3.0 Diagnostic Test

Like the practice sections later in the book, the Diagnostic Test uses questions from real GMAT® exams. The purpose of the Diagnostic Test is to help you determine how skilled you are in answering each of the five types of questions on the GMAT exam: problem solving, data sufficiency, reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and sentence correction.

Scores on the Diagnostic Test are designed to help you answer the question, “If all the questions on the GMAT exam were like the questions in this section, how well would I do?” Your scores are classified as being excellent, above average, average, or below average, relative to the scores of other test-takers. You can use this information to focus your test-preparation activities.

Instructions

  1. Take your time answering these questions. The Diagnostic Test is not timed.
  2. If you are stumped by a question, you should guess and move on, just like you should do on the real GMAT exam.
  3. You can take one segment at a time, if you want. It is better to finish an entire section (Quantitative or Verbal) in one sitting, but this is not a requirement.
  4. You can go back and change your answers in the Diagnostic Test.
  5. After you take the test, check your answers using the answer key that follows the test. The number of correct answers is your raw score.
  6. Convert your raw score, using the table provided.

Note: The Diagnostic Test is designed to give you guidance on how to prepare for the GMAT exam; however, a strong score on one type of question does not guarantee that you will perform as well on the real GMAT exam. The statistical reliability of scores on the Diagnostic Test ranges from 0.75 to 0.89, and the subscale classification is about 85%–90% accurate, meaning that your scores on the Diagnostic Test are a good, but not perfect, measure of how you are likely to perform on the real test. Use the tests on the free online software to obtain a good estimate of your expected GMAT Verbal, Quantitative, and Total scores.

You should not compare the number of questions you got right in each section. Instead, you should compare how your responses are rated in each section.

3.1 Quantitative Questions

Problem Solving

Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.

Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures: All figures accompanying problem solving questions are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible. Exceptions will be clearly noted. Lines shown as straight are straight, and lines that appear jagged are also straight. The positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown, and angle measures are greater than zero. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

  1. Last month a certain music club offered a discount to preferred customers. After the first compact disc purchased, preferred customers paid $3.99 for each additional compact disc purchased. If a preferred customer purchased a total of 6 compact discs and paid $15.95 for the first compact disc, then the dollar amount that the customer paid for the 6 compact discs is equivalent to which of the following?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
  2. The average (arithmetic mean) of the integers from 200 to 400, inclusive, is how much greater than the average of the integers from 50 to 100, inclusive?

    1. (A) 150
    2. (B) 175
    3. (C) 200
    4. (D) 225
    5. (E) 300
  3. The sequence a1, a2, a3,. . . ,an,. . . is such that image for all image. If image and image, what is the value of a6?

    1. (A) 12
    2. (B) 16
    3. (C) 20
    4. (D) 24
    5. (E) 28
  4. Among a group of 2,500 people, 35 percent invest in municipal bonds, 18 percent invest in oil stocks, and 7 percent invest in both municipal bonds and oil stocks. If 1 person is to be randomly selected from the 2,500 people, what is the probability that the person selected will be one who invests in municipal bonds but NOT in oil stocks?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
  5. A closed cylindrical tank contains image cubic feet of water and is filled to half its capacity. When the tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of the water in the tank is 4 feet. When the tank is placed on its side on level ground, what is the height, in feet, of the surface of the water above the ground?

    1. (A) 2
    2. (B) 3
    3. (C) 4
    4. (D) 6
    5. (E) 9
  6. A marketing firm determined that, of 200 households surveyed, 80 used neither Brand A nor Brand B soap, 60 used only Brand A soap, and for every household that used both brands of soap, 3 used only Brand B soap. How many of the 200 households surveyed used both brands of soap?

    1. (A) 15
    2. (B) 20
    3. (C) 30
    4. (D) 40
    5. (E) 45
  7. A certain club has 10 members, including Harry. One of the 10 members is to be chosen at random to be the president, one of the remaining 9 members is to be chosen at random to be the secretary, and one of the remaining 8 members is to be chosen at random to be the treasurer. What is the probability that Harry will be either the member chosen to be the secretary or the member chosen to be the treasurer?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
  8. If a certain toy store’s revenue in November was image of its revenue in December and its revenue in January was image of its revenue in November, then the store’s revenue in December was how many times the average (arithmetic mean) of its revenues in November and January?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) 2
    5. (E) 4
  9. A researcher computed the mean, the median, and the standard deviation for a set of performance scores. If 5 were to be added to each score, which of these three statistics would change?

    1. (A) The mean only
    2. (B) The median only
    3. (C) The standard deviation only
    4. (D) The mean and the median
    5. (E) The mean and the standard deviation
      image
  10. In the figure shown, what is the value of image?

    1. (A) 45
    2. (B) 90
    3. (C) 180
    4. (D) 270
    5. (E) 360
  11. Of the three-digit integers greater than 700, how many have two digits that are equal to each other and the remaining digit different from the other two?

    1. (A) 90
    2. (B) 82
    3. (C) 80
    4. (D) 45
    5. (E) 36
  12. Positive integer y is 50 percent of 50 percent of positive integer x, and y percent of x equals 100. What is the value of x?

    1. (A) 50
    2. (B) 100
    3. (C) 200
    4. (D) 1,000
    5. (E) 2,000
  13. If s and t are positive integers such that image, which of the following could be the remainder when s is divided by t ?

    1. (A) 2
    2. (B) 4
    3. (C) 8
    4. (D) 20
    5. (E) 45
  14. Of the 84 parents who attended a meeting at a school, 35 volunteered to supervise children during the school picnic and 11 volunteered both to supervise children during the picnic and to bring refreshments to the picnic. If the number of parents who volunteered to bring refreshments was 1.5 times the number of parents who neither volunteered to supervise children during the picnic nor volunteered to bring refreshments, how many of the parents volunteered to bring refreshments?

    1. (A) 25
    2. (B) 36
    3. (C) 38
    4. (D) 42
    5. (E) 45
  15. The product of all the prime numbers less than 20 is closest to which of the following powers of 10?

    1. (A) 109
    2. (B) 108
    3. (C) 107
    4. (D) 106
    5. (E) 105
  16. If image, then image

    1. (A) 1
    2. (B) 4
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
  17. If image, what is the value of image?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
  18. If n is the product of the integers from 1 to 8, inclusive, how many different prime factors greater than 1 does n have?

    1. (A) Four
    2. (B) Five
    3. (C) Six
    4. (D) Seven
    5. (E) Eight
  19. If k is an integer and image, for how many different values of k is there a triangle with sides of lengths 2, 7, and k?

    1. (A) One
    2. (B) Two
    3. (C) Three
    4. (D) Four
    5. (E) Five
  20. A right circular cone is inscribed in a hemisphere so that the base of the cone coincides with the base of the hemisphere. What is the ratio of the height of the cone to the radius of the hemisphere?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) 1:1
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) 2:1
  21. John deposited $10,000 to open a new savings account that earned 4 percent annual interest, compounded quarterly. If there were no other transactions in the account, what was the amount of money in John’s account 6 months after the account was opened?

    1. (A) $10,100
    2. (B) $10,101
    3. (C) $10,200
    4. (D) $10,201
    5. (E) $10,400
  22. A container in the shape of a right circular cylinder is image full of water. If the volume of water in the container is 36 cubic inches and the height of the container is 9 inches, what is the diameter of the base of the cylinder, in inches?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
  23. If the positive integer x is a multiple of 4 and the positive integer y is a multiple of 6, then xy must be a multiple of which of the following?

    I. 8

    II. 12

    III. 18

    1. (A) II only
    2. (B) I and II only
    3. (C) I and III only
    4. (D) II and III only
    5. (E) I, II, and III
  24. Aaron will jog from home at x miles per hour and then walk back home by the same route at y miles per hour. How many miles from home can Aaron jog so that he spends a total of t hours jogging and walking?

    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image

Data Sufficiency

Each data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), which contain certain data. Using these data and your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of the word counterclockwise), decide whether the data given are sufficient for answering the question and then indicate one of the following answer choices:

  1. A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  2. B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  3. C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  4. D EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
  5. E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.

Note: In data sufficiency problems that ask for the value of a quantity, the data given in the statements are sufficient only when it is possible to determine exactly one numerical value for the quantity.

