. However, the remaining answers have different signs. A negative number taken to an odd power will be negative, so eliminate (A). The correct answer is (B).
15. C
The question asks what must be true about the amount of carbon-15 remaining in a sample, as modeled by the function 
. Exponential decay is modeled by the equation final amount = original amount(multiplier)number of changes. None of the choices deal with the final amount or the original amount, so ignore these. The multiplier is 
, so eliminate (D), which reduces the amount of carbon-15 by a factor other than 2. The number of changes is 24m. Eliminate (A), which doesn’t include 24. To determine whether the amount halves every 24 minutes or 24 times every minute, plug and play. Let m = 1. In 1 minute, the number of changes is 24m = 24(1) = 24. Therefore, it halves 24 times in 1 minute. Eliminate (B). The correct answer is (C).
16. 
or 
or 3.5
The question asks for the value of n in the equation. Add 
to both sides to get 
. Cross-multiply to get 2(n + 1) = 6(n – 2). Distribute to get 2n + 2 = 6n – 12. Subtract 2n from both sides to get 2 = 4n – 12. Add 12 to both sides to get 14 = 4n. Divide both sides by 4 to get 
. Grid-in questions do not require reduced fractions, so there is no further work to be done. The correct answer is 
, 
, or 3.5.
17. 6
The question asks for the length of YZ and gives tan m. Since 
, plugging in the given information results in 
. Multiply both sides by 3 to get 
. To find XY, either use the Pythagorean Theorem, or note that since one leg is 
times another leg, this is a 30-60-90 right triangle, making the hypotenuse double the smaller leg. Therefore, XY = 2 × 3 = 6. The correct answer is 6.
18. 900
The question asks for the measure of 5π radians in degrees. Use the formula 
. Substitute radians = 5π and degrees = d to get 
. Now solve for d. Cross-multiply to get πd = 900π. Divide both sides by π to get d = 900. The correct answer is 900.
19. 200
The question asks for the number of televisions Robert must sell to meet his quota of $100,000 in sales. Each computer normally costs $545 but has an 8% discount. Take 8% of 545, which is 
. Since the discount is $43.60, the discounted price is $545 – $43.60 = $501.40. Let n be the number of televisions sold. The total amount of the sales of n televisions at $501.40 each is 501.40n, so to meet the quota, 501.40n ≥ 100,000. To isolate n, divide by 501.40 to get 
. However, this division is difficult without a calculator. Try ballparking. Estimate 501.40 as 500 to get 
. Determine whether 200 televisions sold meets the quota by multiplying 200 by $501.40 to get $100,280. Since this is greater than $100,000, 200 televisions sold does meet the quota. However, the question asks for the minimum number, so consider whether fewer televisions sold can also meet the quota. Since each discounted television is sold for $501.40, selling one fewer television would mean $501.40 less in sales. Therefore, the total amount of sales for 199 computers is $100,280 – $501.40, which is less than $100,000. Therefore, 199 televisions sold would not meet the quota, and 200 is the minimum number of televisions Robert must sell. The correct answer is 200.
20. 3
The question asks for the slope of line g, which can be determined with the formula 
. Let (x1, y1) = (–3, 4) and (x2, y2) = (2, 19). Substitute these points into the formula to get 
. The correct answer is 3.
1. B
The question asks for the value of g(–5), so substitute the value –5 for x in the original function definition. Therefore, g(–5) = 3(–5) + 5 = –15 + 5 = –10. The correct answer is (B).
2. B
The question asks what fraction of working lightbulbs were 100-Watt bulbs. Therefore, the denominator must be the total number of working lightbulbs, which is 3,614. Eliminate (C) and (D). The numerator is the number of working 100-Watt lightbulbs, which is 2,384. Eliminate (A). The correct answer is (B).
3. A
The question asks for an expression that is equivalent to (4n – 5)(5n – 4). All the answers are in expanded form, so expand the expression using Bite-Sized Pieces. Start with the n2 term. To find the n2 term, multiply the n terms in each factor to get (4n)(5n) = 20n2. Eliminate (C) and (D), which don’t have 20n2. The two remaining choices have different constant terms. To find the constant term of the expanded form, multiply the constant terms of the factored form to get (–5)(–4) = 20. Eliminate (B), which doesn’t have 20. Only one choice remains. The correct answer is (A).
