Practice Test 1
The following practice exam tests your readiness for the PTCE. To best prepare, give yourself only 1 hour 50 minutes to complete the exam.
1. Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor?
A. atorvastatin
B. lisinopril
C. losartan
D. metoprolol
2. Which organization publishes a high-alert/high-risk medication list that pharmacies can use to develop their own list?
A. DEA
B. FDA
C. OSHA
D. ISMP
3. Heroin is which schedule of controlled substance?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
4. The first set of numbers in an NDC represent the
A. drug
B. manufacturer
C. package size
D. dosage
5. The generic for Coreg is
A. clonazepam
B. citalopram
C. carvedilol
D. fluoxetine
6. Which of the following is an NSAID?
A. clonazepam
B. meloxicam
C. tramadol
D. cyclobenzaprine
7. Bolded, uppercase letters designed to draw attention to the difference in drug names are known as
A. BCMA
B. tall man lettering
C. five rights
D. LASA
8. Which type of syringe is measured in both mL and units?
A. hypodermic
B. oral
C. tuberculin
D. insulin
9. Which schedule of controlled substance is Percocet?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
10. Topiramate and pregabalin are which type of medications?
A. antipsychotic
B. antihistamine
C. anticonvulsant
D. antiemetic
11. Keppra is the name brand for
A. tizanidine
B. cephalexin
C. rivaroxaban
D. levetiracetam
12. A patient has a prescription for 180mL. How many fl oz is this?
A. 3 fl oz
B. 4 fl oz
C. 5 fl oz
D. 6 fl oz
13. Which of the following would be used in nonsterile compounding to measure the volume of a liquid?
A. stirring rod
B. mortar and pestle
C. levigating agent
D. graduated cylinder
14. Which of the following can be a cause of a medication error?
A. human error
B. bar code scanning
C. tall man lettering
D. CPOE
15. Which of the following is one of the five rights of medication administration?
A. right route
B. right computer
C. right meal plan
D. right visitor
16. Temazepam is which schedule controlled substance?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
17. Which of the following is an antiparkinson agent?
A. aripiprazole
B. ropinirole
C. isosorbide
D. methotrexate
18. A prescriber writes an order for Lipitor 40mg PO HS. What might this be mistaken for?
A. discontinue Lipitor
B. Lipitor in the morning
C. Lipitor half strength
D. Lipitor every other day
19. Which gauge needle would be the smallest?
A. 18G
B. 21G
C. 25G
D. 30G
20. A patient has the following prescription:
2tsp PO QID × 5d
How much (in mL) is required to fill this prescription?