Example:

image

In image, what is the value of x?

  1. (1) image
  2. (2) image

Explanation: According to statement (1) PQ = PR; therefore, ΔPQR is isosceles and y = z. Since x + y + z = 180, it follows that x + 2y = 180. Since statement (1) does not give a value for y, you cannot answer the question using statement (1) alone. According to statement (2), y = 40; therefore, x + z = 140. Since statement (2) does not give a value for z, you cannot answer the question using statement (2) alone. Using both statements together, since x + 2y = 180 and the value of y is given, you can find the value of x. Therefore, BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures:

  • Figures conform to the information given in the question, but will not necessarily conform to the additional information given in statements (1) and (2).
  • Lines shown as straight are straight, and lines that appear jagged are also straight.
  • The positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown, and angle measures are greater than zero.
  • All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
  1. If the units digit of integer n is greater than 2, what is the units digit of n?

    1. (1) The units digit of n is the same as the units digit of n2.
    2. (2) The units digit of n is the same as the units digit of n3.
  2. What is the value of the integer p ?

    1. (1) Each of the integers 2, 3, and 5 is a factor of p.
    2. (2) Each of the integers 2, 5, and 7 is a factor of p.
  3. If the length of Wanda’s telephone call was rounded up to the nearest whole minute by her telephone company, then Wanda was charged for how many minutes for her telephone call?

    1. (1) The total charge for Wanda’s telephone call was $6.50.
    2. (2) Wanda was charged $0.50 more for the first minute of the telephone call than for each minute after the first.
  4. What is the perimeter of isosceles triangle MNP?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  5. In a survey of retailers, what percent had purchased computers for business purposes?

    1. (1) 85 percent of the retailers surveyed who owned their own store had purchased computers for business purposes.
    2. (2) 40 percent of the retailers surveyed owned their own store.
  6. The only gift certificates that a certain store sold yesterday were worth either $100 each or $10 each. If the store sold a total of 20 gift certificates yesterday, how many gift certificates worth $10 each did the store sell yesterday?

    1. (1) The gift certificates sold by the store yesterday were worth a total of between $1,650 and $1,800.
    2. (2) Yesterday the store sold more than 15 gift certificates worth $100 each.
  7. Is the standard deviation of the set of measurements x1, x2, x3, x4, . . . , x20 less than 3?

    1. (1) The variance for the set of measurements is 4.
    2. (2) For each measurement, the difference between the mean and that measurement is 2.
  8. Is the range of the integers 6, 3, y, 4, 5, and x greater than 9?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  9. Is image?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  10. Of the companies surveyed about the skills they required in prospective employees, 20 percent required both computer skills and writing skills. What percent of the companies surveyed required neither computer skills nor writing skills?

    1. (1) Of those companies surveyed that required computer skills, half required writing skills.
    2. (2) 45 percent of the companies surveyed required writing skills but not computer skills.
  11. What is the value of image?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  12. If X and Y are points in a plane and X lies inside the circle C with center O and radius 2, does Y lie inside circle C?

    1. (1) The length of line segment XY is 3.
    2. (2) The length of line segment OY is 1.5.
  13. Is image?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  14. If Paula drove the distance from her home to her college at an average speed that was greater than 70 kilometers per hour, did it take her less than 3 hours to drive this distance?

    1. (1) The distance that Paula drove from her home to her college was greater than 200 kilometers.
    2. (2) The distance that Paula drove from her home to her college was less than 205 kilometers.
  15. In the xy-plane, if line k has negative slope and passes through the point (−5,r), is the x-intercept of line k positive?

    1. (1) The slope of line k is −5.
    2. (2) image
  16. If $5,000 invested for one year at p percent simple annual interest yields $500, what amount must be invested at k percent simple annual interest for one year to yield the same number of dollars?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  17. If image, is image?

    1. (1) image
    2. (2) image
  18. Does the integer k have at least three different positive prime factors?

    1. (1) image is an integer.
    2. (2) image is an integer.
  19. In City X last April, was the average (arithmetic mean) daily high temperature greater than the median daily high temperature?

    1. (1) In City X last April, the sum of the 30 daily high temperatures was image.
    2. (2) In City X last April, 60 percent of the daily high temperatures were less than the average daily high temperature.
  20. If m and n are positive integers, is image an integer?

    1. (1) image is an integer.
    2. (2) image is an integer.
  21. Of the 66 people in a certain auditorium, at most 6 people have their birthdays in any one given month. Does at least one person in the auditorium have a birthday in January?

    1. (1) More of the people in the auditorium have their birthday in February than in March.
    2. (2) Five of the people in the auditorium have their birthday in March.
  22. Last year the average (arithmetic mean) salary of the 10 employees of Company X was $42,800. What is the average salary of the same 10 employees this year?

    1. (1) For 8 of the 10 employees, this year’s salary is 15 percent greater than last year’s salary.
    2. (2) For 2 of the 10 employees, this year’s salary is the same as last year’s salary.
  23. In a certain classroom, there are 80 books, of which 24 are fiction and 23 are written in Spanish. How many of the fiction books are written in Spanish?

    1. (1) Of the fiction books, there are 6 more that are not written in Spanish than are written in Spanish.
    2. (2) Of the books written in Spanish, there are 5 more nonfiction books than fiction books.
  24. If p is the perimeter of rectangle Q, what is the value of p ?

    1. (1) Each diagonal of rectangle Q has length 10.
    2. (2) The area of rectangle Q is 48.

3.2 Verbal Questions

Reading Comprehension

Each of the reading comprehension questions is based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, answer all questions pertaining to it on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

Line    According to economic signaling theory,
        consumers may perceive the frequency with
        which an unfamiliar brand is advertised as a cue
        that the brand is of high quality. The notion that
(5)     highly advertised brands are associated with
        high-quality products does have some empirical
        support. Marquardt and McGann found that
        heavily advertised products did indeed rank high
        on certain measures of product quality. Because
(10)    large advertising expenditures represent
        a significant investment on the part of a
        manufacturer, only companies that expect to
        recoup these costs in the long run, through
        consumers’ repeat purchases of the product,
(15)    can afford to spend such amounts.
          However, two studies by Kirmani have found
        that although consumers initially perceive expensive
        advertising as a signal of high brand quality,
        at some level of spending the manufacturer’s
(20)    advertising effort may be perceived as unreasonably
        high, implying low manufacturer confidence in
        product quality. If consumers perceive excessive
        advertising effort as a sign of a manufacturer’s
        desperation, the result may be less favorable
(25)    brand perceptions. In addition, a third study by
        Kirmani, of print advertisements, found that the
        use of color affected consumer perception of
        brand quality. Because consumers recognize that
        color advertisements are more expensive than
(30)    black and white, the point at which repetition of an
        advertisement is perceived as excessive comes
        sooner for a color advertisement than for a black-
        and-white advertisement.
  1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the sentence in lines 10–15?

    1. (A) To show that economic signaling theory fails to explain a finding
    2. (B) To introduce a distinction not accounted for by economic signaling theory
    3. (C) To account for an exception to a generalization suggested by Marquardt and McGann
    4. (D) To explain why Marquardt and McGann’s research was conducted
    5. (E) To offer an explanation for an observation reported by Marquardt and McGann
  2. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    1. (A) present findings that contradict one explanation for the effects of a particular advertising practice
    2. (B) argue that theoretical explanations about the effects of a particular advertising practice are of limited value without empirical evidence
    3. (C) discuss how and why particular advertising practices may affect consumers’ perceptions
    4. (D) contrast the research methods used in two different studies of a particular advertising practice
    5. (E) explain why a finding about consumer responses to a particular advertising practice was unexpected
  3. Kirmani’s research, as described in the passage, suggests which of the following regarding consumers’ expectations about the quality of advertised products?

    1. (A) Those expectations are likely to be highest if a manufacturer runs both black-and-white and color advertisements for the same product.
    2. (B) Those expectations can be shaped by the presence of color in an advertisement as well as by the frequency with which an advertisement appears.
    3. (C) Those expectations are usually high for frequently advertised new brands but not for frequently advertised familiar brands.
    4. (D) Those expectations are likely to be higher for products whose black-and-white advertisements are often repeated than for those whose color advertisements are less often repeated.
    5. (E) Those expectations are less definitively shaped by the manufacturer’s advertisements than by information that consumers gather from other sources.
  4. Kirmani’s third study, as described in the passage, suggests which of the following conclusions about a black-and-white advertisement?