4. D
The question asks for the value of b and gives equivalent ratios. Set the ratios equal to form a proportion: 
. Cross-multiply to get 1.2b = 12.96. Divide both sides by 1.2 to get b = 10.8. The correct answer is (D).
5. C
The question asks for the value of 3mn + 4. Since there is only one equation and two variables, it is not possible to solve for m or n individually. Instead, solve for the expression 3mn + 4. Look for the most direct way to get to this expression from the given one. The right side of the equation is a multiple of 3mn + 4, so divide both sides of the equation 60 = 15mn + 20 by 5 to get 12 = 3mn + 4. The correct answer is (C).
6. C
The question asks which data collection method is most likely to yield an accurate prediction about students in Santana High School. Choose the method that produces a representative sample. Choice (A) would include teenagers who are not students at Santana High School, which could taint the results, so eliminate (A). Choice (B) would be a non-representative sample, since seniors may not be representative of all classes, so eliminate (B). Choice (C) includes randomly selected students through the school, so keep (C). Choice (D) includes a self-selection bias, as not all students are equally likely to go to the website and answer the poll, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (C).
7. A
The question asks for Thomas’s salary in 1999. Since his salary increases at a rate of $2,300 each year, determine the total amount of the increase by multiplying this rate by the number of years after 1977. Since 1999 – 1977 = 22 years after 1977, his salary increased by 22 × $2,300 = $50,600 from 1977 to 1999. Since his salary in 1977 was $40,000, his salary in 1999 is $40,000 + $50,600 = $90,600. The correct answer is (A).
8. B
The question asks which of the ranges of values for y must be true if the range of salaries is $54,000 to $60,000. Translate the information into an equation. Thomas’s salary increased by 2,300 per year for y years, so the total amount of the increase is 2,300y. Since the starting salary was 40,000, the salary after y years is 2,300y + 40,000. This salary must be between $54,000 and $60,000, so the full inequality is 54,000 < 2,300y + 40,000 < 60,000. Subtract 40,000 from all parts of the inequality to get 14,000 < 2,300y < 20,000, then divide all parts of the inequality by 2,300 to get about 6.09 < y < 8.7. This is closest to 6 < y < 9. Since the ranges in the answers on this questions don’t overlap, it is also possible to solve this by plugging in numbers from the answers and using process of elimination. The correct answer is (B).
9. B
The question asks which graph could represent Thomas’s salary as a function of years. Since Thomas’s salary increases each year, eliminate (C) and (D), which are decreasing functions. The difference between (A) and (B) is whether the function increases exponentially or linearly. Because the salary increased by a fixed amount each year rather than a fixed percentage, the increase is linear. Eliminate (A). The correct answer is (B).
10. C
The question asks how much less the return of the option with the linear model is after 4 months than is that of the option with the exponential model. Find the returns for each option and subtract. For the exponential model, substitute t = 4 to get R = 100(34) = 8,100. For the linear model, substitute R = 350(4) = 1,400. Now subtract to get 8,100 – 1,400 = 6,700. The correct answer is (C).
11. A
The question asks for a possible value of n. Rather than algebraically solving a radical equation, notice that there are numbers in the statements and plug in the answers. Start with (I). Plug n = 7 into the equation to get 
. Simplify under the radical to get 
, which is 7 – 6 = 1 and 1 = 1. Therefore, 7 is a possible value of n, so eliminate (B) and (D), which don’t include (I). Neither of the remaining choices include (II), so don’t bother plugging in –3. Instead go straight to (III) and plug in n = –5 to get 
. Simplify under the radical to get 
. The left side of the equation will result in a negative, irrational number and therefore cannot equal 1. Thus, –5 is not a possible value of n, so eliminate (C), which includes (III). Only one choice remains. The correct answer is (A).
