Practice Test 2
The following practice exam tests your readiness for the PTCE. To best prepare, give yourself only 1 hour 50 minutes to complete the exam.
1. Schedule I substances have
A. no accepted medical use
B. accepted medical use and high potential for abuse
C. the lowest potential for abuse
D. slight potential for abuse but less than oxycodone
2. The name brand of omeprazole is
A. Prilosec
B. Nexium
C. Prevacid
D. Protonix
3. The middle set of numbers in an NDC is known as the
A. product code
B. labeler code
C. package code
D. dosage code
4. High-alert/risk medications are drugs that
A. are all controlled substances
B. can be devastating if used in error
C. look like other drugs
D. have an error-prone abbreviation
5. Lantus is the name brand of which insulin?
A. insulin detemir
B. insulin aspart
C. insulin regular
D. insulin glargine
6. Which of the following is a beta blocker?
A. allopurinol
B. zolpidem
C. ranitidine
D. atenolol
7. Which of the following should always be used and comes before the decimal point?
A. trailing zero
B. leading zero
C. µg
D. AD, AS, AU
8. Other than a vial, what is another way that insulin can be dispensed for patient use?
A. lancet
B. glucometer
C. insulin pen
D. nebulizer
9. Which of the following schedules has the lowest potential for abuse?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
10. Which medication is an H2 antagonist?
A. famotidine
B. paroxetine
C. cetirizine
D. clonidine
11. Which of the following is a COX-2 inhibitor?
A. hydralazine
B. diclofenac
C. celecoxib
D. famotidine
12. A patient is receiving TPN in a 3L bag. How many mL is in this bag?
A. 0.003mL
B. 0.03mL
C. 3mL
D. 3,000mL
13. The package code of an NDC consists of how many digits (assuming an 11-digit format)?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
14. When filling prescriptions in a retail pharmacy what may be scanned to confirm the correct product has been selected?
A. bar code of the expiration date
B. bar code of the NDC
C. bar code of the manufacturer
D. bar code of the lot number
15. Which of the following is one of the five rights of medication administration?
A. right signature
B. right tubing
C. right drug
D. right insurance plan
16. Which of the following must be included on a prescription for a controlled substance?
A. patient’s Social Security number
B. prescriber NPI number
C. patient’s full address
D. prescriber’s Medicaid number
17. The generic for Valium is
A. lorazepam
B. clonazepam
C. alprazolam
D. diazepam
18. According to the ISMP, which of the following should be used instead of µg?
A. kg
B. grains
C. g
D. mg
19. A pharmacy technician is compounding a prescription and the mixture of powder and liquid does not fully dissolve. This is which type of liquid?
A. suspension
B. solution
C. syrup
D. suppository
20. A patient weighs 132 pounds. How many kg does this patient weigh?
A. 58.2kg
B. 94.2kg
C. 164.8kg
D. 290.4kg
21. If a Schedule II controlled substance is partially filled for a patient who is not in hospice or a long-term-care facility, the full prescription must be picked up within what time frame before a new prescription is needed?