    1. (A) It can be repeated more frequently than a comparable color advertisement could before consumers begin to suspect low manufacturer confidence in the quality of the advertised product.
    2. (B) It will have the greatest impact on consumers’ perceptions of the quality of the advertised product if it appears during periods when a color version of the same advertisement is also being used.
    3. (C) It will attract more attention from readers of the print publication in which it appears if it is used only a few times.
    4. (D) It may be perceived by some consumers as more expensive than a comparable color advertisement.
    5. (E) It is likely to be perceived by consumers as a sign of higher manufacturer confidence in the quality of the advertised product than a comparable color advertisement would be.
  5. The passage suggests that Kirmani would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about consumers’ perceptions of the relationship between the frequency with which a product is advertised and the product’s quality?

    1. (A) Consumers’ perceptions about the frequency with which an advertisement appears are their primary consideration when evaluating an advertisement’s claims about product quality.
    2. (B) Because most consumers do not notice the frequency of advertisement, it has little impact on most consumers’ expectations regarding product quality.
    3. (C) Consumers perceive frequency of advertisement as a signal about product quality only when the advertisement is for a product that is newly on the market.
    4. (D) The frequency of advertisement is not always perceived by consumers to indicate that manufacturers are highly confident about their products’ quality.
    5. (E) Consumers who try a new product that has been frequently advertised are likely to perceive the advertisement’s frequency as having been an accurate indicator of the product’s quality.
    Line    The idea of the brain as an information
            processor—a machine manipulating blips of energy
            according to fathomable rules—has come to
            dominate neuroscience. However, one enemy of
    (5)     the brain-as-computer metaphor is John R. Searle,
            a philosopher who argues that since computers
            simply follow algorithms, they cannot deal with
            important aspects of human thought such as
            meaning and content. Computers are syntactic,
    (10)    rather than semantic, creatures. People, on the
            other hand, understand meaning because they have
            something Searle obscurely calls the causal powers
            of the brain.
              Yet how would a brain work if not by reducing
    (15)    what it learns about the world to information—some
            kind of code that can be transmitted from neuron
            to neuron? What else could meaning and content
            be? If the code can be cracked, a computer should
            be able to simulate it, at least in principle. But
    (20)    even if a computer could simulate the workings
            of the mind, Searle would claim that the machine
            would not really be thinking; it would just be acting
            as if it were. His argument proceeds thus: if a
            computer were used to simulate a stomach, with
    (25)    the stomach’s churnings faithfully reproduced on a
            video screen, the machine would not be digesting
            real food. It would just be blindly manipulating the
            symbols that generate the visual display.
              Suppose, though, that a stomach were simulated
    (30)    using plastic tubes, a motor to do the churning, a
            supply of digestive juices, and a timing mechanism.
            If food went in one end of the device, what came out
            the other end would surely be digested food. Brains,
            unlike stomachs, are information processors, and if
    (35)    one information processor were made to simulate
            another information processor, it is hard to see
            how one and not the other could be said to think.
            Simulated thoughts and real thoughts are made of
            the same element: information. The representations
    (40)    of the world that humans carry around in their heads
            are already simulations. To accept Searle’s argument,
            one would have to deny the most fundamental notion
            in psychology and neuroscience: that brains work
            by processing information.
  6. The main purpose of the passage is to

    1. (A) propose an experiment
    2. (B) analyze a function
    3. (C) refute an argument
    4. (D) explain a contradiction
    5. (E) simulate a process
  7. Which of the following is most consistent with Searle’s reasoning as presented in the passage?

    1. (A) Meaning and content cannot be reduced to algorithms.
    2. (B) The process of digestion can be simulated mechanically, but not on a computer.
    3. (C) Simulated thoughts and real thoughts are essentially similar because they are composed primarily of information.
    4. (D) A computer can use “causal powers” similar to those of the human brain when processing information.
    5. (E) Computer simulations of the world can achieve the complexity of the brain’s representations of the world.
  8. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the simulation of organ functions?

    1. (A) An artificial device that achieves the functions of the stomach could be considered a valid model of the stomach.
    2. (B) Computer simulations of the brain are best used to crack the brain’s codes of meaning and content.
    3. (C) Computer simulations of the brain challenge ideas that are fundamental to psychology and neuroscience.
    4. (D) Because the brain and the stomach both act as processors, they can best be simulated by mechanical devices.
    5. (E) The computer’s limitations in simulating digestion suggest equal limitations in computer-simulated thinking.
  9. It can be inferred that the author of the passage believes that Searle’s argument is flawed by its failure to

    1. (A) distinguish between syntactic and semantic operations
    2. (B) explain adequately how people, unlike computers, are able to understand meaning
    3. (C) provide concrete examples illustrating its claims about thinking
    4. (D) understand how computers use algorithms to process information
    5. (E) decipher the code that is transmitted from neuron to neuron in the brain
  10. From the passage, it can be inferred that the author would agree with Searle on which of the following points?

    1. (A) Computers operate by following algorithms.
    2. (B) The human brain can never fully understand its own functions.
    3. (C) The comparison of the brain to a machine is overly simplistic.
    4. (D) The most accurate models of physical processes are computer simulations.
    5. (E) Human thought and computer-simulated thought involve similar processes of representation.
  11. Which of the following most accurately represents Searle’s criticism of the brain-as-computer metaphor, as that criticism is described in the passage?

    1. (A) The metaphor is not experimentally verifiable.
    2. (B) The metaphor does not take into account the unique powers of the brain.
    3. (C) The metaphor suggests that a brain’s functions can be simulated as easily as those of a stomach.
    4. (D) The metaphor suggests that a computer can simulate the workings of the mind by using the codes of neural transmission.
    5. (E) The metaphor is unhelpful because both the brain and the computer process information.
    
    Line    Women’s grassroots activism and their vision
            of a new civic consciousness lay at the heart of
            social reform in the United States throughout the
            Progressive Era, the period between the depression
    (5)     of 1893 and America’s entry into the Second
            World War. Though largely disenfranchised except
            for school elections, white middle-class women
            reformers won a variety of victories, notably in
            the improvement of working conditions, especially
    (10)    for women and children. Ironically, though,
            child labor legislation pitted women of different
            classes against one another. To the reformers,
            child labor and industrial home work were equally
            inhumane practices that should be outlawed, but,
    (15)    as a number of women historians have recently
            observed, working-class mothers did not always
            share this view. Given the precarious finances of
            working-class families and the necessity of pooling
            the wages of as many family members as possible,
    (20)    working-class families viewed the passage and
            enforcement of stringent child labor statutes as a
            personal economic disaster and made strenuous
            efforts to circumvent child labor laws. Yet
            reformers rarely understood this resistance in terms
    (25)    of the desperate economic situation of working-
            class families, interpreting it instead as evidence
            of poor parenting. This is not to dispute women
            reformers’ perception of child labor as a terribly
            exploitative practice, but their understanding of
    (30)    child labor and their legislative solutions for ending
            it failed to take account of the economic needs of
            working-class families.
  12. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    1. (A) explain why women reformers of the Progressive Era failed to achieve their goals
    2. (B) discuss the origins of child labor laws in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries
    3. (C) compare the living conditions of working-class and middle-class women in the Progressive Era
    4. (D) discuss an oversight on the part of women reformers of the Progressive Era
    5. (E) revise a traditional view of the role played by women reformers in enacting Progressive Era reforms
  13. The view mentioned in line 17 of the passage refers to which of the following?