A. 50mL
B. 150mL
C. 200mL
D. 600mL
21. How many times can a prescription for hydrocodone with acetaminophen (Norco) be refilled?
A. as many times as issued by provider
B. two refills
C. no refills
D. up to 5 times within 6 months
22. Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
A. verapamil
B. benazepril
C. nebivolol
D. temazepam
23. Which of the following drugs must be identified with a sticker or segregated in the pharmacy?
A. MDIs
B. suspensions
C. high-alert medications
D. direct oral anticoagulants
24. Carbamazepine is the generic for
A. Bentyl
B. Lotrel
C. Topamax
D. Tegretol
25. Define the directions for the following prescription:
1 gtt AU TID × VII d
A. Instill one drop into each eye three times daily for 12 days.
B. Instill one drop into both ears four times daily for 4 days.
C. Instill one drop into the right eye three times daily for 6 days.
D. Instill one drop into both ears three times daily for 7 days.
26. A patient with bradycardia has a
A. slow heart rate
B. rapid heart rate
C. normal heart rate
D. large heart rate
27. DEA Form 222 is used for
A. theft or loss of a controlled substance
B. ordering Schedule I or II controlled substances
C. registration of a new DEA number
D. destruction of a controlled substance
28. A medication error that was caught before reaching the patient is a(n)
A. prescribing error
B. allergic reaction
C. near miss
D. adverse drug reaction
29. A patient fills a 60-day supply of a medication 2 times in 6 months. What is the adherence rate for this patient?
A. 67%
B. 35%
C. 70%
D. 90%
30. The FDA manages known patient safety issues of medications through which program?
A. CSOS
B. SDS
C. REMS
D. take back
31. Levofloxacin is which type of antibiotic?
A. penicillin
B. cephalosporin
C. tetracycline
D. fluoroquinolone
32. To be considered therapeutically equivalent, which of the following must be met?
A. The drugs must be produced by the same manufacturer.
B. The drugs must contain the same inactive ingredients.
C. The drugs must be the same dosage form, route of administration, and strength.
D. The drugs must go through complete clinical trials to demonstrate equivalency.
33. A VIS is given to patients in a pharmacy receiving a
A. new insurance card
B. vaccine
C. counseling session
D. new prescription
34. The process of mixing together powders of unequal sizes by adding the smallest quantity first and an equal amount of the larger quantity until the mixture is completed is known as
A. levigation
B. spatulation
C. geometric dilution
D. trituration
35. Which organization manages the REMS program?
A. DEA
B. FDA
C. USP
D. OSHA
36. A patient has the following prescription:
Novolin R Insulin 1,000 units/10mL
Inject 15 units subcutaneously in the morning and 25 units in the evening
How many vials will the patient need for a 30-day supply?
A. 1 vial
B. 2 vials
C. 3 vials
D. 4 vials
37. A patient has a prescription for amoxicillin suspension 125mg TID. The pharmacy has 150mL stock bottles of 125mg/5mL. How many doses can the patient get from one bottle?
A. 12 doses
B. 18 doses
C. 30 doses
D. 32 doses
38. Which medication has a narrow therapeutic index?
A. digoxin
B. loratadine
C. acetaminophen
D. rosuvastatin
39. A sweetened lozenge that helps medication dissolve slowly for local treatment to the mouth or throat is a
A. buccal tablet
B. ODT
C. SR capsule
D. troche
40. Which of the following would be an acceptable purchase under the CMEA?
A. 4 boxes of 90 tablets, 30mg pseudoephedrine in one day
B. 3 boxes of 20 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one day
C. 2 boxes of 30 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month
D. 3 boxes of 90 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month
41. A patient is admitted to the hospital and is currently prescribed Lotensin. The hospital uses a therapeutic substitution program. Which of the following could be substituted for Lotensin?
A. losartan
B. atorvastatin
C. metoprolol
D. lisinopril
42. Which drug requires REMS due to the potential for severe neutropenia?
A. tramadol
B. pseudoephedrine
C. clozapine
D. isotretinoin
43. If a medication is administered intrathecal, it is injected into the
A. cartilage
B. joint
C. artery
D. spinal column
44. Special instructions for diuretics include
A. may cause urinary retention
B. take in morning to avoid nighttime urination
C. avoid cough and cold agents
D. should be taken at least 30 minutes prior to eating
45. A Class II recall occurs when
A. the product can be used after the labeled expiration date
B. the product may cause a temporary health problem or slight threat
C. the product is unlikely to cause an issue
D. the product could cause serious health problems or death
46. A chronic condition is one in which an illness
A. has a rapid onset and short duration
B. has a known treatment and resolves quickly
C. causes death
D. persists for a long time
47. Which type of error occurs when there is a difference in what is prescribed and what is given to the patient?
A. administering
B. monitoring
C. prescribing
D. dispensing
48. A physician prescribes a medication for a 66 lb patient as 10mg/kg/day in three divided doses. The medication is available as 150mg/10mL. How many mL will be needed for one dose?
A. 1.5mL
B. 2.9mL
C. 4.2mL
D. 6.7mL
49. A patient has the following prescription:
Prednisone 10mg Take 6 tabs PO QD × 5 days, then 5 tabs PO QD × 4 days, then 4 tabs PO QD × 3 days, then 3 tabs PO QD × 2 days, then 2 tabs PO QD × 2 days, then 1 tab PO QD × 2 days.
How many 10mg tablets are required to fill this prescription?
A. 52 tabs
B. 56 tabs
C. 68 tabs
D. 74 tabs
50. A patient taking atorvastatin may have a drug–nutrient interaction if which nutrients from which drink are consumed?
A. milk
B. grapefruit juice
C. coffee
D. tea
51. Which of the following can treat both hypertension and BPH?
A. clonidine
B. terazosin
C. propranolol
D. verapamil
52. A pharmacy technician is compounding a medication that is light sensitive. The finished compound is not dispensed in a light-resistant container and the medication degrades. Which type of incompatibility is this?
