TIME—30 MINUTES
Directions: In this section, you will be asked to write a critique of the argument presented below. You may, for example, consider what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking, what alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the conclusion, or what sort of evidence could help strengthen or refute the argument.
Read the argument and the instructions that follow it, and then make any notes that will help you plan your response. Write your response on a separate sheet of paper. If possible, type your essay on a computer or laptop. Observe the 30-minute time limit.
TIME—30 MINUTES
Select the best answer or answers for the questions below. You may use a calculator for this section of the test only.
1. The Eurostar is a line of high-speed trains that provide fast, efficient, and eco-friendly travel all over Europe. Under normal travel conditions, the Eurostar produces fuel emissions of CO2 at a rate of E kilograms per kilometer (E kg/km) when it is traveling at a constant speed of T kilometers per hour (T km/hr).
In terms of the variables E and T, select the expression that represents CO2 fuel emissions produced in 1 hour by the Eurostar traveling at a constant speed, T, under normal traveling conditions, and select the expression that represents the amount of CO2 emitted by the Eurostar traveling at a constant speed, T, under normal traveling conditions, for 200 kilometers. Make only two selections, one in each column.
Read the sources below before answering the question that follows.
Source #1: Article about hardwood consumption
Currently the global economy consumes roughly 15 billion cubic feet of hardwood per year. This is nearly 2.5 times the amount of hardwood consumed annually in the 1950s. This causes a number of environmental issues, including loss of watersheds, destruction of habitats, increased air pollution, and landfill crowding.
Global hardwood consumption is expected to steadily increase, growing by roughly 20% in the 2010s and by more than 50% by 2050. The effects of the growth will be devastating to the world’s hardwood forest. It is estimated that currently 10 times more trees are lost annually to wood consumption than are replanted, resulting in a net destruction of 40 million forest acres annually.
Source #2: Analysis of hardwood industrial paths
All wood consumption flows through two industry paths: construction use and stationery consumption. Construction use wood begins at sawmills and becomes lumber, plywood, veneer, wood paneling, construction material, and furniture stock. Stationery wood goes to the paper mills and becomes paper, cardboard, and fiberboard.
Generally, 50% of all cut hardwood goes to sawmills for whole-wood projects; 20% goes to chip mills for fuel consumption, particle board creation, and other semiwood products; and the remaining 30% goes to pulp mills. Unfortunately, roughly 25% of the wood that is cut never actually reaches consumers, because wasteful manufacturing practices render it useless and send it straight to landfills.
Source #3: Article on tree use
The United States is the greatest global consumer of hardwood products, using more than 17% of the 15 billion cubic feet cut annually. This is roughly twice the consumption rate of other industrialized nations and three times that of developing countries.
The average American consumes 886 pounds of paper per year. This is twice that of most European residents and more than 200 times that of Chinese persons, who consume only 3 pounds of paper per year.
2. Consider each of the items listed below. Select Yes if the item can be determined based on the information given in the three sources. Otherwise, select No.
3. The following table gives information for 2011 on total cancelled flights and total passengers rebooked. The 19 airports included in the table are among the top 25 airports throughout the United States in terms of both total cancelled flights and total rebooked passengers. In addition to listing the total cancelled flights and total rebooked passengers for each airport, the table also gives the percent of increase or decrease over the 2010 cancelled flights and rebooked passengers, and the rank of each airport for total cancelled flights and total rebooked passengers.
Sorted by State (Column 2)
Sorted by Wind Zone (Column 3)
Sorted by Rank in Cancelled Flights (Column 6)
Sorted by Rank in Passengers Rebooked (Column 9)
Review each of the statements below. Based on the information provided in the table, indicate whether the statement is true or false.
4. Top Trucks has two major custom lines: mud-truck improvements and low-rider packages. Last spring, the company completed roughly 200 customizations. This fall, market analysts suspect that the number of customizations will rise significantly. Specifically, they expect customizations to increase by roughly 170 customizations. For the first time, mud-truck improvement sales will exceed low-rider packages.
In the table below, identify the minimum number of mud-truck improvements Top Truck’s employees should expect to complete during fall sales and the total number of customizations Top Trucks will complete next spring, if growth continues at its current rate. Make only two selections, one in each column.
5. Refer to the preceding Venn diagram of an inventory of book titles sold by Marshall Books. Each symbol represents 100 titles in a total inventory of 3,000 distinct book titles. Select the best answer to fill in the blanks for each of the statements below, based on the data shown.
If one title is selected at random out of the total inventory, the chance that the title is available in print as either a paperback or hardcover or both is __________.
5 out of 30
7 out of 30
18 out of 30
23 out of 30
If one title is selected at random out of the total inventory, the chance that the title is available in print in both paperback and hardcover is __________.
5 out of 30
7 out of 30
18 out of 30
23 out of 30
Percentage of Venues Offering Performances in Selected Musical Genres, Single Year
Sorted by State (Column 1)
6. For each of the following statements select Would help explain if it would, if true, help explain some of the information in the table. Otherwise select Would not help explain.
7. In 2010, New York was the number one tourist destination in the United States. After achieving this ranking, city officials set a goal of hosting 50 million visitors in the 2012 tourist season. The graph below shows the number of domestic and international visitors to visit New York between 2000 and 2010. Select the best answer to fill in the blanks for each of the statements below, based on the data shown in the graph.
The relationship between year of travel and number of domestic tourists is best described as __________.
negative
not meaningful
positive
The number of international tourists in 2010 was closest to __________ % of the number of domestic tourists in 2010.
5
10
20
25
30
The sources that follow accompany questions 8 and 9.
E-mail #1—E-mail from the director of the training department to the technical publications manager
September 12, 8:03 A.M.
We are preparing our schedule for the November 1st training of new clients for our EXM software. To date we have received 23 reservations and expect the class will close at 35 students, the capacity of our training room. Our training manuals are currently in production and will be ready for content review on September 15th. Allowing a two-week turnaround for the developer’s review, we should have a three-week window for your department to provide the necessary formatting, standard company information, and printing. Can you provide the date you could deliver 35 manuals prior to the 21st of October? We will need a week to 10 days to allow adequate time for our trainers to prepare their computer-based exercises.
E-mail #2—E-mail from the technical publications manager in response to the director of the training department
September 12, 9:12 A.M.
Thank you for the update regarding the training schedule. We have a very heavy schedule to meet in the month of October, and we will add your manual to our calendar. Please provide the approximate number of pages of the manual you are creating. Standard company information is fixed at 3 pages. We will charge your department on a per-page basis, plus the fixed costs of collating and preparation, which is currently $2.00/manual. Color graphics will add an extra $.50/page to our normal $.25/page of black and white text. If your manual is less than 100 pages, we should be able to deliver by your deadline.
E-mail #3—E-mail from the director of the training department in response to the technical publications manager
September 12, 9:46 A.M.
The manual for this three-day training will exceed 100 pages and may run as long as 115 pages, with 5 pages of color graphics. I will know the exact number once the review is completed on October 1.
8. If the information contained in all three e-mails is correct, the total cost of the requested manuals will be closest to __________.
$1,060
$1,080
$1,100
$1,120
$1,190
9. Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three sources support the inference as stated?
The following table displays data on animals in an African zoo in 2016.
On the actual exam, you will be able to sort the table by any of its columns. (Columns can be sorted in ascending order only.) The following table is shown sorted in different ways to mirror the test.
Sorted by Animal (Column 1)
Sorted by Population, National Share (Column 2)
Sorted by Born in Captivity, National Share (Column 4)
10. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement can be shown to be true based on information in the preceding table. Otherwise, select No.
11. The number of people in the world who natively speak Language A is 330 million. The number of people in the world who natively speak Language B is 260 million. Language experts who chart the growth of both languages claim that in five years, the number of persons who natively speak Language A will be approximately 450 million, and the number of persons who natively speak Language B will be approximately 300 million.
In the table below, identify the average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers, and then identify the difference between Language A’s and Language B’s average annual growth rates. Make only two selections, one in each column.
12. The diagram shows, in two column groupings, various divisions of human gestation, with a total length of approximately 308 days. In the leftmost column, the full pregnancy is divided into its trimesters. In the second graphic area, the zygote stage is magnified and shown in greater detail. Select the best answer to fill in the blanks for each of the statements below, based on the data shown.
Cellular reorganization accounts for closest to _______ % of the zygote phase.
7
12
25
The second trimester is closest to _______ % as long as the first.
75
112
133
__________________ STOP.__________________
TIME—75 MINUTES
The following data sufficiency problems consist of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
NUMBERS: All numbers used are real numbers.
FIGURES: A figure accompanying a data sufficiency problem will conform to the information given in the question, but will not necessarily conform to the additional information given in statements (1) and (2). Lines shown as straight can be assumed to be straight, and lines that appear jagged can also be assumed to be straight. You may assume that the position of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown and that angle measures are greater than zero. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
NOTE: In data sufficiency problems that ask for the value of a quantity, the data given in the statements are sufficient only when it is possible to determine exactly one numerical value for the quantity.