    1. (A) Some working-class mothers’ resistance to the enforcement of child labor laws
    2. (B) Reformers’ belief that child labor and industrial home work should be abolished
    3. (C) Reformers’ opinions about how working-class families raised their children
    4. (D) Certain women historians’ observation that there was a lack of consensus between women of different classes on the issue of child labor and industrial home work
    5. (E) Working-class families’ fears about the adverse consequences that child labor laws would have on their ability to earn an adequate living
  14. The author of the passage mentions the observations of women historians (lines 15–17) most probably in order to

    1. (A) provide support for an assertion made in the preceding sentence (lines 10–12)
    2. (B) raise a question that is answered in the last sentence of the passage (lines 27–32)
    3. (C) introduce an opinion that challenges a statement made in the first sentence of the passage
    4. (D) offer an alternative view to the one attributed in the passage to working-class mothers
    5. (E) point out a contradiction inherent in the traditional view of child labor reform as it is presented in the passage
  15. The passage suggests that which of the following was a reason for the difference of opinion between working-class mothers and women reformers on the issue of child labor?

    1. (A) Reformers’ belief that industrial home work was preferable to child labor outside the home
    2. (B) Reformers’ belief that child labor laws should pertain to working conditions but not to pay
    3. (C) Working-class mothers’ resentment at reformers’ attempts to interfere with their parenting
    4. (D) Working-class mothers’ belief that child labor was an inhumane practice
    5. (E) Working-class families’ need for every employable member of their families to earn money
  16. The author of the passage asserts which of the following about women reformers who tried to abolish child labor?

    1. (A) They alienated working-class mothers by attempting to enlist them in agitating for progressive causes.
    2. (B) They underestimated the prevalence of child labor among the working classes.
    3. (C) They were correct in their conviction that child labor was deplorable but shortsighted about the impact of child labor legislation on working-class families.
    4. (D) They were aggressive in their attempts to enforce child labor legislation, but were unable to prevent working-class families from circumventing them.
    5. (E) They were prevented by their nearly total disenfranchisement from making significant progress in child labor reform.
  17. According to the passage, one of the most striking achievements of white middle-class women reformers during the Progressive Era was

    1. (A) gaining the right to vote in school elections
    2. (B) mobilizing working-class women in the fight against child labor
    3. (C) uniting women of different classes in grassroots activism
    4. (D) improving the economic conditions of working-class families
    5. (E) improving women’s and children’s working conditions

Critical Reasoning

Each of the critical reasoning questions is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

  1. Vasquez-Morrell Assurance specializes in insuring manufacturers. Whenever a policyholder makes a claim, a claims adjuster determines the amount that Vasquez-Morrell is obligated to pay. Vasquez-Morrell is cutting its staff of claims adjusters by 15 percent. To ensure that the company’s ability to handle claims promptly is affected as little as possible by the staff cuts, consultants recommend that Vasquez-Morrell lay off those adjusters who now take longest, on average, to complete work on claims assigned to them.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the consultants’ criterion for selecting the staff to be laid off?

    1. (A) If the time that Vasquez-Morrell takes to settle claims increases significantly, it could lose business to other insurers.
    2. (B) Supervisors at Vasquez-Morrell tend to assign the most complex claims to the most capable adjusters.
    3. (C) At Vasquez-Morrell, no insurance payments are made until a claims adjuster has reached a final determination on the claim.
    4. (D) There are no positions at Vasquez-Morrell to which staff currently employed as claims adjusters could be reassigned.
    5. (E) The premiums that Vasquez-Morrell currently charges are no higher than those charged for similar coverage by competitors.
  2. Prolonged spells of hot, dry weather at the end of the grape-growing season typically reduce a vineyard’s yield, because the grapes stay relatively small. In years with such weather, wine producers can make only a relatively small quantity of wine from a given area of vineyards. Nonetheless, in regions where wine producers generally grow their own grapes, analysts typically expect a long, hot, dry spell late in the growing season to result in increased revenues for local wine producers.

    Which of the following, if true, does most to justify the analysts’ expectation?

    1. (A) The lower a vineyard’s yield, the less labor is required to harvest the grapes.
    2. (B) Long, hot, dry spells at the beginning of the grape-growing season are rare, but they can have a devastating effect on a vineyard’s yield.
    3. (C) Grapes grown for wine production are typically made into wine at or near the vineyard in which they were grown.
    4. (D) When hot, dry spells are followed by heavy rains, the rains frequently destroy grape crops.
    5. (E) Grapes that have matured in hot, dry weather make significantly better wine than ordinary grapes.
  3. In the past, most children who went sledding in the winter snow in Verland used wooden sleds with runners and steering bars. Ten years ago, smooth plastic sleds became popular; they go faster than wooden sleds but are harder to steer and slow. The concern that plastic sleds are more dangerous is clearly borne out by the fact that the number of children injured while sledding was much higher last winter than it was 10 years ago.

    Which of the following, if true in Verland, most seriously undermines the force of the evidence cited?

    1. (A) A few children still use traditional wooden sleds.
    2. (B) Very few children wear any kind of protective gear, such as helmets, while sledding.
    3. (C) Plastic sleds can be used in a much wider variety of snow conditions than wooden sleds can.
    4. (D) Most sledding injuries occur when a sled collides with a tree, a rock, or another sled.
    5. (E) Because the traditional wooden sleds can carry more than one rider, an accident involving a wooden sled can result in several children being injured.
  4. Metal rings recently excavated from seventh-century settlements in the western part of Mexico were made using the same metallurgical techniques as those used by Ecuadorian artisans before and during that period. These techniques are sufficiently complex to make their independent development in both areas unlikely. Since the people of these two areas were in cultural contact, archaeologists hypothesize that the metallurgical techniques used to make the rings found in Mexico were learned by Mexican artisans from Ecuadorian counterparts.

    Which of the following would it be most useful to establish in order to evaluate the archaeologists’ hypothesis?

    1. (A) Whether metal objects were traded from Ecuador to western Mexico during the seventh century
    2. (B) Whether travel between western Mexico and Ecuador in the seventh century would have been primarily by land or by sea
    3. (C) Whether artisans from western Mexico could have learned complex metallurgical techniques from their Ecuadorian counterparts without actually leaving western Mexico
    4. (D) Whether metal tools were used in the seventh-century settlements in western Mexico
    5. (E) Whether any of the techniques used in the manufacture of the metal rings found in western Mexico are still practiced among artisans in Ecuador today
  5. Following several years of declining advertising sales, the Greenville Times reorganized its advertising sales force. Before reorganization, the sales force was organized geographically, with some sales representatives concentrating on city-center businesses and others concentrating on different outlying regions. The reorganization attempted to increase the sales representatives’ knowledge of clients’ businesses by having each sales representative deal with only one type of industry or of retailing. After the reorganization, revenue from advertising sales increased.

    In assessing whether the improvement in advertising sales can properly be attributed to the reorganization, it would be most helpful to find out which of the following?

    1. (A) What proportion of the total revenue of the Greenville Times is generated by advertising sales?
    2. (B) Has the circulation of the Greenville Times increased substantially in the last two years?
    3. (C) Among all the types of industry and retailing that use the Greenville Times as an advertising vehicle, which type accounts for the largest proportion of the newspaper’s advertising sales?
    4. (D) Do any clients of the sales representatives of the Greenville Times have a standing order with the Times for a fixed amount of advertising per month?
    5. (E) Among the advertisers in the Greenville Times, are there more types of retail business or more types of industrial business?
  6. Motorists in a certain country frequently complain that traffic congestion is much worse now than it was 20 years ago. No real measure of how much traffic congestion there was 20 years ago exists, but the motorists’ complaints are almost certainly unwarranted. The country’s highway capacity has tripled in the last twenty years, thanks to a vigorous highway construction program, whereas the number of automobiles registered in the country has increased by only 75 percent.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

    1. (A) Most automobile travel is local, and the networks of roads and streets in the country’s settled areas have changed little over the last 20 years.
    2. (B) Gasoline prices are high, and miles traveled per car per year have not changed much over the last 20 years.
    3. (C) The country’s urban centers have well-developed public transit systems that carry most of the people who commute into those centers.
    4. (D) The average age of automobiles registered in the country is lower now than it was 20 years ago.
    5. (E) Radio stations have long been broadcasting regular traffic reports that inform motorists about traffic congestion.
  7. The percentage of households with an annual income of more than $40,000 is higher in Merton County than in any other county. However, the percentage of households with an annual income of $60,000 or more is higher in Sommer County.

    If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?