12. A
The question asks for the value of 2x – 4. Because the question asks for an expression rather than the value of x, it may not be necessary to find the value of x. Look for the most direct way to get to the expression 2x – 4 from the given equation. Subtract 3x from both sides of the equation to get –6 = 2x – 2. Since the question asks for the value of 2x – 4, subtract 2 from both sides to get –8 = 2x – 4. The correct answer is (A).
13. A
The question asks for the weight of the car that accurately fits the model shown by the line of best fit. The car that most accurately fits the model is represented by the point that is closest to the line of best fit. Notice that one point is actually on the line of best fit. Find the weight of the car represented by the point by following the grid-line down to the horizontal axis, which represents weight. Since the weight is 2.5 tons, the correct answer is (A).
14. C
The question asks which choice must be true based on the graph. All the choices ask about the average weight loss per month. Because weight loss is the change in y and number of months is the change in x, look at the slope. During the first 2 months, the slope is steeper than during the next 4 months. Furthermore, the slope in months 2 to 6, is steeper than the slope for the final 6 months. Therefore, the average weight loss during the first 2 months is greater than the average weight loss during the next 4 months, which is greater than the average weight loss during the final 6 months. Go to the choices. Eliminate (A), because the average weight loss changes. Eliminate (B), because nothing is known about 150 months. This is a trap answer based on confusing the axes. Choice (C) fits the prediction, so keep (C). Eliminate (D), because it reverses the prediction. The correct answer is (C).
15. A
The question asks for the meaning of (r – m) in the expression πr2 – π(r – m)2. Label the formula. Since the formula gives the area of an irregular shaded region, it is a form of the formula Shaded = Total – Unshaded. Therefore, πr2 must be the total area and π(r – m)2 must be the area of the unshaded region. The total area is the area of the surface of the lake and walking path combined. Since this is not (r – m), eliminate (C). The unshaded area represents the area of the surface of the lake. Since this area is not (r – m), eliminate (D). The formula for area of a circle is A = πr2. Since π(r – m)2 represents the area of the surface of the lake, (r – m) represents the radius of the lake. The correct answer is (A).
16. D
The question asks what must be true about x, which is the mean of the remaining tests. The mean of all 8 tests is 90. For problems involving a mean or average, draw an Average Pie. The Number of Things goes in the lower left and the Average goes in the lower right. The Total is the product of these numbers, so for this question, Total = (90)(8) = 720. More than a quarter of the tests have scores that were less than 85. Since a quarter of 8 is 
, more than 2 of the tests have scores less than 85. To find a possible value of x, say that 3 scores are equal to 80. The total of these scores is 80 + 80 + 80 = 240. Since the question asks for the average of the remaining tests, get the number of remaining tests and the total of the remaining tests. To get the number of remaining tests, subtract the 3 tests from the 8 tests to get 8 – 3 = 5. Similarly, get the total of the remaining tests by subtracting the total of those 3 tests from the total of all tests to get 720 – 240 = 480. Draw a new Average Pie, with 480 in the top as the Total, 5 in the lower left as the Number of Things, and x in the lower right as the Average. Divide 480 by 5 to get x = 96. The correct answer is (D).
17. D
The question asks for the number of likely voters in Seanoa City. Since randomly selected likely voters were polled, the results of the poll are likely close to proportional to the general population. Since 190 out of 400 in the poll supported Candidate A and 3,120 voters in total are likely to vote for Candidate A, set up the proportion 
. Cross- multiply to get 190x = 1,248,000. Divide both sides by 190 to get x ≈ 6,568. The correct answer is (D).
18. A
The question asks for b1 and b2, which are the y values of the solutions to the system of equations. Solve the system for y. Substitute x = 5 from the second equation into the first equation to get y2 = 21 – 5. Combine like terms to get y2 = 16. Take the square root of both sides. Since the square of a negative is positive, both the positive and negative of the square root are solutions. Therefore, 
. The correct answer is (A).