1. If x is an integer, is 
an integer?
(1) 18 < x < 54
(2) x is a multiple of 18
2. If a > 0 and b > 0, is 
(1) a = b – 2
(2) 
3. The figure above shows the shape of a flowerbed. If arcs WZ and XY are semicircles and WXYZ is a square, what is the area of the flowerbed?
(1) The perimeter of square WXYZ is 24.
(2) The diagonal 
.
4. A total of 72 passengers are on a ship, and they go out on an excursion in boats R and Q. How many of the ship’s passengers are female?
(1) There are 13 females on boat Q.
(2) There are equal numbers of women on boats R and Q.
5. In the xy plane, is the point (4, –2) on the line l?
(1) Point (1, 1) is on line l.
(2) The equation x = 2 – y describes line l.
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.
NUMBERS: All numbers used are real numbers.
FIGURES: A figure accompanying a problem-solving question is intended to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
6. A type of extra-large SUV averages 12.2 miles per gallon (mpg) on the highway, but only 7.6 mpg in the city. What is the maximum distance, in miles, that this SUV could be driven on 25 gallons of gasoline?
190
284.6
300
305
312
7. The ratio of 2 quantities is 5 to 6. If each of the quantities is increased by 15, what is the ratio of these two new quantities?
5:6
25:27
15:16
20:21
It cannot be determined from the information given.
8. 
8
9
10
9. In an animal behavior experiment, 50 tagged white pigeons and 200 tagged gray pigeons were released from a laboratory. Within one week, 88 percent of the white pigeons and 80.5 percent of the gray pigeons had returned to the laboratory. What percent of the total number of pigeons returned to the laboratory?
80.5
82
82.5
85
86.5
10. In the circular region shown above, sections A and B represent 
and 
, respectively, of the area of the circular region. Section C represents what fractional part of the area of the circular region?
11. At the wholesale store you can buy an 8-pack of hot dogs for $1.55, a 20-pack for $3.05, and a 250-pack for $22.95. What is the greatest number of hot dogs you can buy at this store with $200?
1,108
2,100
2,108
2,124
2,256
The following data sufficiency problems consist of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
12. What was the percent decrease in the price of MegaTek (MGTK) stock during the market decline of March 1, 2001, to March 1, 2002?
(1) The price of MGTK was $56.20 on March 1, 2001.
(2) The price of the stock on January 1, 2002, was only one-quarter of its price as of March 1, 2001.
13. Aran’s long-distance telephone plan charges him $0.50 for the first 4 minutes of a call, and $0.07 per minute for each subsequent minute. Aran made a call to Lupe for x minutes, where x is an integer. How many minutes long was Aran’s call?
(1) The last 7 minutes of Aran’s call cost $0.22 less than the first 7 minutes of the call.
(2) The call did not cost more than $1.05.
14. If x and y are both positive numbers, is x greater than 75% of y?
(1) 5x > 4y + 1
(2) x = 6
15. Is xyz = 1?
(1) x(yz) = 1
(2) 5z = 0
16. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of x and y ?
(1) The average of x + 3 and y + 5 is 14.
(2) The average of x, y, and 16 is 12.
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.
17. One day a car rental agency rented 2/3 of its cars, including 3/5 of its cars with CD players. If 3/4 of its cars have CD players, what percent of the cars that were not rented had CD players?
10%
35%
45%
66.7%
90%
18. If x is 20 percent greater than 88, then x =
68
70.4
86
105.6
108
19. A farmer with 1,350 acres of land had planted his fields with corn, sugar cane, and tobacco in the ratio of 5:3:1, respectively, but he wanted to make more money, so he shifted the ratio to 2:4:3, respectively. How many more acres of land were planted with tobacco under the new system?
90
150
270
300
450
20. 
18
33
36
42
45
21. What is the perimeter of a square with area 
?
3P
3P2
22. If a three-digit number is selected at random from the integers 100 to 999, inclusive, what is the probability that the first digit and the last digit of the integer will both be exactly two less than the middle digit?
1 out of 900
7 out of 900
9 out of 1,000
1 out of 100
7 out of 100
23. Which of the following inequalities is equivalent to –4 < x < 8?
|x – 1| < 7
|x + 2| < 6
|x + 3| < 5
|x – 2| < 6
None of the above
24. 
416
224
188
104
56
25. Three different lumberjacks can chop W amount of wood in 30 minutes, 45 minutes, and 50 minutes according to their different levels of skill with the axe. How much wood, in terms of W, could the two fastest lumberjacks chop in 2 hours?
6W
3W
The following data sufficiency problems consist of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of counterclockwise), you must indicate whether
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
26. In what year was Edward born?
(1) In 1988, Edward turned 17 years old.
(2) Edward’s sister Lisa, who is 14 months older than Edward, was born in 1970.
27. Is rs = rx – 2?
(1) r is an odd number
(2) x = s + 2
28. A CEO is building an extra-wide garage in which to park his limousines. The garage is x feet wide, and at least 2 feet of space is required between each two cars and between the cars and the walls. Will all 9 limousines fit in the garage?
(1) The average width of the limousines is the square root of x.
(2) x = 100.
29. If q + r + s = 45, what is the value of qr?
(1) q = r = s
(2) q – r – s = –15
30. Is the triangle depicted above isosceles? (Figure not necessarily drawn to scale.)
(1) 180 – (a + c) = 60
(2) a = 2b – c
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.
31. Last year Jackie saved 5% of her annual salary. This year, she made 10% more money than last year, and she saved 8% of her salary. The amount saved this year was what percent of the amount she saved last year?
56%
76%
158%
176%
188%
32. The table above shows the one-way driving distance, in miles, between four cities: P, Q, R, and S. For example, the distance between P and Q is 144 miles. If the round trip between S and Q is 16 miles further than the round trip between S and R, and the round trip between S and R is 24 miles less than the round trip between S and P, what is the value of X?
174
182
186
348
364
33. If 35 percent of 400 is 20 percent of x, then x =
200
350
700
900
1,400
34. (23 – 1)(23 + 1)(26 + 1)(212 + 1) =
(224 – 1)
(224 + 1)
(248 – 1)
(296 + 1)
26(212 – 1)
35. To be considered for “movie of the year,” a film must appear in at least ¼ of the top-10-movies lists submitted by the Cinematic Academy’s 765 members. What is the smallest number of top-10 lists a film can appear on and still be considered for “movie of the year”?
191
192
193
212
213
36. In a sample of associates at a law firm, 30 percent are second-year associates, and 60 percent are not first-year associates. What percent of the associates at the law firm have been there for more than two years?
10%
20%
30%
40%
50%
37. Which of the following fractions has the greatest value?
__________________ STOP.__________________
TIME—75 MINUTES
The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Forget hostile aliens. According to a forthcoming book by noted astrophysicist Egbert Larson, the intrepid humans who first attempt interstellar space travel will face far more daunting challenges before they ever meet the Little Green Men.
Larson begins with the problem of relativistic time dilation. If you travel all the way to Alpha Centauri, you’d like to come back and tell your friends about it, right? It’s not too likely to happen, though. If Mr. Einstein was right about relativity—and we’re not going to say he wasn’t—then time slows down when you approach the speed of light. A person traveling at any velocity near the speed of light will age only days for every week, month, or even year that passes on earth. Relativity does not present a problem for interstellar space travel, per se, but it does mean that interstellar civilizations or even just interstellar communications will require a mind-boggling amount of calendar juggling.
Did we mention that you’d have to travel at near the speed of light? That’s because the distance between stars is so vast that even if you could travel at the speed of light—which, Larson reminds us, you can’t—it would take more than four years to reach our closest star neighbors, Alpha Proxima and Alpha Centauri, and decades or centuries to reach the other stars in our “immediate neighborhood.” And if you tried to accelerate directly to the speed of light like they do in the movies, you’d be instantly splattered on the back of your theoretical spacecraft. Achieving anything close to light speed will require sustained acceleration at a level that human bodies can withstand—say, a crushing two gravities—for over a year. Better hope somebody brings some chips.
Speaking of chips, food is going to be a problem. Since it is economically, if not physically, impossible to accelerate 200 years’ worth of food to nearly the speed of light, and since you’re not likely to find any grocery stores along the way, someone will have to figure out how to make food in space. Keeping a crew alive on the way turns out to be the trickiest part of all. Once you’ve got the nearly impossible physics of space travel worked out, you still have to figure out the chemistry and biology of keeping your air and water clean and keeping your crew fed and safe from radiation and infection, and—did we mention the 200 years?—you’ll probably need several generations of crew members to complete the trip. Ever been on a bus for more than 24 hours? It’s not a pretty picture.