    1. (A) The percentage of households with an annual income of $80,000 is higher in Sommer County than in Merton County.
    2. (B) Merton County has the second highest percentage of households with an annual income of $60,000 or more.
    3. (C) Some households in Merton County have an annual income between $40,000 and $60,000.
    4. (D) The number of households with an annual income of more than $40,000 is greater in Merton County than in Sommer County.
    5. (E) Average annual household income is higher in Sommer County than in Merton County.
  8. Tiger beetles are such fast runners that they can capture virtually any nonflying insect. However, when running toward an insect, a tiger beetle will intermittently stop and then, a moment later, resume its attack. Perhaps the beetles cannot maintain their pace and must pause for a moment’s rest; but an alternative hypothesis is that while running, tiger beetles are unable to adequately process the resulting rapidly changing visual information and so quickly go blind and stop.

    Which of the following, if discovered in experiments using artificially moved prey insects, would support one of the two hypotheses and undermine the other?

    1. (A) When a prey insect is moved directly toward a beetle that has been chasing it, the beetle immediately stops and runs away without its usual intermittent stopping.
    2. (B) In pursuing a swerving insect, a beetle alters its course while running and its pauses become more frequent as the chase progresses.
    3. (C) In pursuing a moving insect, a beetle usually responds immediately to changes in the insect’s direction, and it pauses equally frequently whether the chase is up or down an incline.
    4. (D) If, when a beetle pauses, it has not gained on the insect it is pursuing, the beetle generally ends its pursuit.
    5. (E) The faster a beetle pursues an insect fleeing directly away from it, the more frequently the beetle stops.
  9. Guillemots are birds of Arctic regions. They feed on fish that gather beneath thin sheets of floating ice, and they nest on nearby land. Guillemots need 80 consecutive snow-free days in a year to raise their chicks, so until average temperatures in the Arctic began to rise recently, the guillemots’ range was limited to the southernmost Arctic coast. Therefore, if the warming continues, the guillemots’ range will probably be enlarged by being extended northward along the coast.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

    1. (A) Even if the warming trend continues, there will still be years in which guillemot chicks are killed by an unusually early snow.
    2. (B) If the Arctic warming continues, guillemots’ current predators are likely to succeed in extending their own range farther north.
    3. (C) Guillemots nest in coastal areas, where temperatures are generally higher than in inland areas.
    4. (D) If the Arctic warming continues, much of the thin ice in the southern Arctic will disappear.
    5. (E) The fish that guillemots eat are currently preyed on by a wider variety of predators in the southernmost Arctic regions than they are farther north.
  10. Some batches of polio vaccine used around 1960 were contaminated with SV40, a virus that in monkeys causes various cancers. Some researchers now claim that this contamination caused some cases of a certain cancer in humans, mesothelioma. This claim is not undercut by the fact that a very careful survey made in the 1960s of people who had received the contaminated vaccine found no elevated incidence of any cancer, since ____________.

    1. (A) most cases of mesothelioma are caused by exposure to asbestos
    2. (B) in some countries, there was no contamination of the vaccine
    3. (C) SV40 is widely used in laboratories to produce cancers in animals
    4. (D) mesotheliomas take several decades to develop
    5. (E) mesothelioma was somewhat less common in 1960 than it is now
  11. Gortland has long been narrowly self-sufficient in both grain and meat. However, as per capita income in Gortland has risen toward the world average, per capita consumption of meat has also risen toward the world average, and it takes several pounds of grain to produce one pound of meat. Therefore, since per capita income continues to rise, whereas domestic grain production will not increase, Gortland will soon have to import either grain or meat or both.

    Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

    1. (A) The total acreage devoted to grain production in Gortland will soon decrease.
    2. (B) Importing either grain or meat will not result in a significantly higher percentage of Gortlanders’ incomes being spent on food than is currently the case.
    3. (C) The per capita consumption of meat in Gortland is increasing at roughly the same rate across all income levels.
    4. (D) The per capita income of meat producers in Gortland is rising faster than the per capita income of grain producers.
    5. (E) People in Gortland who increase their consumption of meat will not radically decrease their consumption of grain.
  12. The Hazelton coal-processing plant is a major employer in the Hazelton area, but national environmental regulations will force it to close if it continues to use old, polluting processing methods. However, to update the plant to use newer, cleaner methods would be so expensive that the plant will close unless it receives the tax break it has requested. In order to prevent a major increase in local unemployment, the Hazelton government is considering granting the plant’s request.

    Which of the following would be most important for the Hazelton government to determine before deciding whether to grant the plant’s request?

    1. (A) Whether the company that owns the plant would open a new plant in another area if the present plant were closed
    2. (B) Whether the plant would employ far fewer workers when updated than it does now
    3. (C) Whether the level of pollutants presently being emitted by the plant is high enough to constitute a health hazard for local residents
    4. (D) Whether the majority of the coal processed by the plant is sold outside the Hazelton area
    5. (E) Whether the plant would be able to process more coal when updated than it does now
  13. A physically active lifestyle has been shown to help increase longevity. In the Wistar region of Bellaria, the average age at death is considerably higher than in any other part of the country. Wistar is the only mountainous part of Bellaria. A mountainous terrain makes even such basic activities as walking relatively strenuous; it essentially imposes a physically active lifestyle on people. Clearly, this circumstance explains the long lives of people in Wistar.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

    1. (A) In Bellaria all medical expenses are paid by the government, so that personal income does not affect the quality of health care a person receives.
    2. (B) The Wistar region is one of Bellaria’s least populated regions.
    3. (C) Many people who live in the Wistar region have moved there in middle age or upon retirement.
    4. (D) The many opportunities for hiking, skiing, and other outdoor activities that Wistar’s mountains offer make it a favorite destination for vacationing Bellarians.
    5. (E) Per capita spending on recreational activities is no higher in Wistar than it is in other regions of Bellaria.
  14. Cheever College offers several online courses via remote computer connection, in addition to traditional classroom-based courses. A study of student performance at Cheever found that, overall, the average student grade for online courses matched that for classroom-based courses. In this calculation of the average grade, course withdrawals were weighted as equivalent to a course failure, and the rate of withdrawal was much lower for students enrolled in classroom-based courses than for students enrolled in online courses.

    If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true of Cheever College?

    1. (A) Among students who did not withdraw, students enrolled in online courses got higher grades, on average, than students enrolled in classroom-based courses.
    2. (B) The number of students enrolled per course at the start of the school term is much higher, on average, for the online courses than for the classroom-based courses.
    3. (C) There are no students who take both an online and a classroom-based course in the same school term.
    4. (D) Among Cheever College students with the best grades, a significant majority take online, rather than classroom-based, courses.
    5. (E) Courses offered online tend to deal with subject matter that is less challenging than that of classroom-based courses.
  15. For years the beautiful Renaissance buildings in Palitito have been damaged by exhaust from the many tour buses that come to the city. There has been little parking space, so most buses have idled at the curb during each stop on their tour, and idling produces as much exhaust as driving. The city has now provided parking that accommodates a third of the tour buses, so damage to Palitito’s buildings from the buses’ exhaust will diminish significantly.

    Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the argument?

    1. (A) The exhaust from Palitito’s few automobiles is not a significant threat to Palitito’s buildings.
    2. (B) Palitito’s Renaissance buildings are not threatened by pollution other than engine exhaust.
    3. (C) Tour buses typically spend less than one-quarter of the time they are in Palitito transporting passengers from one site to another.
    4. (D) More tourists come to Palitito by tour bus than by any other single means of transportation.
    5. (E) Some of the tour buses that are unable to find parking drive around Palitito while their passengers are visiting a site.
  16. During the 1980s and 1990s, the annual number of people who visited the Sordellian Mountains increased continually, and many new ski resorts were built. Over the same period, however, the number of visitors to ski resorts who were caught in avalanches decreased, even though there was no reduction in the annual number of avalanches in the Sordellian Mountains.

    Which of the following, if true in the Sordellian Mountains during the 1980s and 1990s, most helps to explain the decrease?