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 7 days
D. 30 days
22. Oseltamivir is the generic for
A. Lotrel
B. Tamiflu
C. Tamsulosin
D. Digoxin
23. Medications that are recalled must be
A. sent back to the wholesaler
B. quarantined and removed from stock
C. dispensed immediately to patients
D. thrown away
24. Which of the following is an antifungal agent?
A. fluconazole
B. progesterone
C. terazosin
D. glyburide
25. Which of the following may be used during nonsterile compounding?
A. filter needle
B. conical cylinder
C. ampule
D. CSTD
26. A pulmonologist is one who
A. specializes in lungs
B. records the heart
C. examines the stomach
D. treats the brain
27. According to federal law, how many times can a prescription for clonazepam be refilled?
A. up to 5 times within 6 months
B. 12 times in 1 year
C. no refills
D. up to 5 times in 30 days
28. Medication errors, ADRs, and allergic reactions are all considered
A. high-alert
B. hazardous drugs
C. ADEs
D. overdoses
29. A patient fills a 30-day supply of a medication 1 time in 6 months. What is the adherence rate for this patient?
A. 33%
B. 50%
C. 17%
D. 60%
30. A program sponsored by the DEA that allows patients to dispose of unused medications safely is a
A. reverse distributor
B. credit rebill
C. take-back day
D. REMS
31. Which of the following is an antitussive agent?
A. benzonatate
B. timolol
C. pioglitazone
D. promethazine
32. Therapeutically equivalent drugs must
A. have the same NDC
B. demonstrate bioequivalence
C. have a B code
D. be produced by the same manufacturer
33. A handout for patients, which provides information on specific vaccines, including reactions to look for post-immunization is a
A. DUR
B. MedWatch
C. VAERS
D. VIS
34. Polyethylene glycol and petrolatum are bases that can be used to compound a(n)
A. ointment
B. elixir
C. enema
D. capsule
35. Which of the following drugs will require a medication guide to be dispensed?
A. atorvastatin
B. citalopram
C. lisinopril
D. albuterol
36. A patient has the following prescription:
Novolog Insulin 1,000 units/10mL
Inject 37 units subcutaneously immediate before meals 3 times daily
How many vials will the patient need for a 30-day supply?
A. 1 vial
B. 2 vials
C. 3 vials
D. 4 vials
37. A patient has a prescription for amoxicillin suspension 500mg Q12H × 7d. The pharmacy has 100mL stock bottles of 400mg/5mL. How many doses can the patient get from one bottle?
A. 4 doses
B. 9 doses
C. 14 doses
D. 16 doses
38. Which medication has a narrow therapeutic index?
A. lovastatin
B. ramipril
C. levothyroxine
D. levocetirizine
39. Which type of tablet dissolves in water and gives off carbon dioxide, causing a fizz?
A. sublingual
B. effervescent
C. film-coated
D. ODT
40. Which of the following would be an acceptable purchase under the CMEA?
A. 5 boxes of 20 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one day
B. 3 boxes of 30 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month
C. 6 boxes of 30 tablets, 30mg pseudoephedrine in one day
D. 3 boxes of 30 tablets, 240mg pseudoephedrine in one month
41. A patient attempts to fill a prescription for Nexium, but the insurance rejects the prescription saying a cheaper alternative must be tried first. Which of the following is a potential therapeutic substitution?
A. ranitidine
B. omeprazole
C. ezetimibe
D. rosuvastatin
42. The goal of the opioid REMS is to educate on
A. potential for birth defects
B. severe neutropenia
C. risk of bleeding
D. the risk of addiction, unintentional overdose, and death
43. Which of the following contain handling requirements of hazardous drugs and chemicals?
A. USP<797>
B. SDS
C. CMEA
D. iPLEDGE
44. Which medication has the following special instructions: Must be swallowed with 8 ounces plain water immediately after rising for the day and must be 30 minutes before first food, beverage, or medication of the day?
A. alendronate
B. prednisone
C. glimeperide
D. furosemide
45. A Class III recall occurs when the product
A. is unlikely to cause an issue
B. could cause serious health problems or death
C. may cause a temporary health problem or slight threat
D. is declared counterfeit
46. Which of the following is a long-acting insulin?
A. aspart
B. detemir
C. glargine
D. lispro
47. Which type of error occurs when an order is written for a drug known to be a contraindicated medication with the patient’s drug therapy?
A. monitoring
B. administering
C. prescribing
D. dispensing
48. A physician prescribes a medication as 2.4mcg/kg BID for a 9 lb baby. The medication is available as 25mcg/mL in a 50mL bottle. How much in mL is required for each dose?
A. 0.39mL
B. 0.48mL
C. 0.92mL
D. 1.4mL
49. A patient has the following prescription:
Prednisone 20mg. Take 3 tabs PO QD × 3 days, then 2 tabs PO QD × 3 days, then 1 tab PO QD × 3 days.
How many prednisone 20mg tab are required to fill this order?