We applaud Larson for his insightful writing and his scrupulous attention to scientific detail. For those of you seeking a cold, hard look at the reality of interstellar space travel, this is a stellar read. But be warned: Larson doesn’t let you down gently. For those of you sincerely hoping to beam up with Scotty—and you know who you are—you might want to give this one a pass.
1. Which of the following would make the most appropriate title for this passage?
Going Boldly Where No One Has Gone Before: The Promise and Peril of Interstellar Space Travel
The Day the Earth Stood Still: Why Interstellar Space Travel Is Essential to Human Survival
The Wrath of Larson: Egbert Larson’s Quest to Build an Interstellar Spacecraft
Busted Flat in Beta Regulus: The Crushing Challenges of Interstellar Space Travel
Say It Isn’t So, Mr. Einstein: Egbert Larson’s Challenge to the Theory of Relativity
2. Based on the tone and content of the passage, it is most likely which of the following?
A book review in a journal intended for astrophysics professionals
A movie review in an entertainment industry publication
A book review in a science magazine aimed at a general audience
A book review in a newspaper
A transcript of a talk given at a science fiction convention dedicated to “The poetry of space”
3. The passage implies that all except which of the following could be threats to human health during extended interstellar voyages?
Meteor impact
Radiation poisoning
Accelerating too fast
Starvation
Old age
4. According to the passage, which of the following will present the most difficult challenge for humans attempting interstellar space travel?
Achieving velocities near the speed of light
Withstanding the acceleration necessary for traversing interstellar distances
Maintaining clean air and water on a journey that could last centuries
Accommodating the effects of relativistic time dilation
Enabling the humans on board to survive during the journey
5. According to the information given in the passage, if two 20-year-old twins lived on earth, and one of them left on a journey for Alpha Centauri at very close to the speed of light, then managed to survive the journey and return to earth having aged 40 years during the journey, what could she expect to find upon her return to earth?
Her great-grandmother
Her twin at the age of 20
Her twin at the age of 40
Her twin at the age of 60
Her twin’s great-grandchildren
6. Which of the following inventions, if it could be perfected and manufactured at a viable cost, would address the most challenges to human interstellar space travel, as presented in the passage?
A ram-scoop drive that can accelerate a spacecraft of any size to four-fifths of the speed of light within 24 hours
A cold-sleep capsule that essentially halts the passage of time for human inhabitants while protecting them from all physical harm
A sustainable biosphere that reliably generates healthy food and automatically cleans air and water
A neutrino-based communications system that permits instantaneous communication across any distance without any relativistic time dilation
An impervious force field that protects the ship and its inhabitants from radiation, meteor strikes, or hostile alien attacks
7. The author of the passage most likely mentions “Little Green Men” in the first paragraph for what purpose?
To poke fun at the ignorance of most science fiction readers
To introduce a daunting challenge that will have to be addressed before human interstellar space travel can become possible
To draw a comparison between the attempts of humans to voyage in space and the more successful attempts of other civilizations
To draw an amusing distinction between a supposed danger of space travel, as presented in the popular media, and the actual challenges posed by interstellar space travel, as perceived by scientists
To suggest that the concept of human interstellar space travel is as much of a myth as the “Little Green Men” that appear in science fiction movies and television programs
For the following questions, select the best of the answer choices given.
8. A wholesale fruit distributor, in an effort to increase its profit margins, has proposed cutting the tops off of the pineapples it ships in order to increase the number of pineapples it can ship in a standard-size truck.
Which of the following, if true, gives the strongest evidence that the fruit distributor’s plan will increase its profit margins?
Pineapples with the tops cut off have been shown to rot three times faster than uncut fruit.
Customers buy whole pineapples in part because of their exotic, spiky appearance.
Cutting the tops off of pineapples may inadvertently remove some of the fruit within.
The fruit distributor ships primarily to a fruit canning company that has no use for pineapple tops.
Pineapple juice has been shown to be an even more potent source of vitamin C than orange or cranberry juice.
9. A brand of cough syrup comes with a measuring cup attached so that customers can measure the proper dosage. A consultant has pointed out that this cup is unnecessary, since most customers have measuring cups at home. Since the cups increase the cost of packaging the cough syrup and reduce the total number of units that can be shipped in a standard package, the consultant advises that the company can increase its net revenue on this product (total revenue minus total costs) by selling the cough syrup without the measuring cups.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the company should not follow the consultant’s advice?
Studies have shown that customers who use cough syrup without a measuring cup frequently take either too little or too much of the medicine, rendering the dosage either ineffective or, in cases of overdose, dangerous.
The company has included a measuring cup with each bottle of cough syrup for the last 18 years.
Studies have shown that 85 percent of consumers possess at home either a measuring cup, a set of measuring spoons, or both.
Many customers neglect to follow the recommended dosage of cough syrup even when the measuring cup is packaged along with the bottle of cough syrup.
Shipping the cough syrup bottles without the measuring cups will provide a marginal improvement in the number of cough syrup bottles that can be shipped in a standard package.
The following two questions are based on the following passage:
A study by a group of dentists has concluded that regular use of a certain brand of mouthwash is as effective as flossing in preventing gum disease. The mouthwash company has released a television ad suggesting that people who do not like flossing can now rely solely on mouthwash and brushing to maintain good dental health. A leading manufacturer of dental floss brought a lawsuit against the mouthwash company demanding that the advertisement be discontinued on the grounds that it is misleading.
10. Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest support for the dental floss company’s claim that the advertisement is misleading?
The dental floss manufacturer is concerned that it will lose market share in the dental health market because the advertisement encourages people to switch from dental floss to mouthwash.
The dental floss company claims in its own advertisements that brushing and flossing after every meal is the most effective way to maintain good dental health.
Although mouthwash is an effective deterrent to gum disease, it is less effective than dental floss at removing plaque and preventing cavities between teeth.
Per usage, mouthwash is three times more expensive than dental floss, if the recommended amounts of both products are used.
The dentists who conducted the study on the effectiveness of mouthwash in preventing gum disease obtained their funding for the study from a company that manufactures mouthwash.
11. Which of the following, if true, most supports the mouthwash company’s defense that its advertisement promotes greater public health?
Since the dental floss company is protesting the advertisement only to protect its own economic self-interest, it cannot be seen as representing greater public health.
Greater public health is best served if people use both mouthwash and dental floss, a combination that has been shown to be more effective than either method used alone.
Many people object to flossing because it is painful and causes their gums to bleed.
Since, on average, people are twice as likely to use mouthwash regularly as to floss regularly, the advertisement will increase the number of people who take effective action against gum disease, a serious public health problem.
Gum disease has been proven to have links with the early onset of heart disease, one of the top three threats to public health in terms of mortality.
12. An electrical appliance company has submitted a new model of washing machine for stress and durability testing. After the conventional round of tests, 26 of the 90 machines tested no longer functioned. Observing these results, the company determined that the washing machine model was acceptable for the consumer market.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the company’s decision regarding the washing machine?
When the number one rated washing machine was submitted for stress and durability testing, 96 out of 100 machines were still functioning at the end of the test.
Because of the extreme stress of the testing process, any model that has more than two-thirds of its machines functioning at the end of the test process is considered sufficiently durable for the consumer market.
Most consumers will tolerate a washing machine that functions only 64 times out of 90 attempts.
Although the model tested is less durable than other models on the market, its projected price is considerably lower than that of the most durable models.
The electrical failure that brought down most of the 26 washing machines that ceased functioning could probably be avoided if the machine were redesigned.
The following questions present a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence, you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.
These questions test correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.
13. Having accounted for only 13 percent of the student body at Northlake High, students who attended Megalopolis Middle School dominate the Northlake High student government.
Having accounted for
With
Despite having been
Although accounting for
As
14. Because the key witness died just prior to the start of the trial, Detectives Mack and Smith were not able in determining the extent of administrative corruption.
Detectives Mack and Smith were not able in determining the extent of
therefore the detectives, Mack and Smith, were unable to determine the extent of
Mack and Smith, the detectives, were not able of determining the extent to
Detectives Mack and Smith were not able to determine the extent of
the extent was unable to be determined by Detectives Mack and Smith of
15. Health Department statistics demonstrate that children reading high on glucose with family histories of diabetes are twice as likely as the general population to develop diabetes.
reading high on glucose with family histories of diabetes
with high glucose readings whose families have a history of diabetes
with high glucose readings and who have a diabetic history in the family
having high glucose readings and also having histories of diabetes in their family
with a history of diabetes running in the family and with high glucose readings
16. Medical experts have amassed evidence concluding that users of smokeless tobacco be more prone to heart disease, hypertension, and mouth cancers than people who do not use smokeless tobacco.
be more prone to heart disease, hypertension, and mouth cancers
are proner to heart disease, hypertension, and mouth cancers
are more prone to heart disease, hypertension, and mouth cancers
experience heart disease, hypertension, and mouth cancers at heightened rates
suffer heart disease, hypertension, and mouth cancers at a higher risk
17. Chef Sylvia Bostock’s eclectic offerings at her new restaurant, Sylvia’s, range from an Asian-inspired tuna tartelette in a soy-ginger demiglace with a succulent cowboy rib-eye served atop a small mountain of fried onions.
with
to
in addition to
and
and to
18. The governing board of the new league has modified its rules so that preexisting teams can stay together even though not all their members meet the new minimum age requirement.
not all their members meet the new minimum age requirement
the new minimum age requirement has not been met by all their members
not all their members have met the new minimum age, as required
all their members have not met the new minimum age requirement
all their members do not meet the new minimum age requirement
For the following questions, select the best of the answer choices given.