    1. (A) Avalanches were most likely to happen when a large new snowfall covered an older layer of snow.
    2. (B) Avalanches destroyed at least some buildings in the Sordellian Mountains in every year.
    3. (C) People planning new ski slopes and other resort facilities used increasingly accurate information about which locations are likely to be in the path of avalanches.
    4. (D) The average length of stay for people visiting the Sordellian Mountains increased slightly.
    5. (E) Construction of new ski resorts often led to the clearing of wooded areas that had helped to prevent avalanches.
  17. A year ago, Dietz Foods launched a yearlong advertising campaign for its canned tuna. Last year Dietz sold 12 million cans of tuna compared to the 10 million sold during the previous year, an increase directly attributable to new customers brought in by the campaign. Profits from the additional sales, however, were substantially less than the cost of the advertising campaign. Clearly, therefore, the campaign did nothing to further Dietz’s economic interests.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

    1. (A) Sales of canned tuna account for a relatively small percentage of Dietz Foods’ profits.
    2. (B) Most of the people who bought Dietz’s canned tuna for the first time as a result of the campaign were already loyal customers of other Dietz products.
    3. (C) A less expensive advertising campaign would have brought in significantly fewer new customers for Dietz’s canned tuna than did the campaign Dietz Foods launched last year.
    4. (D) Dietz made money on sales of canned tuna last year.
    5. (E) In each of the past five years, there was a steep, industry-wide decline in sales of canned tuna.

Sentence Correction

Each of the sentence correction questions presents a sentence, part or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. Follow the requirements of standard written English to choose your answer, paying attention to grammar, word choice, and sentence construction. Select the answer that produces the most effective sentence; your answer should make the sentence clear, exact, and free of grammatical error. It should also minimize awkwardness, ambiguity, and redundancy.

  1. Unlike the buildings in Mesopotamian cities, which were arranged haphazardly, the same basic plan was followed for all cities of the Indus Valley: with houses laid out on a north-south, east-west grid, and houses and walls were built of standard-size bricks.

    1. (A) the buildings in Mesopotamian cities, which were arranged haphazardly, the same basic plan was followed for all cities of the Indus Valley: with houses
    2. (B) the buildings in Mesopotamian cities, which were haphazard in arrangement, the same basic plan was used in all cities of the Indus Valley: houses were
    3. (C) the arrangement of buildings in Mesopotamian cities, which were haphazard, the cities of the Indus Valley all followed the same basic plan: houses
    4. (D) Mesopotamian cities, in which buildings were arranged haphazardly, the cities of the Indus Valley all followed the same basic plan: houses were
    5. (E) Mesopotamian cities, which had buildings that were arranged haphazardly, the same basic plan was used for all cities in the Indus Valley: houses that were
  2. New data from United States Forest Service ecologists show that for every dollar spent on controlled small-scale burning, forest thinning, and the training of fire-management personnel, it saves seven dollars that would not be spent on having to extinguish big fires.

    1. (A) that for every dollar spent on controlled small-scale burning, forest thinning, and the training of fire-management personnel, it saves seven dollars that would not be spent on having to extinguish
    2. (B) that for every dollar spent on controlled small-scale burning, forest thinning, and the training of fire-management personnel, seven dollars are saved that would have been spent on extinguishing
    3. (C) that for every dollar spent on controlled small-scale burning, forest thinning, and the training of fire-management personnel saves seven dollars on not having to extinguish
    4. (D) for every dollar spent on controlled small-scale burning, forest thinning, and the training of fire-management personnel, that it saves seven dollars on not having to extinguish
    5. (E) for every dollar spent on controlled small-scale burning, forest thinning, and the training of fire-management personnel, that seven dollars are saved that would not have been spent on extinguishing
  3. Like the grassy fields and old pastures that the upland sandpiper needs for feeding and nesting when it returns in May after wintering in the Argentine Pampas, the sandpipers vanishing in the northeastern United States is a result of residential and industrial development and of changes in farming practices.

    1. (A) the sandpipers vanishing in the northeastern United States is a result of residential and industrial development and of changes in
    2. (B) the bird itself is vanishing in the northeastern United States as a result of residential and industrial development and of changes in
    3. (C) that the birds themselves are vanishing in the northeastern United States is due to residential and industrial development and changes to
    4. (D) in the northeastern United States, sandpipers’ vanishing due to residential and industrial development and to changes in
    5. (E) in the northeastern United States, the sandpipers’ vanishing, a result of residential and industrial development and changing
  4. The results of two recent unrelated studies support the idea that dolphins may share certain cognitive abilities with humans and great apes; the studies indicate dolphins as capable of recognizing themselves in mirrors—an ability that is often considered a sign of self-awareness—and to grasp spontaneously the mood or intention of humans.

    1. (A) dolphins as capable of recognizing themselves in mirrors—an ability that is often considered a sign of self-awareness—and to grasp spontaneously
    2. (B) dolphins’ ability to recognize themselves in mirrors—an ability that is often considered as a sign of self-awareness—and of spontaneously grasping
    3. (C) dolphins to be capable of recognizing themselves in mirrors—an ability that is often considered a sign of self-awareness—and to grasp spontaneously
    4. (D) that dolphins have the ability of recognizing themselves in mirrors—an ability that is often considered as a sign of self-awareness—and spontaneously grasping
    5. (E) that dolphins are capable of recognizing themselves in mirrors—an ability that is often considered a sign of self-awareness—and of spontaneously grasping
  5. According to scholars, the earliest writing was probably not a direct rendering of speech, but was more likely to begin as a separate and distinct symbolic system of communication, and only later merged with spoken language.

    1. (A) was more likely to begin as
    2. (B) more than likely began as
    3. (C) more than likely beginning from
    4. (D) it was more than likely begun from
    5. (E) it was more likely that it began
  6. In 1995 Richard Stallman, a well-known critic of the patent system, testified in Patent Office hearings that, to test the system, a colleague of his had managed to win a patent for one of Kirchhoff’s laws, an observation about electric current first made in 1845 and now included in virtually every textbook of elementary physics.

    1. (A) laws, an observation about electric current first made in 1845 and
    2. (B) laws, which was an observation about electric current first made in 1845 and it is
    3. (C) laws, namely, it was an observation about electric current first made in 1845 and
    4. (D) laws, an observation about electric current first made in 1845, it is
    5. (E) laws that was an observation about electric current, first made in 1845, and is
  7. Excavators at the Indus Valley site of Harappa in eastern Pakistan say the discovery of inscribed shards dating to circa 2800–2600 B.C. indicate their development of a Harappan writing system, the use of inscribed seals impressed into clay for marking ownership, and the standardization of weights for trade or taxation occurred many decades, if not centuries, earlier than was previously believed.

    1. (A) indicate their development of a Harappan writing system, the use of
    2. (B) indicate that the development of a Harappan writing system, using
    3. (C) indicates that their development of a Harappan writing system, using
    4. (D) indicates the development of a Harappan writing system, their use of
    5. (E) indicates that the development of a Harappan writing system, the use of
  8. The Supreme Court has ruled that public universities can collect student activity fees even with students’ objections to particular activities, so long as the groups they give money to will be chosen without regard to their views.

    1. (A) with students’ objections to particular activities, so long as the groups they give money to will be
    2. (B) if they have objections to particular activities and the groups that are given the money are
    3. (C) if they object to particular activities, but the groups that the money is given to have to be
    4. (D) from students who object to particular activities, so long as the groups given money are
    5. (E) though students have an objection to particular activities, but the groups that are given the money be
  9. Despite the increasing number of women graduating from law school and passing bar examinations, the proportion of judges and partners at major law firms who are women have not risen to a comparable extent.

    1. (A) the proportion of judges and partners at major law firms who are women have not risen to a comparable extent
    2. (B) the proportion of women judges and partners at major law firms have not risen comparably
    3. (C) the proportion of judges and partners at major law firms who are women has not risen comparably
    4. (D) yet the proportion of women judges and partners at major law firms has not risen to a comparable extent
    5. (E) yet the proportion of judges and partners at major law firms who are women has not risen comparably
  10. Seldom more than 40 feet wide and 12 feet deep, but it ran 363 miles across the rugged wilderness of upstate New York, the Erie Canal connected the Hudson River at Albany to the Great Lakes at Buffalo, providing the port of New York City with a direct water link to the heartland of the North American continent.