A. 14 tabs
B. 18 tabs
C. 22 tabs
D. 30 tabs
50. Which of the following would cause an antagonistic drug–drug interaction with naloxone?
A. ibuprofen
B. aspirin
C. ketoconazole
D. oxycodone
51. Lansoprazole is indicated for the treatment of
A. Crohn’s disease
B. gastric ulcers and GERD
C. ulcerative colitis
D. vertigo and motion sickness
52. An interaction in which two or more substances cause a change in the properties of a drug and may often be unseen is which type of interaction?
A. physical
B. chemical
C. therapeutic
D. sublingual
53. A medication to be stored at room temperature should be stored in which range?
A. 20°C to 25°C
B. 2°C to 8°C
C. 86°F to 104°F
D. 46°F to 59°F
54. Muscle pain and dyspepsia is a side effect of which class of medications?
A. calcium channel blockers
B. statins
C. nitrates
D. H2 antagonists
55. The FDA uses information from MedWatch to
A. initiate recalls
B. send information to patients
C. take legal action against those who don’t report
D. develop safe drug lists
56. The process to identify the cause of an error through a comprehensive review of all workflows and systems is known as a
A. BCMA
B. RCA
C. DSCSA
D. MERP
57. A pharmacy technician drawing up 42 units into an insulin U-100 syringe has drawn up how many mL?
A. 42mL
B. 0.042mL
C. 4.2mL
D. 0.42mL
58. How many mg of cephalexin 250mg/5mL suspension is needed for a 0.5 tsp dose?
A. 125mg
B. 75mg
C. 25mg
D. 100mg
59. A patient is admitted to the hospital and the nurse misses her 9 PM doses. What type of error has occurred?
A. dispensing
B. prescribing
C. monitoring
D. administering
60. How many 90mg diltiazem tablets are needed to compound diltiazem 12mg/mL suspension with a total volume of 120mL?
A. 8 tabs
B. 24 tabs
C. 16 tabs
D. 13 tabs
61. An order is written for 100mL of a 23% solution. You have a 42% solution in stock. How much stock solution and how much diluent are needed to compound this order?
A. 84mL diluent is added to 16mL stock.
B. 45.2mL diluent is added to 54.8mL stock.
C. 36mL diluent is added to 64mL stock.
D. 28.4mL diluent is added to 71.6mL stock.
62. When two drugs are given together and have the same effect if each were taken separately, this is which type of drug interaction?
A. additive
B. antagonistic
C. potentiated
D. synergistic
63. Ethinyl estradiol and desogestrel may interact with which class of drugs?
A. antifungal agents
B. antibiotics
C. antiviral agents
D. statins
64. A credit return occurs when
A. an eligible drug is returned to the wholesaler for credit
B. a reverse distributor returns drugs to manufacturers for credit
C. a patient is credited the prescription and it is returned to stock
D. a pharmacy sends a medication back to the manufacturer directly
65. The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 requires most prescription and OTC drugs to be packaged in containers that are
A. light resistant
B. child resistant
C. moisture resistant
D. temperature resistant
66. A patient has an order for a medication for 6mg/m2. The patient has a BSA of 1.4m2. The medication is available as a 100mg/15mL vial. How many mL are needed per dose?
A. 0.8mL
B. 4.2mL
C. 9.6mL
D. 1.3mL
67. Adalimumab is indicated for the treatment of
A. nausea and vomiting
B. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis
C. vertigo and motion sickness
D. GERD
68. Which of the following is the indication for glipizide?
A. urinary retention
B. nausea and dizziness
C. headache
D. adjunct to diet and exercise for type II diabetes
69. A prospective DUR occurs
A. after the drug is dispensed as a review
B. only on refilled prescriptions
C. on prescriptions before they are dispensed
D. in physician offices
70. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be abused?
A. Norco
B. Naprosyn
C. Coreg
D. Aldactone
71. Which is the following is indicated for treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
A. levothyroxine
B. norethindrone
C. testosterone
D. alendronate
72. A patient has a prescription for diclofenac oral tablets. The insurance company requires a therapeutic substitution. Which of the following can be used as an alternative?