19. C
The question asks for the value of q(10). Since q(x) = p(x) – 4, substitute 10 for x to get q(10) = p(10) – 4. Now determine the value of p(10). Since p(x) = x2 – 3x, substitute 10 for x to get p(10) = (10)2 – 3(10) = 70. Therefore, q(10) = p(10) – 4 = 70 – 4 = 66. The correct answer is (C).
20. D
The question asks for the expression that is equivalent to 
. By rule, fractional exponents correspond with radical expressions, so eliminate (A) and (B). The denominator of the exponent becomes the index of the root, and the numerator of the exponent stands alone as the new exponent. Therefore, 
. The correct answer is (D).
21. C
The question asks for the force required to lift a 200-pound weight using three additional pulleys in the pulley system. Each additional pulley reduces the amount of force needed to 50% of the original amount. Therefore, Pulley 1 reduces the force to 0.50 × 200 = 100 pounds, Pulley 2 reduces the force to 0.50 × 100 = 50 pounds, and Pulley 3 reduces the force to 0.50 × 50 = 25 pounds. The question asks for the force in Newtons and provides the conversion of 1 Newton = 0.224 pounds. Set up the proportion 
. Cross-multiply to get 0.224x = 25. Divide both sides by 0.224 to get x = 111.6. The correct answer is (C).
22. C
The question asks for the meaning of 17.6 in the context of the equation. Label the formula. Q is the heat supplied, and T is the change in temperature. Eliminate any answers that don’t fit the labels. Choice (B) matches the description of Q in the question, so eliminate (B). Choice (D) refers to a specific temperature, while the equation refers only to an increase in temperature, so eliminate (D). Plug and Play for the remaining two choices. Choice (A) says that 17.6 is the heat supplied when the temperature is constant. If the temperature is constant, the change in temperature is 0, so plug in T = 0 to get Q = 17.6(0) = 0. The heat supplied isn’t 17.6, so eliminate (A). Choice (C) refers to an increase in temperature of 1°C, so plug in T = 1 to get Q = 17.6(1) = 17.6. The correct answer is (C).
23. D
The question asks for the total amount of rust produced from d = 2 to d = 6. According to the graph, during that time period of 6 – 2 = 4 days, the reaction rate is a constant 0.8 g/day. To find the total amount, multiply this constant rate by the time to get 0.8 × 4 = 3.2. The correct answer is (D).
24. C
The question asks for the value of cos(90 – θ) and states that 
. Since 
, the adjacent side of x is 3 and the hypotenuse is 5. The sum of the measures of the angles in any triangle is 180°. Therefore, the sum of the measures of the two non-right angles in a right triangle is 180° – 90° = 90°. Since one of the non-right angles has measure θ, the other must have measure (90 – θ). Find the cosine of the other angle. The hypotenuse is 5, so eliminate (B) and (D), which don’t have a denominator of 5. To find the adjacent side, either use the Pythagorean Theorem or recognize that it is a 3:4:5 right triangle. Either method results in an adjacent side equal to 4. Therefore, 
. The correct answer is (C).
25. D
The question asks for the value of a, which is the x-coordinate of the solution to the system of equations. The question uses the phrase in terms of, and there are variables in the choices, which are two signs to plug in. However, plugging for k still requires algebra that is just as complicated, so plug in for x and y. If x = –3 and y = –1, the first equation is true. Using these values, the second equation becomes 3(–3) – 4(–1) = k or –9 + 4 = k, so k = –5. Use this value in the answers to see which one is the value of a, the x-coordinate of the solution. Only (D) yields a value of –3, the original value of x. Another approach would be to solve the system using elimination. To find the x-coordinate of the solution, cancel the y-coordinates. Multiply both sides of the first equation by 4 and both sides of the second by 7 to get
Add the two equations to get 25x = 7k – 40. Divide both sides by 25 to get 
. The correct answer is (D).
26. B
The question asks how the unemployment rate changed over time, and there are percentages in the choices. Because the unemployment rate decreased over the time period, eliminate (D). To find a percent change, use the formula 
. The difference is 8.3 – 4.9 = 3.4, and the original is 8.3. Substitute these values into the formula to get 
. The correct answer is (B).