    1. (A) Seldom more than 40 feet wide and 12 feet deep, but it ran 363 miles across the rugged wilderness of upstate New York, the Erie Canal connected
    2. (B) Seldom more than 40 feet wide or 12 feet deep but running 363 miles across the rugged wilderness of upstate New York, the Erie Canal connected
    3. (C) It was seldom more than 40 feet wide and 12 feet deep, and ran 363 miles across the rugged wilderness of upstate New York, but the Erie Canal, connecting
    4. (D) The Erie Canal was seldom more than 40 feet wide or 12 feet deep and it ran 363 miles across the rugged wilderness of upstate New York, which connected
    5. (E) The Erie Canal, seldom more than 40 feet wide and 12 feet deep, but running 363 miles across the rugged wilderness of upstate New York, connecting
  11. In 1923, the Supreme Court declared a minimum wage for women and children in the District of Columbia as unconstitutional, and ruling that it was a form of price-fixing and, as such, an abridgment of the right of contract.

    1. (A) the Supreme Court declared a minimum wage for women and children in the District of Columbia as unconstitutional, and
    2. (B) the Supreme Court declared as unconstitutional a minimum wage for women and children in the District of Columbia, and
    3. (C) the Supreme Court declared unconstitutional a minimum wage for women and children in the District of Columbia,
    4. (D) a minimum wage for women and children in the District of Columbia was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court,
    5. (E) when the Supreme Court declared a minimum wage for women and children in the District of Columbia as unconstitutional,
  12. Researchers have found that individuals who have been blind from birth, and who thus have never seen anyone gesture, nevertheless make hand motions when speaking just as frequently and in virtually the same way as sighted people do, and that they will gesture even when conversing with another blind person.

    1. (A) who thus have never seen anyone gesture, nevertheless make hand motions when speaking just as frequently and in virtually the same way as sighted people do, and that they will gesture
    2. (B) who thus never saw anyone gesturing, nevertheless make hand motions when speaking just as frequent and in virtually the same way as sighted people did, and that they will gesture
    3. (C) who thus have never seen anyone gesture, nevertheless made hand motions when speaking just as frequently and in virtually the same way as sighted people do, as well as gesturing
    4. (D) thus never having seen anyone gesture, nevertheless made hand motions when speaking just as frequent and in virtually the same way as sighted people did, as well as gesturing
    5. (E) thus never having seen anyone gesture, nevertheless to make hand motions when speaking just as frequently and in virtually the same way as sighted people do, and to gesture
  13. Like embryonic germ cells, which are cells that develop early in the formation of the fetus and that later generate eggs or sperm, embryonic stem cells have the ability of developing themselves into different kinds of body tissue.

    1. (A) embryonic stem cells have the ability of developing themselves into different kinds of body tissue
    2. (B) embryonic stem cells have the ability to develop into different kinds of body tissue
    3. (C) in embryonic stem cells there is the ability to develop into different kinds of body tissue
    4. (D) the ability to develop themselves into different kinds of body tissue characterizes embryonic stem cells
    5. (E) the ability of developing into different kinds of body tissue characterizes embryonic stem cells
  14. Critics contend that the new missile is a weapon whose importance is largely symbolic, more a tool for manipulating people’s perceptions than to fulfill a real military need.

    1. (A) for manipulating people’s perceptions than to fulfill
    2. (B) for manipulating people’s perceptions than for fulfilling
    3. (C) to manipulate people’s perceptions rather than that it fulfills
    4. (D) to manipulate people’s perceptions rather than fulfilling
    5. (E) to manipulate people’s perceptions than for fulfilling
  15. As an actress and, more importantly, as a teacher of acting, Stella Adler was one of the most influential artists in the American theater, who trained several generations of actors including Marlon Brando and Robert De Niro.

    1. (A) Stella Adler was one of the most influential artists in the American theater, who trained several generations of actors including
    2. (B) Stella Adler, one of the most influential artists in the American theater, trained several generations of actors who include
    3. (C) Stella Adler was one of the most influential artists in the American theater, training several generations of actors whose ranks included
    4. (D) one of the most influential artists in the American theater was Stella Adler, who trained several generations of actors including
    5. (E) one of the most influential artists in the American theater, Stella Adler, trained several generations of actors whose ranks included
  16. By developing the Secure Digital Music Initiative, the recording industry associations of North America, Japan, and Europe hope to create a standardized way of distributing songs and full-length recordings on the Internet that will protect copyright holders and foil the many audio pirates who copy and distribute digital music illegally.

    1. (A) of distributing songs and full-length recordings on the Internet that will protect copyright holders and foil the many audio pirates who copy and distribute
    2. (B) of distributing songs and full-length recordings on the Internet and to protect copyright holders and foiling the many audio pirates copying and distributing
    3. (C) for distributing songs and full-length recordings on the Internet while it protects copyright holders and foils the many audio pirates who copy and distribute
    4. (D) to distribute songs and full-length recordings on the Internet while they will protect copyright holders and foil the many audio pirates copying and distributing
    5. (E) to distribute songs and full-length recordings on the Internet and it will protect copyright holders and foiling the many audio pirates who copy and distribute
  17. Whereas a ramjet generally cannot achieve high speeds without the initial assistance of a rocket, high speeds can be attained by scramjets, or supersonic combustion ramjets, in that they reduce airflow compression at the entrance of the engine and letting air pass through at supersonic speeds.

    1. (A) high speeds can be attained by scramjets, or supersonic combustion ramjets, in that they reduce
    2. (B) that high speeds can be attained by scramjets, or supersonic combustion ramjets, is a result of their reducing
    3. (C) the ability of scramjets, or supersonic combustion ramjets, to achieve high speeds is because they reduce
    4. (D) scramjets, or supersonic combustion ramjets, have the ability of attaining high speeds when reducing
    5. (E) scramjets, or supersonic combustion ramjets, can attain high speeds by reducing
  18. It will not be possible to implicate melting sea ice in the coastal flooding that many global warming models have projected: just like a glass of water that will not overflow due to melting ice cubes, so melting sea ice does not increase oceanic volume.

    1. (A) like a glass of water that will not overflow due to melting ice cubes,
    2. (B) like melting ice cubes that do not cause a glass of water to overflow,
    3. (C) a glass of water will not overflow because of melting ice cubes,
    4. (D) as melting ice cubes that do not cause a glass of water to overflow,
    5. (E) as melting ice cubes do not cause a glass of water to overflow,

3.3 Quantitative and Verbal Answer Keys

Quantitative

1. A 17. D 33. D
2. D 18. A 34. C
3. E 19. A 35. D
4. B 20. B 36. B
5. B 21. D 37. A
6. A 22. E 38. B
7. E 23. B 39. E
8. E 24. C 40. D
9. D 25. E 41. C
10. c 26. E 42. C
11. c 27. E 43. B
12. C 28. E 44. A
13. E 29. E 45. D
14. B 30. A 46. E
15. C 31. D 47. D
16. E 32. C 48. C

Verbal

1. E 19. E 37. B
2. C 20. C 38. E
3. B 21. A 39. B
4. A 22. B 40. A
5. D 23. A 41. E
6. C 24. C 42. D
7. A 25. D 43. C
8. A 26. D 44. B
9. B 27. E 45. C
10. A 28. E 46. A
11. B 29. B 47. B
12. D 30. C 48. B
13. B 31. A 49. C
14. B 32. C 50. A
15. E 33. C 51. E
16. C 34. E 52. E
17. E 35. D
18. B 36. B

3.4 Interpretive Guide

The following table provides a guide for interpreting your score, on the basis of the number of questions you got right.

Interpretive Guide
  Excellent Above Average Average Below Average
Problem Solving 19-24 16-18 10-15 0-9
Data Sufficiency 19-24 16-18 10-15 0-9
Reading Comprehension 16-17 14-15 9-13 0-8
Critical Reasoning 14-17 9-13 6-8 0-5
Sentence Correction 16-18 11-15 8-10 0-7

Remember, you should not compare the number of questions you got right in each section. Instead, you should compare how your response rated in each section.

3.5 Quantitative Answer Explanations

Problem Solving

The following discussion is intended to familiarize you with the most efficient and effective approaches to the kinds of problems common to problem solving questions. The particular questions in this chapter are generally representative of the kinds of quantitative questions you will encounter on the GMAT exam. Remember that it is the problem solving strategy that is important, not the specific details of a particular question.