A. physical
B. chemical
C. therapeutic
D. viscosity
53. A desiccant is packaged with medications to protect from degradation due to
A. light
B. moisture
C. air
D. chemical incompatibility
54. A dry cough is a side effect of which class of medications?
A. oral contraceptives
B. iron supplements
C. ACE inhibitors
D. statins
55. The Drug Supply Chain Security Act requires pharmacies to
A. inspect all manufacturers for product integrity issues
B. audit tax returns of manufacturers
C. verify licensing of wholesalers and registration of manufacturers
D. keep transaction data stored for 20 years
56. When conducting a root cause analysis, contributing factors include
A. punitive responses.
B. mistakes made by the patient.
C. conditions that may increase the probability of an adverse event.
D. the human error component.
57. A pharmacy technician drawing up 34 units into an insulin U-100 syringe has drawn up how many mL?
A. 0.034mL
B. 0.34mL
C. 3.4mL
D. 34mL
58. What volume of amoxicillin 400mg/5mL suspension is needed for a 375mg dose?
A. 24mL
B. 4.7mL
C. 12.8mL
D. 9.4mL
59. A nurse gives a medication as an IV push instead of a subcutaneous injection. This type of error would be considered a(n)
A. administering error
B. monitoring error
C. dispensing error
D. prescribing error
60. How many 2mg clonazepam tablets are required to prepare clonazepam 0.1mg/mL oral suspension with a total volume of 100mL?
A. 5 tabs
B. 7 tabs
C. 2 tabs
D. 12 tabs
61. An order is written for 250mL of a 3% solution. You have a 6% solution in stock. How much stock solution and how much diluent is needed to compound this order?
A. 135mL diluent is added to 115mL stock.
B. 200mL diluent is added to 50mL stock.
C. 125mL diluent is added to 125mL stock.
D. 152mL diluent is added to 98mL stock.
62. Clavulanate increases the action of amoxicillin to increase inhibition of bacterial growth. This is known as which type of drug–drug interaction?
A. additive
B. antagonistic
C. potentiated
D. synergistic
63. A patient with hypertension should avoid which of the following?
A. acetaminophen
B. spironolactone
C. pseudoephedrine
D. hydroxyzine
64. Reverse distribution occurs when
A. a prescription is reversed from the insurance and returned to stock
B. a medication is returned to the wholesaler for credit
C. expired or damaged medications are removed from a pharmacy and processed for credit
D. a pharmacy disposes of expired medications through drop boxes
65. An oral syringe has which type of tip?
A. Luer lock
B. filter
C. insulin
D. slip
66. An order is written for 1000mL of a 40% solution. You have a 50% solution in stock. How much stock solution and how much diluent is needed to compound this order?
A. 333mL diluent is added to 667mL stock.
B. 200mL diluent is added to 800mL stock.
C. 400mL diluent is added to 600mL stock.
D. 667mL diluent is added to 333mL stock.
67. Which of the following is indicated to treat hypertension and CHF?
A. nortriptyline
B. acyclovir
C. liraglutide
D. benazepril
68. Benzonatate and dextromethorphan could both be used for
A. relief of congestion
B. relief of cough
C. runny nose
D. allergic rhinitis
69. A pharmacist review of a prescription for drug interactions, allergies, contraindications, or compliance issue before and after dispensing is known as
A. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
B. drug utilization review
C. DSCSA
D. product integrity
70. Taking a prescription that is not prescribed to you or using a medication for a high is considered
A. overdosing
B. adherence
C. a therapeutic substitution
D. misuse
71. Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of type I diabetes?
A. metformin
B. pioglitazone
C. insulin lispro
D. glyburide
72. A patient is admitted to the hospital taking Januvia. Which of the following could be used as a therapeutic substitution?
A. metformin
B. glipizide
C. linagliptin
D. glimeperide
73. A contributing factor to ADEs can be if a patient is taking multiple drugs, often for the same disease. This is known as
A. ADR
B. Beers list
C. polypharmacy
D. VAERS
74. Temazepam is indicated for
A. insomnia
B. panic attacks and seizures
C. OCD and schizophrenia
D. depression
75. A pharmacy technician forgets to clean the counting tray after counting amoxicillin tablets. This left a powdery residue, which isn’t cleaned prior to counting the next patient’s medications. What might occur?