19. Since 1960, the fast-growing town of Hotstone, Arizona, has drawn water from the Gray River, which feeds Lake Mudfish. If the town’s water use continues to grow at its present rate, in about 20 years the water level of Lake Mudfish will inevitably decrease to the point that it can no longer support its biologically fragile population of fish.
The prediction above is based on which of the following assumptions?
As the town’s water requirements grow, it will not be able to meet those requirements by drawing on water sources other than the Gray River.
Since 1960, the lake’s population of fish has become more biologically fragile.
The amount of water that the lake loses to evaporation each year will increase over the next two decades.
There are multiple sources of water besides the Gray River that feed into Lake Mudfish.
The town of Hotstone will be able to reverse its trend of increasing water use if it implements an aggressive water conservation program.
20. Public protests can cause even the most powerful companies to change their policies. For example, an activist group recently staged a demonstration in front of the HydraBore corporate headquarters to protest the company’s use of the chemical Ectomazathol. Within three months of the demonstration, HydraBore replaced Ectomazathol in its production plants with another chemical.
Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the connection between the public protest and the decision of the company to change chemicals?
Preliminary studies show that the new chemical may be more carcinogenic than Ectomazathol.
The recently introduced chemical that is replacing Ectomazathol is less expensive and more effective in its industrial application than Ectomazathol.
HydraBore devoted no publicity efforts to announce its switch from Ectomazathol to the new chemical.
As protests against HydraBore have become more frequent, the company has subsequently increased its public relations budget.
The activist group that staged the demonstration has been linked to illegal acts of theft and sabotage within other corporate headquarters.
21. A recent spate of art thefts at a major museum has led to a drastic increase in the insurance premiums that the museum must pay to insure its collection. Many art fans are concerned that the museum, which traditionally has charged no entrance fee, will be forced to charge a high entrance fee in order to pay for the increased insurance premiums.
Which of the following, if true, would most alleviate the concern of the art fans that the museum will be forced to charge high entrance fees?
Law enforcement officials recently apprehended the Belgian Bobcat, a notorious art thief who has been linked to at least 20 art heists.
Citing a dispute with the insurance company over the terms of its coverage, the museum has chosen to cancel its insurance policy.
The majority of visitors to the museum are schoolchildren, who could not reasonably be expected to pay a high entrance fee.
The museum pays for the majority of its total expenses from its large endowment, which is earmarked specifically for purchasing new art.
The museum recently installed a state-of-the-art burglar alarm system that will make future thefts almost impossible.
22. Which of the following, if true, best completes the passage below?
The traditional view of Homer is that of a blind bard who wrote down the epic poems known as the Iliad and the Odyssey in the eighth century B.C.E. We know now, however, that this picture cannot be true. The language used in the epic poems contains elements of the Greek language dating from the twelfth to the eighth centuries B.C.E., but the Greek writing system was not developed until the late seventh century, when it was used to record clerical notes. A more accurate statement regarding Homer, therefore, is that, if he existed, he most likely __________.
wrote the poems down in the fifth century B.C.E., using a preexisting oral tradition of Greek epic poetry.
was involved in the recording of clerical notes in Greek in the seventh century.
composed the poems orally in the eighth century and then dictated them to a scribe in the late seventh century.
composed the poems orally in the twelfth century, using a predecessor of the Greek language.
composed the poems orally in the eighth century, using elements of preexisting Greek epic poetry.
The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
One of the biggest questions facing the art world today is the dilemma over the repatriation of cultural treasures. Although the subject has not been widely noted by the general public, in recent decades museums and art dealers have repeatedly faced off against the representatives of nations and ethnic groups whose cultural legacies have been robbed by the rapacious collecting of these so-called art experts. Advocates of repatriation have argued that cultural treasures should be returned to their nations of origin, both because of basic fairness and because the artwork and cultural artifacts in question are best understood within their local context.
Several prominent museums, most notably the British Museum in London and the Louvre in Paris, have defended themselves on the grounds that they can better protect and preserve these cultural treasures than can the developing nations and impoverished ethnic groups that frequently seek their return. They further argue that more people can see the treasures if they are proudly displayed in a major museum, as opposed to some poorly funded national museum in a backwater country; evidently, the quantity of viewers is more important than the relevance of the art and artifacts to the viewer.
The arguments of the museum curators fall apart in an instance such as the Elgin Marbles. These majestic marble sculptures, which once graced the Parthenon on the Acropolis in Athens, were stolen by Lord Elgin in the nineteenth century and given to the British Museum, which holds them to this day. The people of Athens have built a beautiful, modern museum on the Acropolis to display the Elgin Marbles and other treasures from the Greek cultural heritage, so there can be no valid argument that the Greeks are unable to house the sculptures properly. Furthermore, more people visit the Acropolis every day than visit the British Museum.
23. Of the following, the most appropriate title for the passage above would be:
The Elgin Marbles: Timeless Symbols of the Glory That Was Greece
The Role of Great Museums in the Preservation of Cultural Artifacts
Repatriation of Cultural Treasures: The British Museum’s Dirty Little Secret
The Value of Cultural Treasures in Defining National Identity
A Curious Curator: Lord Elgin and the Rise of the British Museum
24. The third paragraph plays what role in the passage?
It summarizes all the points expressed in the first two paragraphs.
It raises new arguments that expand on those previously expressed.
It suggests a possible area for useful research in the future.
It rejects the arguments expressed in the first paragraph.
It provides concrete evidence against arguments expressed in the second paragraph.
25. The situation involving the repatriation of the Elgin Marbles to Athens is most similar to which of the following?
A Native American tribe in Oregon requests that a museum in Chicago return some ceremonial masks that could help in fundraising efforts to build a proposed museum in Portland.
The nation of Peru in South America threatens the nation of Ecuador with military action if Ecuador does not hand over various gold artifacts of the Inca Empire, which originated in Peru.
The National Archeology Museum of Cairo in Egypt requests that the Louvre return eight mummies from the time of Ramses the Great for the Cairo Museum’s new exhibit hall dedicated to artifacts from Ramses’ court.
The nation of Greece requests the nation of Turkey to provide Greek archeologists with free access to ancient Greek sites on the Ionian coast of Turkey, and to transfer any cultural artifacts found there to the National Archeology Museum in Athens.
A museum in Baton Rouge, Louisiana, requests that the Texas History Museum in Austin, Texas, send the original “Lone Star” flag to Baton Rouge for a new exhibit entitled, “Texas: Our Neighbor to the East.”
26. What is the purpose of the final sentence of the passage?
To express pride in the cultural treasures of Athens
To refute the argument that more people can see the Elgin Marbles at the British Museum than at the Acropolis
To comment on the relative number of tourists at two of Europe’s most famous tourist attractions
To express concern that the large number of tourists on the Acropolis will damage the Elgin Marbles, should they be returned
To provide an appropriate end to a rousing debate
27. The author’s attitude toward museum curators who oppose the repatriation of cultural treasures is best summarized as what?
Righteous indignation
Bemused sarcasm
Seething anger
Condescending approval
Grudging admiration
28. Which of the following, if true, would best support the position taken by the advocates of repatriation, as expressed in the first paragraph?
Of seven gold Inca statues sent from the Field Museum in Chicago to the National Archeology Museum in Lima, Peru, four were stolen within six months of being put on display.
Mummies taken from the dry heat of Egypt and relocated to the damp climate of London have shown disturbing signs of decay.
Operating a first-rate art and archeology museum is financially unfeasible for most developing nations, which face a difficult enough challenge feeding their people.
A type of sculpture from central Africa appears dull and nondescript in a museum setting, but when placed in the region of its origin can clearly be seen to replicate the colors and shapes of local rock formations.
British colonists in India in the nineteenth century felt that it was their right to claim the nation’s artistic treasures as their own in exchange for importing the benefits of a modern industrial society.
The following questions present a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence, you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.
These questions test correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.
29. According to government health statistics, Americans born before 1925 develop obesity by the age of 65 only 8 percent of the time, but 35 percent of those born since 1950 did so by age 35.