27. A
The question asks for the sum of P and L, which are the medians of the scores of the Physics test and the Literature test, respectively. The median on a box plot is denoted by the line inside the box, so start with the Physics test scores. On that box plot, the line inside the box is at 85, so P = 85. Now find the median of the Literature test scores. Because the Literature class had 75 students, the median is the 38th score when the scores are listed in order. Find the 38th score from the chart. The first 2 scores are 60. The next 3 scores are 65, so the 3rd through 5th scores are 65. The next 5 scores are 70, so the 6th through 10th scores are 70. The next 4 scores are 75, so the 11th through 14th scores are 75. The next 10 scores are 80, so the 15th through 24th scores are 80. The next 12 scores are 85, so the 25th through 36th score are 85. The next 19 scores are 90, so the 37th through 55th scores are 90. Since the 38th score is 90, L = 90. The word “sum” means to add, so the sum of P and L is 90 + 85 = 175. The correct answer is (A).
28. A
The question asks which box plot represents the scores of the Literature test. In a box plot, the endpoints of the whiskers, i.e. the horizontal lines outside the box, represent the minimum and maximum values of a set of data. According to the bar graph, the minimum score for the Literature class is 60. Eliminate (D), which has a minimum score of 5. All three remaining choices have the same maximum and the same median, so there is no need to determine these values. Find the interquartile range, which is represented by the endpoint of the box. The left endpoint represents the first quartile, which is the minimum score that is higher than 25% of the scores. There are 75 total scores, so the first quartile is the minimum score higher than 
scores, i.e. the 19th score. According to the bar graph, the first 2 scores are 60. The next 3 scores are 65, so the 3rd through 5th scores are 65. The next 5 scores are 70, so the 6th through 10th scores are 70. The next 4 scores are 75, so the 11th through 14th scores are 75. The next 10 scores are 80, so the 15th through 24th scores are 80. Therefore, the first quartile, which is the 19th score, is 80. Eliminate (B), which has a first quartile of 85. The right side of the box represents the third quartile, which is the minimum score that is greater than 75% of the scores. Since there are 75 scores, the third quartile is the minimum score higher than 
score, i.e. the 57th score. The easiest way to find this score is to count backwards from the highest score. There are five 100’s, so the 71st through 75th scores are 100. There are fifteen 95’s, so the 56th through 70th scores are 95. Therefore, the third quartile, which is the 57th score, is 95. Eliminate (C), which has the wrong third quartile. The correct answer is (A).
29. C
The question asks for the x-intercept of line q, which is perpendicular to line p. Perpendicular lines have slopes that are negative reciprocals, so find the slope of line p. The slope formula is 
. Since line p goes through both the origin and the point (5, 12), substitute (0, 0) for (x1, y1) and (5, 12) for (x2, y2) to get 
. Since the slope of p is 
, the slope of q is its negative reciprocal, or 
. To find the x-intercept of line q, use the slope formula again with (5, 12) and (x, 0). This becomes = 
. Cross-multiply to get 12(12) = –5(5 – x) or 144 = –25 + 5x. Add 25 to both sides to get 169 = 5x, then divide both sides by 5 to get x = 33.8. The correct answer is (C).
30. D
The question asks for the form of the equation that includes the minimum value of y as a constant. The minimum value of a positive, or upward-opening, parabola is the y-coordinate of the vertex, so the equation must be in vertex form: y = (x – h)2 + k, where (h, k) is the vertex. Eliminate (A), (B), and (C), which are not in vertex form. Only one choice remains. The correct answer is (D).
31. 62
The question asks for the measure of angle Y, which is part of triangle XYZ. Since triangle XYZ is similar to triangle PQR, corresponding angles have equal measure and corresponding sides are proportional. Determine which angle from triangle PQR corresponds to angle Y by using the relationships given in the question. The sides that are in that proportion correspond. Therefore, PQ corresponds to XY, YZ corresponds to QR, and PR corresponds to XZ. Note that the actual value of the proportion was not important, only that there was a proportion. Sketch triangle XYZ with each side in the same position as its corresponding side in triangle PQR.