A. inappropriate polypharmacy
B. cross-contamination with the potential for patient harm
C. the patient could develop a tetracycline allergy
D. near miss
76. A HEPA filter in a horizontal or vertical flow hood must be certified every
A. 7 days
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 30 days
77. Which of the following is indicated for moderate dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease?
A. pregabalin
B. carbidopa-levodopa
C. dexmethylphenidate
D. memantine
78. A patient is suffering from regular insomnia and wants a natural remedy. What can be recommended for treatment?
A. aloe vera
B. chondroitin
C. melatonin
D. saw palmetto
79. In the buffer room, the ISO level must not be greater than
A. ISO class 9
B. ISO class 5
C. ISO class 8
D. ISO class 7
80. Which of the following PPE would be donned first when preparing for sterile compounding?
A. sterile gloves
B. gown
C. goggles
D. shoe covers
81. Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of gout?
A. methotrexate
B. allopurinol
C. celecoxib
D. naproxen
82. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis may be prescribed which of the following for treatment?
A. baclofen
B. diclofenac
C. allopurinol
D. brimonidine
83. A patient taking which of the following medications may experience flushing of the face and neck as a side effect?
A. canagliflozin
B. mirabegron
C. nitroglycerin
D. amoxicillin
84. A patient fills a 90-day supply of a medication 3 times in 9 months. What is the adherence rate for this patient?
A. 72%
B. 30%
C. 100%
D. 80%
85. A pharmacy technician is assisting a new patient to fill a prescription. The patient says they have no allergies at all. The pharmacy technician should document this as
A. NKA
B. NKDA
C. NTG
D. NPO
86. Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of breast cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and control of psoriasis?
A. timolol
B. adilumumab
C. menthol
D. methotrexate
87. Which of the following is a side effect of warfarin?
A. neuropathy
B. hypertension
C. photosensitivity
D. unexpected bleeding
88. A pharmacy technician is preparing to reconstitute azithromycin suspension. The patient asks how many days the suspension will be good for at room temperature. The pharmacy technician tells the patient
A. 10 days
B. 7 days
C. 28 days
D. expiration date on the bottle
89. Which of the following is exposed to air after opening and has a short stability?
A. MDV
B. ampule
C. SDV
D. epidural
90. A patient is prescribed a medication with the stem -gliptin. This patient has
A. hypertension
B. diabetes
C. CHF
D. depression
Practice Test 1 Answer Key
1. B
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor.
2. D
To help prevent errors, ISMP has developed a list of high-alert medications, which are drugs that may cause greater harm if used in error.
3. A
Heroin is a Schedule I controlled substance.
4. B
The first series of numbers is known as the labeler code, and represents the manufacturer, repackager, or distributor.
5. C
Carvedilol is the generic for Coreg.
6. B
Meloxicam is an NSAID.
7. B
Uppercase and bolded letters that are used to draw attention to the differences in each drug name are known as tall man lettering. This helps distinguish between two drugs that look or sound similar.
8. D
Insulin syringes are also used for patients with diabetes when administering insulin. These syringes hold 1mL or less, and are measured in both mL and insulin units.
9. B
Percocet is a Schedule II controlled substance.
10. C
Topiramate and pregabalin are both anticonvulsant medications.
11. D
Levetiracetam is the generic for Keppra.
12. D
6 fl oz.
13. D
A graduated cylinder is a tall, narrow container that has straight sides and is used for measuring liquids.
14. A
Medication errors can be caused by many factors, though some common causes can be: communication failures, failure in procedure, and human error.
15. A
The five rights are:
▪ Right patient
▪ Right drug
▪ Right dose
▪ Right route
▪ Right time
16. D
Temazepam is a Schedule IV controlled substance.
17. B
Ropinirole is an antiparkinson agent.
18. C
HS is the abbreviation for at bedtime but can be confused for half-strength.
19. D
30G. The size of the needle decreases as the gauge increases. This means the larger gauge value will also be the smallest needle.
20. C
200mL
2 tsp = 5mL × 2 = 10mL
QID = 4× daily = (10mL × 4) = 40mL daily
(40mL) × 5d = 200mL
21. C
Hydrocodone with acetaminophen is a Schedule II controlled substance, and refills are not permitted.
22. A
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker.
23. C
High-alert medications require a method of distinction to identify, such as a high-alert sticker, or be stored in a segregated area in the pharmacy.