Americans born before 1925 develop obesity by the age of 65 only 8 percent of the time, but 35 percent of those born since 1950 did so by age 35.
only 8 percent of Americans born before 1925 developed obesity by the age of 65; if they are born since 1950, 35 percent develop obesity by the age 35.
only 8 percent of Americans born before 1925 developed obesity by the age of 65; of those born since 1950, 35 percent developed obesity by the age of 35.
obesity develops by the age of 65 in only 8 percent of Americans born before 1925, and by 35 by the 35 percent born since 1950.
of Americans born before 1925, only 8 percent of them have developed obesity by the age of 65, but 35 percent of those born since 1950 do by the age of 35.
30. In his groundbreaking work on special relativity, Albert Einstein displayed an intellectual boldness in the face of a reluctant scientific establishment that was not unlike that of Galileo Galilei, who refused to accept the intellectual limits placed on him by the censors of the Church.
not unlike that of Galileo Galilei, who refused
like Galileo Galilei and his refusal
not unlike Galileo Galilei, who refused
like that of Galileo Galilei for refusing
as that of Galileo Galilei, who refused
31. The rising of the rate of tardiness among MegaTech employees has generated concern among management that the employees are not sufficiently focused on increasing shareholder value.
The rising of the rate
Rising rates
The rising rate
Because of the rising rate
Because the rising rate
32. Increasingly over the last few years, corporations involved in patent litigation have opted to settle the lawsuit rather than facing the protracted legal expenses of a court battle.
have opted to settle the lawsuit rather than facing
have opted settling the lawsuit instead of facing
have opted to settle the lawsuit rather than face
had opted for settlement of the lawsuit instead of facing
had opted to settle the lawsuit rather than face
33. The ManStop, Boston’s hot new men’s clothing store, offers a selection that is on range from conservative pin-striped suits for that day at the office to stylish cashmere pullovers for that night on the town.
is on range from
ranging from
ranges to
ranges from
having ranged from
For the following questions, select the best of the answer choices given.
34. An agricultural cooperative wants to sell more of its less popular vegetables, zucchini in particular. A consultant has suggested that the cooperative’s farmers should attempt to market a purple form of zucchini instead of the conventional green form, because people generally dislike green-colored vegetables.
Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the accuracy of the consultant’s assertion?
Broccoli and green peas, which are both green vegetables, are among the most popular vegetables in the country.
Grapes and eggplants, which both have purple skin, are popular among consumers of all ages.
Summer squash, a yellow-colored cousin of the zucchini, is one of the most popular summer vegetables.
Green tomatoes are far less popular than red tomatoes.
A chewing gum company reports that its purple-colored grape gum is less popular than its green-colored sour apple flavor.
35. Homely Hotels has a customer loyalty program in which for every four nights a customer spends at a Homely Hotel, he or she receives a coupon good for one free night at any Homely Hotel. Recently people have begun selling these coupons on the Internet for less than the cost of a night at a Homely Hotel. This marketing of coupons has resulted in decreased revenue for the Homely Hotel chain.
To discourage this undesirable trade in free-stay coupons, it would be best for Homely Hotels to restrict:
the number of coupons a customer can receive in one year
use of the coupons to the specific hotel in which they were issued
the valid dates of the coupons to only the month immediately following the date of issue
use of the coupons to the recipient or people with the same last name
use of the coupons to Homely Hotel franchises that charge an equal or lesser nightly rate than the franchise that issued the coupon
36. An American manufacturer of space heaters reported a 1994 fourth-quarter net income (total income minus total costs) of $41 million, compared with $28.3 million in the fourth quarter of 1993. This increase was realized despite a drop in U.S. domestic retail sales of space-heating units toward the end of the fourth quarter of 1994 as a result of unusually high temperatures.
Which of the following, if true, would contribute most to an explanation of the increase in the manufacturer’s net income?
In the fourth quarter of 1994, the manufacturer paid its assembly-line workers no salaries in November or December because of a two-month-long strike, but the company had a sufficient stock of space-heating units on hand to supply its distributors.
In 1993, because of unusually cold weather in the Northeast, the federal government authorized the diversion of emergency funding for purchasing space-heating units to be used in the hardest-hit areas.
Foreign manufacturers of space heaters reported improved fourth-quarter sales in the American market compared with their sales in 1993.
During the fourth quarter of 1994, the manufacturer announced that it would introduce an extra-high-capacity space heater in the following quarter.
In the third quarter of 1994, a leading consumer magazine advocated space heaters as a cost-effective way to heat spaces of less than 100 square feet.
The following questions present a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence, you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.
These questions test correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.
37. Archeological excavations of Roman ruins on the Greek island of Crete show that securing control over the maritime trade routes of the Eastern Mediterranean was a primary goal of the Romans, as it was of the Greeks in preceding centuries.
as it was of the Greeks
like that of the Greeks
as that of the Greeks
just as the Greeks did
as did the Greeks
38. The family’s mood, which had been enthusiastic at the beginning of the trip, sank as the temperature has risen, dramatically, but not enough for calling off the whole trip.
has risen, dramatically, but not enough for calling
has risen, but not dramatically enough to call
rose, but not so dramatically as to call
rose, but not dramatically enough to call
rose, but not dramatically enough for calling
39. Although no proof yet exists of the electromagnetic disturbances observed being the results of nuclear weapons testing, diplomats are treating the situation with utmost delicacy.
of the electromagnetic disturbances observed being the results of nuclear weapons testing
regarding the observed electromagnetic disturbances having been the results of nuclear weapons testing
that the electromagnetic disturbances observed were the results of nuclear weapons testing
that nuclear weapons testing resulted in the electromagnetic disturbances having been observed
that the electromagnetic disturbance observed were resulting from nuclear weapons testing
40. Hip dysplasia is more common among German shepherds than dogs of other breeds.
than
than is so of
compared to
in comparison with
than among
41. The only lucid arguments printed in the newspaper concerning the new bond proposal was put forth by the high school principal who wrote a series of letters to the newspaper’s editor.
The only lucid arguments printed in the newspaper concerning the new bond proposal was put forth by the high school principal in a series of letters to the newspaper’s editor.
The principal of the high school wrote a series of letters to the newspaper’s editor that put forth the only lucid argument concerning the new bond proposal that was printed in the newspaper.
In a series of letters to the newspaper’s editor, the principal of the high school put forth the only lucid argument concerning the new bond proposal to be printed in the newspaper.
The high school’s principal’s series of letters to the newspaper’s editor lucidly put forth the only arguments concerning the new bond proposal to be printed in the newspaper.
Putting forth the only lucid arguments concerning the new bond proposal to be printed in the newspaper, the series of letters to the newspaper’s editor were written by the high school’s principal.
__________________ STOP.__________________
See page 658 for answers to the Integrated Reasoning section.
QUANTITATIVE
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. E
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. E
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. D
17. E
18. D
19. D
20. E
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. E
28. C
29. A
30. E
31. D
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. A
VERBAL
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. E
5. E
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. E
23. C
24. E
25. C
26. B
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. C
33. D
34. A
35. D
36. A
37. A
38. D
39. C
40. E
41. C
The conference speaker argues that video games provide young people with valuable skills needed to succeed in college and at work. While there may be a correlation between video game usage and increased salaries, this argument is based on improper logic and is thus fundamentally flawed.
The speaker acknowledges that video games have been criticized for negatively affecting our nation’s youth over the past few years, a fact that cannot be denied. He then claims that a correlation between frequent video game use and higher test scores and salaries implies that video games have led to these positive outcomes. Correlation, however, does not imply causation. There are many other things that have likely increased over the past 25 years, including, for example, cell phone use. However, just as it is unreasonable to conclude that the popularity of video games has caused increased cell phone use, it is unreasonable to conclude that it has increased salaries or test scores.
In order to properly conclude that video game usage provides young people with the skills needed for success, the speaker should either cite or conduct a scientific study that formally addresses the relationship between these activities. By including a control group, the speaker could demonstrate that this increase in test scores and salaries was indeed due to video game usage and was not the product of previously unrecognized factors.
Due to his lack of evidence, the speaker’s claim is poorly argued. The statement would have been substantially more persuasive if he had demonstrated true causation instead of mere correlation. Causation can be proved, either by conducting his own research or citing other scientific papers, and either would go a long way to making him a more credible spokesman.
1. The correct answers are ET and 200E.
The total amount of CO2 emitted equals the number of kilograms per kilometer times the number of kilometers. At a rate of T km/hr, the Eurostar travels T km in 1 hour, so the CO2 emitted in that hour is E (the number of kilograms per kilometer) times T.
The total CO2 emitted in 200 kilometers equals E (the number of kilograms per kilometer) times the number of kilometers, 200.
2. The correct answers are shown below.
Source #1 indicates the total amount of hardwood consumed annually by the global economy, 15 billion cubic feet. Source #3 indicates the annual consumption rate for the United States, other industrialized nations, and developing countries. Enough information is provided to calculate the actual amounts consumed annually in cubic feet.
Source #3 provides the information necessary to determine the second item. The average American consumption amount is provided: 886 pounds of paper per person per year. This is twice that of most European residents, so the European amount can be calculated.