A. acetaminophen
B. meloxicam
C. tolterodine
D. zolpidem
73. The Beers list is a list of medications and drugs that may be inappropriate for which type of patient?
A. patients on anticoagulants
B. immunocompromised
C. pediatric
D. geriatric
74. Ropinirole is indicated for
A. insomnia
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease and restless leg syndrome
D. seizure disorder and migraines
75. Which of the following may occur if counting trays are not cleaned properly after counting high-residue medications?
A. cross-contamination
B. loss of product integrity
C. polypharmacy
D. adherence
76. In an ante room, the ISO level must not be greater than
A. ISO class 5
B. ISO class 8
C. ISO class 7
D. ISO class 6
77. Which of the following is used to treat iron deficiency anemia?
A. potassium
B. magnesium
C. ferrous sulfate
D. vitamin D
78. Saint John’s wort is a supplement that can be used for
A. depression and anxiety
B. arthritis
C. lowering cholesterol
D. BPH
79. USP<797> outlines standards for which of the following related to sterile compounding?
A. handling of hazardous drugs
B. reconstituting oral antibiotics
C. engineering controls for compounding equipment
D. expiration dating from manufacturer
80. Per USP<797>, cleaning walls, ceilings, and shelving should occur how frequently in a hospital clean room?
A. daily
B. yearly
C. monthly
D. weekly
81. A patient has been diagnosed with a UTI. Which of the following may be prescribed to treat the infection?
A. fluconazole
B. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
C. acyclovir
D. hydrocortisone
82. A patient has been prescribed nitrofurantoin. What is this indicated to treat?
A. herpes zoster
B. influenza
C. cystitis and bacteriuria
D. osteomyelitis
83. A fungal infection, such as thrush, is a side effect of which medication?
A. montelukast
B. cetirizine
C. fluticasone and salmeterol
D. omeprazole
84. A patient fills a 90-day supply of a medication 1 time in 9 months. What is the adherence rate for this patient?
A. 33%
B. 45%
C. 60%
D. 90%
85. A nurse disconnects tubing from a patient and it is visibly bloody. Where should the tubing be discarded?
A. in the trash
B. in the biohazard waste
C. chemotherapy waste
D. sharps container
86. Photosensitivity is a side effect of which medication?
A. doxycycline
B. finasteride
C. sumatriptan
D. atomoxetine
87. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of which of the following?
A. venlafaxine
B. citalopram
C. risperidone
D. clonazepam
88. A bottle of cephalexin is reconstituted for a patient prescription. How long will this bottle be stable if stored in the refrigerator?
A. 6 months
B. expiration date on the bottle
C. 14 days
D. 7 days
89. A medication ending in -sartan is which class of drugs?
A. beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. ARBs
D. diuretic
90. Which of the following drug classes often end in -vir?
A. corticosteroid
B. antibiotic
C. antiviral
D. antifungal
Practice Test 2 Answer Key
1. A
Schedule I controlled substances have no accepted medical use.
2. A
The name brand of omeprazole is Prilosec.
3. A
The second set of numbers is the product code. This identifies the product, including the drug strength and dosage form.
4. B
High-alert/risk drugs do not have a higher rate of error, but can be more devastating if used in error. ISMP publishes this high-alert list to help organizations identify which medications should have special strategies for error prevention, such as limiting access, using auxiliary labels, and standardizing ordering and preparation of these medications.
5. D
Lantus is the name brand of insulin glargine.
6. D
Atenolol is a beta blocker.
7. B
Leading zeros help minimize errors and should always be used. The leading zero comes before the decimal point, such as 0.7. If a leading zero is not used, .7 can be misread as 7 and a tenfold error could occur.
8. C
Newer forms of insulin are administered through an insulin pen, which is a prefilled cartridge that has a dial for measuring doses, instead of using a syringe and needle. Insulin pens use pen needles, which are smaller, often less painful, needles.