24. D
Tegretol is the name brand of carbamazepine.
25. D
Instill one drop into both ears three times daily for 7 days.
1 gtt = 1 drop
AU = both ears
TID = 3× daily
VII d = for 7 days
26. A
Bradycardia is a slow heart rate. The prefix brady- is for slow, and cardio- is the root word for heart.
27. B
DEA Form 222 is used for ordering Schedule I or II controlled substances.
28. C
A near miss is a potential medication error that was caught before it reached the patient.
29. A
67%
30. C
Though medications must pass rigorous testing and clinical trials prior to FDA approval, some are approved or are later identified to require restrictions due to known patient safety issues. The FDA manages these through risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS). The manufacturer is required to develop a REMS program to accompany the new drug approval or after approval if the FDA identifies a need.
31. D
Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic.
32. C
For a drug to be considered therapeutically equivalent, the following must be demonstrated:
▪ Must contain the same active ingredient
▪ Must be the same dosage form, route of administration, and strength
▪ Clinical effect and safety profile are the same when administered to patients under same conditions as specified in labeling
▪ Bioequivalence is demonstrated
33. B
Pharmacy technicians can assist the pharmacist for patients requesting vaccines by completing documentation for the patient, including informed consent for the vaccine risks and supplying a vaccine information statement (VIS).
34. C
When mixing together powders that are of unequal size, geometric dilution is the process that can be used to ensure a well-mixed compound. In this process, the smallest amount of powder is added first and mixed with an equal amount of the powder in the larger quantity.
35. B
Though medications must pass rigorous testing and clinical trials prior to FDA approval, some are approved or are later identified to require restrictions due to known patient safety issues. The FDA manages these through risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS). The manufacturer is required to develop a REMS program to accompany the new drug approval or after approval if the FDA identifies a need.
36. B
2 vials.
37. C
30 doses.
38. A
Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index.
39. D
Lozenges or troches are another type of solid dosage form that are sweetened or flavored to help medication slowly dissolve locally to the throat or mouth.
40. C
2 boxes of 30 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month.
41. D
Lotensin (benazepril) can be therapeutically substituted by lisinopril as they are both ACE inhibitors.
42. C
Clozapine (Clozaril) is a medication used for the treatment of schizophrenia and has been associated with causing severe neutropenia.
43. D
Intrathecal injections are injected into the spinal column.
44. B
Diuretics should be taken in the morning to avoid urination at nighttime.
45. B
Class II recalls are those in which the product causes a temporary health problem or slight threat.
46. D
Chronic conditions are those in which an illness persists for a long time, such as months, years, or even the rest of your life, such as diabetes or hypertension.
47. D
A dispensing error is a difference in what was prescribed and what is dispensed to a patient.
48. D
6.7mL.
49. D
74 tabs
(6 tabs)(5 days) = 30 tabs
(5 tabs)(4 days) = 20 tabs
(4 tabs)(3 days) = 12 tabs
(3 tabs)(2 days) = 6 tabs
(2 tab)(2 days) = 4 tabs
(1 tab)(2 days) = 2 tab
30 + 20 + 12 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 74 tabs
50. B
A nutrient in grapefruit juice prevents the breakdown of statins and can lead to an increase in toxic accumulation.
51. B
Terazosin can treat both hypertension and BHP.
52. B
A chemical incompatibility could occur in a compound with a light-sensitive ingredient not stored in a light-resistant container. The light could cause a breakdown in the medication, causing a lack of effectiveness.
53. B
A desiccant is used as a drying agent. This absorbs any moisture that could potentially degrade the medication.
54. C
A side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough.
55. C
The Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA) was enacted in 2013 to help detect and remove counterfeit, stolen, or contaminated drugs from the US supply chain. Under the DSCSA, pharmacies must verify licensing of wholesalers and registration of manufacturers.
56. C
RCA identifies factors that may enhance the possibility of an error occurring. These are called contributing factors and can include circumstances or conditions that may increase the probability of an adverse event.
57. B
0.34mL.
58. B
4.7mL.
59. A
An administration error occurs when there is a difference in what the patient is administered and what was prescribed. This includes administering the wrong drug, the wrong dose, or at the wrong time.
60. A
5 tabs.
61. C
125mL diluent is added to 125mL stock.