Since angle Y is in the same position as angle Q, the two angles correspond and thus have the same measure. Since angle Q has a measure of 62, so must angle Y. The correct answer is 62.
32. 8.5
The question asks for the longest side of the bedroom in the floor plan. Since the question provides a scale, use proportions. The length of the actual floor is 153 inches, so set up 
. Cross-multiply to get 18x = 153. Divide both sides by 18 to get x = 8.5. The correct answer is 8.5.
33. 242
The question asks for the number of 60-square-yard pallets that would be needed to cover a 3-acre field. Be sure to use like units. Start by converting the 3 acres to square yards using the proportion 
. Cross-multiply to get x = 14,520. Since the field is 14,520 square yards, determine the number of pallets needed by setting up the proportion 
. Cross-multiply to get 60y = 14,520. Divide both sides by 60 to get y = 242. The correct answer is 242.
34. 
or 2.2
The question asks for the value of b, so solve the equation for b. Start by getting rid of the fractions. Multiply both sides by 25 to get 25b + 22 = 35b. Combine like terms by subtracting 25b from both sides to get 22 = 10b. Divide both sides by 10 to get 
. The possible correct answers are 
or 2.2.
35. 1.5
The question asks for the value of p, which is the x-coordinate of a point on the circle with y-coordinate 0. Find the equation of the circle, and substitute the point (p, 0). The standard form of the equation of the circle is (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2, where (h, k) is the center of the circle and r is the radius. The center of the circle is the midpoint of the diameter. The midpoint formula is 
, so 
. To find the radius, take half the length of the diameter, which is the distance between (2, 3.5) and (–2, 0.5). Either use the distance formula or notice that the difference in the x-coordinates is 2 – (–2) = 4 and the difference in the y-coordinates is 3.5 – 0.5 = 3, so the diameter is the hypotenuse of a 3:4:5 triangle. Therefore, the diameter is 5, and the radius is 2.5. As a result, the equation of the circle is (x – 0)2 + (y – 2)2 = 2.52 or x2 + (y – 2)2 = 6.25. Substitute (p, 0) to get p2 + (0 – 2)2 = 6.25 or p2 + 4 = 6.25. Subtract 4 from both sides to get p2 = 2.25. Take the square root of both sides. Since p > 0, don’t worry about the negative of the square root. Therefore, 
. The correct answer is 1.5.
36. 
or 1.57
The question asks for the value of 
. When a question does not ask for the value of either variable but rather an expression involving both, it is not always necessary to solve for either variable individually. In this case, the first equation is enough to solve for . Divide both sides of 7x = 11y by y to get 
. Divide both sides by 7 to get 
. The correct answer is 
or 1.57.
37. 588
The question asks what the salesperson’s average sales per day should be during the following week to achieve her goal of increasing sales by 20%. To find her average daily sales, find the total sales for the week shown in the chart and divide by the number of days. Rather than adding the sales for each individual day, use the column that shows the total week sales at the end of each day. At the end of Friday, the total sales were $2,450, making that amount the total sales for the week. There are 5 days in the week, so the average sales per day was $2,450 ÷ 5 = $490. Since the question is asking what the average daily sales would be if they increased by 20%, take 20% of $490 to get 
. Since the desired increase would be $98, the desired average sales would be $490 + $98 = $588. The correct answer is 588.
38. 5.4
The question asks for the number of items sold per hour on Wednesday. Since an average is given, draw an Average Pie. The question says that the items she sold on Wednesday averaged $8.10 per item, so put that in the lower right part of the pie. According to the table, her total sales for Wednesday are $350, so put that in the top of the pie. The Number of Things can be found by dividing the Total by the Average. Divide 350 by 8.10 to get Number of Things ≈ 43.21. The question asks for the number of items sold per hour. Since her shift was 8 hours, divide 43.21 by 8 to get about 5.401. Since the question asks for the nearest tenth, the answer is 5.4.
Please note that the numbers in the table may shift slightly depending on the SAT’s scale from test to test; however, you can still use this table to get an idea of how your performance on the practice tests will translate to the actual SAT.