The third item can be determined by the information provided in Sources #1 and #2. Source #1 indicates the total amount of hardwood consumed annually in the world, and Source #2 gives the percentage of this amount that goes to sawmills for whole-wood projects.
3. The correct answers are shown below.
There are three airports in wind zone III HSR, and each of them experienced a decrease in the number of cancelled flights.
All of the Florida airports ranked higher than all of the New York airports by number of cancelled flights, but not by number of passengers rebooked. The airport with the most passengers rebooked was a New York airport.
Out of the top five airports ranked by cancelled flights, only two experienced a decrease in cancelled flights compared to the previous year.
There is only one airport in wind zone II SWR, and that airport had 187,905 cancelled flights.
4. The correct answers are 186 fall mud-truck improvements and 540 total customizations next spring.
Last spring, the company completed roughly 200 customizations. This fall, the company expects to complete 170 more customizations than were completed last spring. The company should complete 370 total customizations this fall. Mud-truck improvement sales will exceed low-rider packages this fall. If Top Trucks sold an equal number of the two types of customizations, it would sell 185 of each type. If more mud-truck improvements are sold, the minimum number of mud-truck improvements would be 186.
If growth continues at its current rate, Top Trucks will sell 200 + 170 customizations this fall, or 370. It will sell 370 + 170 customizations next spring, or 540.
5. The answer to the first question is D. The symbols inside either or both circles in the Venn diagram represent the titles available in either paperback, hardcover, or both. There are 23 such symbols, representing 2,300 titles out of 3,000, or 23 out of 30.
The answer to the second question is A. The symbols inside the intersection of the circles in the Venn diagram represent the titles available in both paperback and hardcover. There are 5 such symbols, representing 500 titles out of 3,000, or 5 out of 30.
6. The correct answers are shown below.
If many concert venues in Texas offer only country music performances, that would help explain the relatively low percentage of venues overall that offer other kinds of performances.
The fact that Minnesota concertgoers prefer rock music to jazz does not help explain why rock performances are offered at fewer venues in the state than jazz performances.
The Florida birthplace of a famous violinist does not help explain why fewer Florida venues offer classical music performances than performances in other genres. It also does not help explain why the percentage of Florida venues that offer classical concerts is lower than the percentage of venues in most other states that offer classical concerts.
7. The answer to the first question is C. There is a general upward trend in the number of domestic tourists over the years, so the relationship between year and number of domestic tourists is positive. The answer to the second question is D. In 2010, there were close to 40 million domestic tourists and close to 10 million international tourists, or about 25% of 40 million.
8. The correct answer is $1,190.
If the manuals run to 115 pages each, plus the three pages of standard company information, they will have a total of 118 pages, with five of those containing color graphics. The total cost of printing one manual will therefore be $0.25 × 118, plus an extra $0.50 × 5, plus $2.00, which equals $34.
The cost of 35 manuals will be $34 × 35, or $1,190.
9. The correct answers are shown below.
The first inference is supported by the information in E-mail #1. The training director indicates that the class should have 35 registrants, the capacity of the training room.
The second inference is not supported by the information in the three sources. The three sources do not mention the department’s printing budget.
Based on the information given in the three sources, the technical publications department is not likely to be able to deliver 35 copies of the training manual by the deadline of October 21st. E-mail #2 states that delivery should be on time if the manual is under 100 pages, but E-mail #3 indicates that the manual will exceed 100 pages.
10. The correct answers are shown below.
The zoo had a greater share of the nation’s gorillas, but that doesn’t tell us how many gorillas or lions the zoo had in all.
In 2015, this zoo ranked first in the country for ostriches born in captivity.
The table compares giraffes at this zoo with the giraffe population at other zoos, but it does not compare giraffes at this zoo that were born in the wild with giraffes at this zoo that were born in captivity, so we can’t be sure this statement is true.
11. The correct answers are 24,000,000 for Language A, and 16,000,000 for the difference between Language A’s and Language B’s average annual growth rates.
If Language A grows from 330 million to 450 million speakers, this is an increase of 120 million speakers. Over 5 years, the average annual increase would be 120 ÷ 5, or 24 million speakers.
If Language B grows from 260 million to 300 million speakers, this is an increase of 40 million speakers. Over 5 years, the average annual increase would be 40 ÷ 5, or 8 million speakers. The difference between Language A’s and Language B’s average annual growth rates is 24 – 8, or 16 million speakers.
12. The answer to the first question is B. The zygote phase lasts about 56 days, and about 7 of those days are devoted to cellular reorganization; 7 is 12.5% of 56. The answer to the second question is C. The first trimester is about 84 days and the second is about 112 days; 112 is about 133% of 84.
1. The correct answer is C. (1) alone is insufficient, because if x = 36, then the answer is “yes,” but if x = 37, then the answer is “no.” (2) alone is insufficient, because if x = 36, then the answer is “yes,” but if x = 180, then the answer is “no.” If the statements are combined, however, then the only value of x that meets all the conditions is 36, for which the answer is “yes.”
2. The correct answer is D. (1) alone is sufficient because it tells us that b is a larger number than a, which means that the answer to the question must be “no.” (2) alone is sufficient; the statement can be simplified to 5a = 4b, which means that b is larger than a, so the answer to the question must be “no.”
3. The correct answer is D. (1) alone is sufficient; if the perimeter of the square is 24, then the length of each side is 24/4 = 6, and the radius of each of the semicircles is 6/2 = 3. The area of the square is 6 × 6 = 36, and since the formula for the area of a circle is πr2, the area of the semicircles is 2 × ½[π(3 × 3)] = 9π; 36 + 9π is the area of the flowerbed. (2) alone is sufficient; the side of a square is the diagonal divided by 
(this is derived from the Pythagorean theorem), so the sides are equal to 6; by following the same process used with statement (1), you can determine the area of the flowerbed.
4. The correct answer is C. (1) alone is insufficient because it gives no information about the number of females on boat R. (2) alone is insufficient because it does not give the number of women on either boat. If the statements are combined, we see that there are 13 women on each boat, or 26 in all.
5. The correct answer is B. (1) alone is insufficient because it offers information about only one point on the line. (2) alone is sufficient, because you can check whether the point (4, –2) satisfies the line’s equation (and therefore lies on the line) by substituting its coordinates into the line’s equation.
6. The correct answer is D. The SUV will reach its maximum distance only if driven only on the highway; 25 × 12.2 = 305.
7. The correct answer is E. With no idea of what the quantities actually are, there is no way to tell how adding 15 to each of them will affect their ratio; for example, if the quantities were 5 and 6, the new ratio would be 20:21, but if the quantities were 10 and 12, the ratio would be 25:27.
8. The correct answer is C. 
9. The correct answer is B. 88% of 50 is 44, and 80.5% of 200 is 161. 44 + 161 = 205. 205/250 total pigeons = 0.82 = 82%.
10. The correct answer is A. Section C is equal to 1 – (3/8 + 5/11) = 1 – (33/88 + 40/88) = 15/88.
11. The correct answer is B. You should start with the 250-packs, because that is the best value, with each hot dog costing less than 10 cents. Rounding 22.95 to 23 for simplicity, you can determine that you can afford 8 of the 250-packs, for a total of $183.60. The 20-packs are the next best value at around 15 cents per hot dog, so with the remaining $16.40 you can buy 5 of the 20-packs for $15.25, leaving $1.15. $1.15 isn’t enough for an 8-pack, so the total number of hot dogs is 8 × 250 + 5 × 20 = 2,100.
12. The correct answer is E. (1) alone is insufficient because it gives only the value at the starting point of the period in question. (2) alone is insufficient because the price as of January 1, 2002, is irrelevant to the question. Combining the two statements yields no new insights.
13. The correct answer is C. (1) alone is insufficient; we know that the first 7 minutes cost $0.50 + 3 × $0.07 = $0.71; the least the last 7 minutes could cost is 7 × $0.07 = $0.49, which is exactly $0.22 less than the first 7 minutes, so we know that the last 7 minutes did not include the first 4 minutes, but that is all we can tell. (2) alone is insufficient, because the call could have lasted any length of time under 12 minutes (12 minutes cost $1.06, 11 minutes cost $0.99). If the two are combined, the only value that meets all the conditions is 11 minutes.
14. The correct answer is A. Dividing both sides of the equation in (1) by 5 implies that x is greater than 4/5 of y, which equals 80% of y, so the question is answered in the affirmative and (1) alone is sufficient. (2) is insufficient without providing any information about the relative value of y, so the answer is A.
15. The correct answer is B. (1) alone is insufficient, because x, y, and z could be (1, 1, 1) or (1, 1, 0) or other values, which give different answers to the question. (2) alone is sufficient, because if z = 0, it does not matter what the values are for x and y; xyz = 0 ≠ 1.