This question also asks for quantity of diluent needed with the stock solution. This can be found by taking the final volume and subtracting the stock volume calculated.
250mL − 125mL = 125mL
125mL diluent is added to 125mL stock solution to get a final volume of 250mL.
62. C
A potentiated reaction occurs when two drugs given together cause an increase in duration of one of the drugs. Clavulanate potentiates the action of amoxicillin and increases inhibition of bacterial growth.
63. C
Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant and can increase blood pressure.
64. C
A reverse distributor processes expired or damaged drugs from a pharmacy and removes them to be returned back to the manufacturers for credit.
65. D
An injectable syringe should use a Luer lock so a needle can be screwed on the top, whereas an oral syringe has a flat or slip tip that a cap can slip onto.
66. B
200mL diluent is added to 800mL stock.
This question also asks for quantity of diluent needed with the stock solution. This can be found by taking the final volume and subtracting the stock volume calculated.
1,000mL − 800mL = 200mL
200mL diluent is added to 800mL stock solution to get a final volume of 1,000mL.
67. D
Benazepril is indicated to treat hypertension and CHF.
68. B
Benzonatate and dextromethorphan are both indicated for the relief of cough.
69. B
A pharmacist completes a DUR by reviewing a prescription for potential drug interactions, allergies, contraindications, and compliance issues. A DUR provides a comprehensive review of prescriptions and medication data before and after dispensing to ensure a positive outcome.
70. D
Misuse of a prescription is when a patient intentionally or unintentionally takes a medication outside of the prescribed directions. This could include taking a prescription that is not prescribed to you or using a medication for a high or euphoric feeling.
71. C
Insulin lispro is indicated for treatment of type I diabetes.
72. C
Januvia (sitagliptin) is a gliptin that can be therapeutically substituted with linagliptin.
73. C
Contributing factor to ADEs can be polypharmacy, or when a patient is taking multiple drugs, often for the same disease.
74. A
Temazepam is indicated for treatment of insomnia.
75. B
Counting trays should be cleaned with 70% isopropyl alcohol (IPA). Cleaning counting trays regularly helps prevent cross-contamination, which is the contamination of another medication due to residual residue left on a counting tray. Drugs that leave a powder on the tray can contaminate the next prescription if the tray is not cleaned in between prescriptions. This is especially true for medications that have allergy implications. For example, if a counting tray is not cleaned following the counting of amoxicillin, and a patient has a penicillin allergy, this could result in an allergic reaction if residue is on the tray when the next prescription is counted.
76. B
The HEPA filter must be certified every 6 months.
77. D
Memantine is indicated for moderate dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease.
78. C
Melatonin is a supplement used for insomnia.
79. D
In the buffer area, the air should be no higher than ISO class 7.
80. D
Here is the proper order of PPE donning for sterile compounding:
▪ Start by removing any jewelry, makeup, artificial nails or polish before donning PPE.
▪ Put on shoe covers.
▪ Don hair cover—including beard cover if needed.
▪ Put on a face mask or shield. A face shield or goggles are typically only required when compounding hazardous drugs.
▪ Perform hand hygiene.
▪ Don nonshedding gown over clean scrubs.
▪ Use surgical (alcohol-based) hand scrub prior to putting on gloves. Allow to dry.
▪ Don sterile gloves. Two pairs of chemotherapy gloves should be used if compounding a hazardous drug.
81. B
Allopurinol is indicated for the treatment of gout.
82. B
Diclofenac is indicated for rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and pain.
83. C
Nitroglycerin and other nitrates have a side effect of flushing of the face and neck.
84. C
100%.
85. A
If a patient has no known allergies, including all substances and drugs, this is NKA.
86. D
Methotrexate is indicated for treatment of breast cancer, control of psoriasis, treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, head and neck cancer, lymphoma, and osteosarcoma.
87. D
Warfarin may cause unexpected bleeding.
88. A
Azithromycin is stable for 10 days after reconstitution.
89. B
Ampules are also single use and do not contain a preservative. They are a glass container that is designed to be broken at the neck. The medication inside is removed using a filter needle, to protect against any residual glass that may have fallen in the contents. As soon as the ampule is open, it is exposed to air, and the stability is limited.
90. B
Linagliptin is an example of a drug with the stem -gliptin indicated for type II diabetes.