  1. Last month a certain music club offered a discount to preferred customers. After the first compact disc purchased, preferred customers paid $3.99 for each additional compact disc purchased. If a preferred customer purchased a total of 6 compact discs and paid $15.95 for the first compact disc, then the dollar amount that the customer paid for the 6 compact discs is equivalent to which of the following?
    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image

    Arithmetic Operations on rational numbers

    The cost of the 6 compact discs, with $15.95 for the first one and $3.99 for the other 5 discs, can be expressed as image. It is clear from looking at the answer choices that some regrouping of the values is needed because none of the answer choices uses $3.99 in the calculation.
    If $4.00 is used instead of $3.99, each one of the 5 additional compact discs is calculated at $0.01 too much, and the total cost is image too high. There is an overage of $0.05 that must be subtracted from the $15.95, or thus image. Therefore, the cost can be expressed as 5(4.00) + 15.90.
    The correct answer is A.
  2. The average (arithmetic mean) of the integers from 200 to 400, inclusive, is how much greater than the average of the integers from 50 to 100, inclusive?
    1. (A) 150
    2. (B) 175
    3. (C) 200
    4. (D) 225
    5. (E) 300
    Arithmetic Statistics
    In the list of integers from 200 to 400 inclusive, the middle value is 300. For every integer above 300, there exists an integer below 300 that is the same distance away from 300; thus the average of the integers from 200 to 400, inclusive, will be kept at 300. In the same manner, the average of the integers from 50 to 100, inclusive, is 75.
    The difference is image.
    The correct answer is D.
  3. The sequence a1, a2, a3,. . . ,an,. . . is such that image for all image. If image and image, what is the value of a6?
    1. (A) 12
    2. (B) 16
    3. (C) 20
    4. (D) 24
    5. (E) 28
    Algebra Applied problems
    According to this formula, it is necessary to know the two prior terms in the sequence to determine the value of a term; that is, it is necessary to know both image and image to find an. Therefore, to find a6, the values of a5 and a4 must be determined. To find a4, let image, which makes image and image. Then, by substituting the given values into the formula
    image  
    image  
    image substitute known values
    image multiply both sides
    image subtract 4 from both sides
    Then, letting image, substitute the known values:
    image  
    image substitute known values
    image simplify
    image  
    The correct answer is E.
  4. Among a group of 2,500 people, 35 percent invest in municipal bonds, 18 percent invest in oil stocks, and 7 percent invest in both municipal bonds and oil stocks. If 1 person is to be randomly selected from the 2,500 people, what is the probability that the person selected will be one who invests in municipal bonds but NOT in oil stocks?
    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
    Arithmetic Probability
    Since there are 2,500 people, image 875 people invest in municipal bonds, and image of those people invest in both municipal bonds and oil stocks. Therefore, there are image people who invest in municipal bonds but not in oil stocks. Probability of an event image
    image.
    Probability of investing in municipal bonds but not in oil stocks image.
    The correct answer is B.
  5. A closed cylindrical tank contains image cubic feet of water and is filled to half its capacity. When the tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of the water in the tank is 4 feet. When the tank is placed on its side on level ground, what is the height, in feet, of the surface of the water above the ground?
    1. (A) 2
    2. (B) 3
    3. (C) 4
    4. (D) 6
    5. (E) 9
    Geometry Volume
    Since the cylinder is half full, it will be filled to half its height, whether it is upright or on its side. When the cylinder is on its side, half its height is equal to its radius.
    image
    Using the information about the volume of water in the upright cylinder, solve for this radius to determine the height of the water when the cylinder is on its side.
    image image
    image known volume of water is image
    image substitute 4 for h; divide both sides by image
    image solve for r
    image radius image height of the water in the cylinder on its side
    The correct answer is B.
  6. A marketing firm determined that, of 200 households surveyed, 80 used neither Brand A nor Brand B soap, 60 used only Brand A soap, and for every household that used both brands of soap, 3 used only Brand B soap. How many of the 200 households surveyed used both brands of soap?
    1. (A) 15
    2. (B) 20
    3. (C) 30
    4. (D) 40
    5. (E) 45
    Arithmetic Operations on rational numbers
    Since it is given that 80 households use neither Brand A nor Brand B, then image must use Brand A, Brand B, or both. It is also given that 60 households use only Brand A and that three times as many households use Brand B exclusively as use both brands. If x is the number of households that use both Brand A and Brand B, then 3x use Brand B alone. A Venn diagram can be helpful for visualizing the logic of the given information for this item:
    image
    All the sections in the circles can be added up and set equal to 120, and then the equation can be solved for x:
    image
    image combine like terms
    image subtract 60 from both sides
    image divide both sides by 4
    The correct answer is A.
  7. A certain club has 10 members, including Harry. One of the 10 members is to be chosen at random to be the president, one of the remaining 9 members is to be chosen at random to be the secretary, and one of the remaining 8 members is to be chosen at random to be the treasurer. What is the probability that Harry will be either the member chosen to be the secretary or the member chosen to be the treasurer?
    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) image
    5. (E) image
    Arithmetic Probability
    Two probabilities must be calculated here: (1) the probability of Harry’s being chosen for secretary and (2) the probability of Harry’s being chosen for treasurer. For any probability, the probability of an event’s occurring image image.
    1. (1)If Harry is to be secretary, he first CANNOT have been chosen for president, and then he must be chosen for secretary. The probability that he will be chosen for president is image, so the probability of his NOT being chosen for president is image. Then, the probability of his being chosen for secretary is image. Once he is chosen, the probability that he will be selected for treasurer is 0, so the probability that he will NOT be selected for treasurer is image. Thus, the probability that Harry will be chosen for secretary is image.
    2. (2)If Harry is to be treasurer, he needs to be NOT chosen for president, then NOT chosen for secretary, and then finally chosen for treasurer. The probability that he will NOT be chosen for president is again image. The probability of his NOT being chosen for secretary is image. The probability of his being chosen for treasurer is image, so the probability that Harry will be chosen for treasurer is image.
    3. (3) So, finally, the probability of Harry’s being chosen as either secretary or treasurer is thus image.
    The correct answer is E.
  8. If a certain toy store’s revenue in November was image of its revenue in December and its revenue in January was image of its revenue in November, then the store’s revenue in December was how many times the average (arithmetic mean) of its revenues in November and January?
    1. (A) image
    2. (B) image
    3. (C) image
    4. (D) 2
    5. (E) 4
    Arithmetic Statistics
    Let n be the store’s revenue in November, d be the store’s revenue in December, and j be the store’s revenue in January. The information from the problem can be expressed as image and image image for n in the second equation gives image. Then, the average of the revenues in November and January can be found by using these values in the formula
    image, as follows:
    image
    image
    Solve for the store’s revenue in December by multiplying both sides of this equation by 4:
    average image
    image
    Thus, the store’s revenue in December was 4 times its average revenue in November and January.
    The correct answer is E.
  9. A researcher computed the mean, the median, and the standard deviation for a set of performance scores. If 5 were to be added to each score, which of these three statistics would change?
    1. (A) The mean only
    2. (B) The median only
    3. (C) The standard deviation only
    4. (D) The mean and the median
    5. (E) The mean and the standard deviation
    Arithmetic Statistics
    If 5 were added to each score, the mean would go up by 5, as would the median. However, the spread of the values would remain the same, simply centered around a new value. So, the standard deviation would NOT change.
    The correct answer is D.
    image
  10. In the figure shown, what is the value of image?
    1. (A) 45
    2. (B) 90
    3. (C) 180
    4. (D) 270
    5. (E) 360
    Geometry Angles and their measure
    In the following figure, the center section of the star is a pentagon.
    image
    The sum of the interior angles of any polygon is image, where n is the number of sides. Thus, image.
    Each of the interior angles of the pentagon defines a triangle with two of the angles at the points of the star. This gives the following five equations:
    1. image
    2. image
    3. image
    4. image
    5. image
    Summing these 5 equations gives:
    image.
    Substituting 540 for image gives:
    image.
    From this:
    image subtract 540 from both sides
    image factor out 2 on the left side
    image divide both sides by 2
    The correct answer is C.