16. The correct answer is D. (1) alone is sufficient; the statement could be restated to say that x + y + 3 + 5 = 14 × 2, or x + y = 20; therefore, the average of x and y is 10. (2) alone is sufficient; the statement could be restated as x + y + 16 = 12 × 3, or x + y = 20; therefore, the average of x and y is 10.
17. The correct answer is E. One way to approach this problem is to think of the fractions as actual cars. Since the given denominators are 3, 4, and 5, imagine that there are 60 cars. In this case, the agency rented 40 cars (2/3 of 60), 45 of the total cars have CD players (3/4 of 60), and 27 of its cars with CD players were rented (3/5 of 45). From these numbers, we can determine that 20 cars in total were not rented (60 – 40), and 18 cars with CD players were not rented (45 – 27). 18 out of 20 is 90 percent.
18. The correct answer is D. Eliminate A, B, and C because x is greater than 88. 120 percent of 88 is 1.2(88) = 105.6.
19. The correct answer is D. The numbers in both sets of ratios add up to 9, so you can look at each of the ratios in terms of ninths of 1,350. In the original planting system, tobacco accounted for 1/9 of the total, so 1,350/9 = 150. In the new system, tobacco accounts for 3/9, or 450. 450 – 150 = 300.
20. The correct answer is E. The statement can be restated as 12 + 15 + 18 = 45.
21. The correct answer is C. The area of a square is the square of its sides, so one of the sides of this square is 
. The perimeter of a square is its side times 4, so the perimeter is 3P.
22. The correct answer is B. There are exactly 7 digits out of the 900 for which this statement is true: 131, 242, 353, 464, 575, 686, 797; that equals a probability of 7 out of 900.
23. The correct answer is D. |x – 2| < 6 implies –6 < x – 2 < 6, which is equivalent to –4 < x < 8. A is equivalent to –6 < x < 8, B is equivalent to – 8 < x < 4, and C is equivalent to –8 < x < 2.
24. The correct answer is B. The statement is equivalent to 4[80 – 6(4)] = 4(56) = 224.
25. The correct answer is A. The fastest lumberjack can chop W in 30 minutes, so in 2 hours = 120 minutes, he will chop 4W. The next fastest can chop W in 45 minutes, so he will be able to chop 
.
26. The correct answer is A. (1) alone is sufficient because it gives 1971 as the only answer. (2) alone is insufficient, because the conditions stated could apply to either 1971 or 1972.
27. The correct answer is E. (1) alone can neither prove nor disprove the equation above because there are infinite values of r, s, and x for which the equation could be true or false. (2) alone is not sufficient. By plugging in s + 2 for x, you can determine that you can answer the question when r = 1, but you don’t actually know that r does, in fact, equal 1. Putting both statements together, you still don’t have enough information to answer the question, as there are values that could give you either true or false answers. So E is the correct answer.
28. The correct answer is C. (1) alone is insufficient because it gives us no actual measurements. (2) alone is insufficient because it gives us the width of the garage, but not the width of the cars. If the two are combined, we see that the cars cannot fit in the garage. The square root of 100 = 10, so the 9 cars will require 90 feet of space, but the additional space required between and around the cars will be another 18 feet, so the cars will not fit in the garage.
29. The correct answer is A. (1) alone is sufficient, because the only value for q, r, and s that meets the conditions of the question and the statement is 15; thus, we can determine the value of qr. (2) alone is not sufficient; although it would work for the values (q, r, s) = (15, 15, 15), it would also work for (q, r, s) = (15, 14, 16).
30. The correct answer is E. A triangle is isosceles if two of its angles are equal. (1) tells us that (a + c) = 120°, which is not sufficient to prove whether or not the triangle is isosceles. (2) can be altered to (a + c) = 2b, which is not sufficient to prove whether or not the triangle is isosceles. If the two are combined, we have 2b = 120, and therefore b = 60. Knowing the measure of one angle is still insufficient, since a could equal 59 and c could equal 61, so the question remains unresolved.
31. The correct answer is D. For simplicity, assume that she earned $100 last year and saved $5. This year she earned $110 and saved $110 × 0.08 = $8.80. 8.80/5 = 1.76 or 176%.
32. The correct answer is B. To find X, the distance between S and Q, start with a number you know; the distance between S and P is 186 miles, and the round trip therefore is 372 miles; 372 = the SR round trip + 24 miles, so SR round trip = 348 miles; SQ round trip = SR round trip – 16 miles, so SQ round trip = 364. X is the one-way SQ distance, so 364/2 = 182.
33. The correct answer is C. First, 35% of 400 = 140. If 140 = 0.2x, then x = 140/0.2 = 700.
34. The correct answer is A. Following the rules for multiplying two binomials and the rules for exponents, (23 – 1)(23 + 1)(26 + 1)(212 + 1) = (26 – 1)(26 + 1)(212 + 1) = (212 – 1)(212 + 1) = (224 – 1).
35. The correct answer is B. 765 times 1/4 equals 191.25, but the question states “at least 1/4,” so the movie must appear on 192 lists.
36. The correct answer is C. The answer must be a subset of the 60 percent of associates that are not first- year associates. Of these, you must subtract the 30 percent that are second-year associates, leaving only 30 percent, so the answer is C.
37. The correct answer is A. This problem becomes much easier if you recognize that all of the fractions include 
; for purposes of comparison, you can multiply each of the fractions by (23)(32) to simplify things. This leaves you with the following values: A = 12, B = 2, C = 6, D = 8, and E = 3; A is the greatest value.
1. The correct answer is D. An ideal title would capture the idea that this is a review of a book by Egbert Larson concerning the daunting challenges of interstellar space travel. C and E both appear to be attractive choices because they mention Larson and they mention issues addressed in the passage, but they are both incorrect because they focus on topics that are not in the passage: there is no mention in the passage of Larson’s building a spacecraft, and his work seems to build on the theory of relativity rather than challenging it. B is mostly off topic. A and D both address the central issue of the difficulty of space travel, but A is incorrect because it introduces the concept of “the promise” of space travel, which is not addressed in the passage. D is the best answer.
2. The correct answer is C. The passage is clearly talking about a book, so B is out. The passage assumes some knowledge of science—as shown by its reference to “Mr. Einstein” without any further identification that it is talking about the physicist Albert Einstein—but it does not assume a comprehensive knowledge of physics, as shown by its explanation of relativistic time dilation, a concept that no professional astrophysicist would need to have explained. Thus the very general audience of D and the very specific audience of A are both out. E is not obviously wrong, but the fact that the passage makes no mention of “poetry” and the fact that C specifically mentions a “book review” makes C the stronger choice.
3. The correct answer is A. The passage mentions the dangers of B, D, and E in the fourth paragraph (the statement that the mission will need several generations implies that the first generation will die of old age), and C is addressed with the statement: “And if you tried to accelerate directly to the speed of light like they do in the movies, you’d be instantly splattered on the back of your theoretical spacecraft.” Meteor impacts, although in fact a serious issue for voyages of this nature, are not discussed in the passage.
4. The correct answer is E. The passage states: “Keeping a crew alive on the way turns out to be the trickiest part of all.” This is a fair approximation of statement E.
5. The correct answer is E. The passage states: “If Mr. Einstein was right about relativity … then time slows down when you approach the speed of light. A person traveling at any velocity near the speed of light will age only days for every week, month, or even year that passes on earth.” If the twin on the voyage was traveling at “very close” to the speed of light, we can assume that for her, time slowed down a great deal compared to time as experienced on earth. The twin on earth would most likely have died of old age long before the voyaging twin’s return, leaving only the possibility that the earth twin’s descendants might be there to greet her returning twin.
6. The correct answer is B. B addresses all the survival issues handled by C, and in addition its protection “from all physical harm” addresses the radiation mentioned in E and the acceleration problems that are inherent in A. B also protects against the daunting passage of time necessary for interstellar space travel. Based on the information in the third paragraph, the invention in A would not be usable without some other protective invention because humans could not withstand that rate of acceleration. D would be an astounding invention on its own, but it does not address as many of the challenges mentioned in the passage as B. B is the best answer. Why hasn’t someone invented this thing yet?
7. The correct answer is D. The passage states: “Forget hostile aliens. According to a forthcoming book by noted astrophysicist Egbert Larson, the intrepid humans who first attempt interstellar space travel will face far more daunting challenges before they ever meet the Little Green Men.” While the passage is light in tone, it does not suggest that the aliens are necessarily a “myth,” as in E, or that those who believe in them are ignorant, as in A. On the other hand, it does not say that they exist or that humans are likely to contact them, which rules out C. The point of the introduction is that there are more daunting immediate problems than the theoretical risk of alien attacks, so B is out. D captures the essence of the introduction.
8. The correct answer is D. Answer D suggests that the company can reap the benefits of fuller trucks while bearing no ill consequences from cutting off the tops, Answers A, B, and C all give reasons not to cut the tops off. Answer E is irrelevant.
9. The correct answer is A. Answer A suggests that there will be consequences from selling the cough syrup without the measuring cup that could hurt the product’s sales; if the product is perceived as ineffective or dangerous, fewer people will buy it, and that effect will most likely decrease net revenue.
10. The correct answer is C. If the advertisement suggests that “people who do not like flossing can now rely solely on mouthwash and brushing to maintain good dental health,” but in actuality mouthwash is less effective than flossing at performing certain functions that are important to good dental health, then the advertisement is misleading.
11. The correct answer is D. If the advertisement does increase the number of people taking effective preventive measures against gum disease, then it is serving the public health. This argument is vulnerable to the criticism that the public health benefits of the ad are offset by the increased likelihood of plaque and cavities between teeth of people who stop flossing, but answer D is still stronger than any of the alternatives.
12. The correct answer is B. B suggests that the observed results of the durability testing are well within the acceptable range for tests of this sort; by this same standard, the washing machine model would have failed the test if 30 or more machines had stopped working.
13. The correct answer is D. The underlined passage should suggest that the dominance of student government by a group representing a small minority of the total student body is contrary to expectations, thus C or D. The past tense of C, however, does not agree with the present tense “dominate” used later in the sentence, so D is the best choice.
14. The correct answer is D. The “were not able in determining” of A and the “were not able of determining” in C are unidiomatic, so A and C are out. The passive voice of E—“unable to be determined”—is stylistically inferior to the active voice used in B and D, so E is out unless there are more serious problems with B and D. The use of “therefore” in B is redundant following the “because” at the beginning of the sentence, so B is out. D is the clearest and most standard of the options.
15. The correct answer is B. Answer B is the clearest and most concise formulation of the intended statement. The construction “reading high” in A is awkward; C is incorrect because “a diabetic history” is awkward; D is incorrect because “having high glucose readings” is stylistically inferior to “with high glucose readings”; E is less concise than B.
16. The correct answer is C. “be more prone” (A), “are proner” (B), and “at heightened rates than” (D) are all grammatically incorrect, while statement E does not really make sense; statement C is the clearest and most standard wording.
17. The correct answer is B. The idiomatic construction here is “{subject} ranges from X to Y.” B completes the construction.
18. The correct answer is A. A is grammatical and idiomatic, so it is the best choice. A is preferable to B because B uses the passive voice and because the present tense used in A, “not all … meet”, corresponds better with the preceding verb phrase “can stay together” than the past tense used in B. A is preferable to C because A uses the present tense and because the final phrase “as required” in C is somewhat awkward. D and E are incorrect because they imply that no one meets the requirements, rather than just some of the members.
19. The correct answer is A. If the town could meet its water requirements from sources other than the Gray River, then the depletion of Lake Mudfish would not necessarily be “inevitable”; since the prediction states that it is inevitable, statement A is an assumption upon which the prediction is based.
20. The correct answer is B. If B is true, then the company had sufficient reason to switch to the new chemical without taking the public protest into consideration.
21. The correct answer is B. If the museum has canceled its insurance policy, it will not have to pay the increased premiums, so the stated reason for charging a high entrance fee will no longer be valid.
22. The correct answer is E. The statement in the passage that the “language used in the epic poems contains elements of the Greek language dating from the twelfth to the eighth centuries B.C.E.” suggests that the poem was probably composed in the eighth century, using preexisting poetic material. If “the Greek writing system was not developed until the late seventh century,” then the poem must have been composed orally if it was composed in the eighth century, because it could not have been written down at that time. The mechanism described in C is vaguely plausible, although it is very unlikely that a person who composed poems in the eighth century would be alive to dictate them in the late seventh century. E is the best answer.
23. The correct answer is C. The main subject of the passage is the debate over the repatriation of cultural treasures; the passage states that the subject is not widely noted by the outside world, hence “secret”; and the passage presents the British Museum in a negative light, hence “dirty little secret.”
24. The correct answer is E. The example of the Elgin Marbles is used to poke holes in the arguments of museum curators expressed in the second paragraph.
25. The correct answer is C. In both C and the description of the Elgin Marbles issue in the text, there is an existing museum, presumably capable of both protecting and preserving cultural artifacts, that is seeking the return of cultural treasures to display in a newly created space among relevant cultural context.
26. The correct answer is B. The sentence specifically addresses one of the arguments against repatriation of the Elgin Marbles, i.e., that more people can see the sculptures in the British Museum.
27. The correct answer is A. The author’s tone is certainly critical, as seen in terms such as “robbed” and “so-called art experts” and in the argument as a whole. The author’s hostility to the museum curators does not rise to the level of “seething anger,” however, and only one of the sentences (“evidently, the quantity of viewers…”) could accurately be described as “bemused sarcasm,” whereas the tone of the entire passage could be characterized as “indignant.”
28. The correct answer is D. The passage states, “Advocates of repatriation have argued that cultural treasures should be returned to their nations of origin, both because of basic fairness and because the artwork and cultural artifacts in question are best understood within their local context.” The African sculptures in question are clearly easier to understand within their local context.
29. The correct answer is C. A is confusing, both because of its wording and because of its confusion of tenses: “develop” and “did so.” B and E also mix tenses. The presentation of facts in D is confusing, and its use of the present tense is inappropriate for data that concern the past. C is the best answer.
30. The correct answer is A. B and C are incorrect because they erroneously compare Galileo Galilei to Albert Einstein’s intellectual boldness. D fails to make clear whether Albert Einstein or Galileo is doing the refusing. E is incorrect because “like” rather than “as” should be used to compare two noun phrases. A is the best answer.
31. The correct answer is C. A is less idiomatic and concise than C. B is incorrect because “rates” does not agree in number with “has generated.” The “because” in D and E turns the first clause into a sentence fragment. C is the best choice.
32. The correct answer is C. A is incorrect because it employs a nonparallel construction with “to settle” and “facing.” In B, “have opted settling” is unidiomatic. D and E both incorrectly use the past perfect tense (“had opted”), which is inappropriate because the introductory clause “over the last few years” implies that the action in question began in the past and has continued into the present; past perfect is used for actions that terminated in the past. C is the best answer.
33. The correct answer is D. The idiomatic construction here is “{subject} ranges from X to Y.” D completes the construction.
34. The correct answer is A. Answer A offers evidence that directly counters the consultant’s statement that people do not like green vegetables. E provides weak support for the idea that a green food could be more popular than a purple one, but the difference between gum and vegetables is sufficiently distinct to make A the stronger answer.
35. The correct answer is D. Answer D presents a substantial impediment to unauthorized trade in the coupons, while still retaining the customer loyalty benefits for which the program was presumably created. The other answers either fail to address the unauthorized trade in a meaningful way or significantly reduce the value of the customer loyalty program.
36. The correct answer is A. Answer A describes a situation in which costs would be substantially decreased because of the savings on worker salaries, but also in which revenues could remain substantially the same because preexisting stock was on hand. The described situation provides a plausible explanation for the observed financial results.
37. The correct answer is A. A is the only response that makes clear that the goal was what the Romans and Greeks had in common. B and C lack clear referents for “that.” D and E fail to make clear exactly what the Greeks “did.” A is the best answer.
38. The correct answer is D. The verb form “has risen” is supposed to describe an action simultaneous with “sank,” so it should be in the same verb form as “sank,” and so “rose” is a better verb form for this sentence; this excludes A and B. C inaccurately implies that the sinking mood itself could call off the trip; D and E correctly suggest that the sinking of the family’s mood is a possible justification for calling off the trip. Between D and E, D is preferable because the construction “not … enough to call off” is more concise and forceful than “not … enough for calling off.” D is the best answer.
39. The correct answer is C. The construction “proof exists that x was y” is more idiomatic and direct than the constructions in A and B: “proof exists of x being y” or “proof exists regarding x having been y”; consequently, C is preferable to A or B. D incorrectly suggests that the observation of disturbances was the result of the nuclear testing, rather than the electromagnetic disturbances themselves. E contains an error in verb-subject agreement with the construction, “disturbance … were.” C is the best answer.
40. The correct answer is E. The idiomatic construction used here is “more common among x than among y,” as in answer E. Answer A leaves open the illogical possibility that hip dysplasia among German shepherds is a more common phenomenon than the existence of other breeds of dogs. B lacks parallelism, and C and D are unidiomatic.
41. The correct answer is C. C presents the most idiomatic and clearest statement of the facts. A contains a subject-verb disagreement with “arguments … was.” B implies that the bond proposal, rather than the letters, was printed in the newspaper. D also has a subject-verb disagreement, because “series” is a collective noun and technically should take a singular verb, “series … puts forth” instead of “series … put forth”; the multiple possessives in D also make it awkward and hard to follow. The organization of information in E is confusing, and the passive construction leaves the natural subject of the sentence, the principal, as the object of a preposition at the end of the sentence. C is the best choice.