9. D
Schedule IV controlled substances have the lowest potential for abuse of Schedules I–IV.
10. A
Famotidine is an H2 antagonist.
11. C
Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor.
12. D
3,000mL.
(3)(1, 000) = 3, 000mL
13. A
The package code is the third set of numbers and is 2 digits.
14. B
When filling prescriptions in a pharmacy, the bar code of the correct NDC is scanned to confirm product selection.
15. C
The five rights are:
▪ Right patient
▪ Right drug
▪ Right dose
▪ Right route
▪ Right time
16. C
Prescriptions written for a controlled substance must follow DEA requirements before it can be filled by a pharmacy. The prescription must contain the following:
▪ Drug name
▪ Strength
▪ Dosage form
▪ Quantity prescribed (written out in word format, e.g., 10 tablets [ten])
▪ Directions for use
▪ Refills, if any authorized
▪ Date issued
▪ Patient’s full name
▪ Patient’s full address
▪ Prescriber’s full name
▪ Prescriber’s full address
▪ Prescriber’s DEA number
17. D
Diazepam is the generic for Valium.
18. D
Milligrams is abbreviated mg and the use of µg is considered dangerous.
19. A
A suspension is a powder with a specified amount of diluent added. The powder never fully dissolves, so it must be shaken before administration.
20. A
58.2kg.
21. B
If a pharmacy does not have enough medication to fill the entire prescription, a partial fill may be dispensed if the remaining quantity can be given within 72 hours. After these 72 hours, if the prescription has not been picked up or is not available from the pharmacy, the patient must get a new prescription.
22. B
Tamiflu is the name brand of oseltamivir.
23. B
Recalled medications must be quarantined and removed from stock and sent back to manufacturer.
24. A
Fluconazole is an antifungal agent.
25. B
A conical cylinder is cone-shaped (wider at the top than the bottom) and used for measuring liquid during nonsterile compounding.
26. A
Pulmonologist = pulmon/o is the root word for lungs and -ologist is the suffix for specialist.
27. A
Clonazepam is a Schedule IV controlled substance and can be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months.
28. C
Adverse drug events (ADE) occur when a medication causes harm to a patient. ADEs consist of medication errors, adverse drug reactions, allergic reactions, or overdose.
29. C
17%.
30. C
If a patient has an outdated or unused controlled substance, it may become dangerous if these unused drugs end up in the wrong hands. Patients can dispose of these medications through take-back programs. These are designated days throughout the country, which are sponsored by the DEA. A take-back day allows patients to dispose of unwanted medications safely and anonymously in a nearby location.
31. A
Benzonatate is an antitussive agent.
32. B
For a drug to be considered therapeutically equivalent, bioequivalence must be demonstrated. Bioequivalence means there is no significant difference in the rate at which the active ingredient is distributed in the body and available at the site of action.
33. D
The VIS provides information on the vaccine, including risks of a reaction, reporting procedures for post-immunization follow-up, who should get vaccinated, and information that patients should tell their healthcare provider.
34. A
Some examples of bases used in compounding ointments include:
▪ Petrolatum (Vaseline)
▪ Lanolin
▪ Paraffin
▪ Eucerin
▪ Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
35. B
Citalopram is an SSRI and requires a medication guide to be dispensed when filling a prescription.
36. C
3 vials.
37. D
16 doses.
38. C
Levothyroxine has a narrow therapeutic index.
39. B
Effervescent tablets dissolve in water and give off a fizz.
40. B
3 boxes of 30 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month.
(3)(30)(90) = 8,100mg = 8.1g which is under the 30 day limit of 9g
41. B
Nexium (esomeprazole) can be therapeutically substituted by omeprazole as they are both proton pump inhibitors.
42. D
This REMS helps identify the risks of opioids, including the risk of addiction, unintentional overdose, and death.
43. B
SDS contain handling requirements of hazardous drugs and chemicals. These documents are produced by the manufacturer of a chemical or drug if it is considered hazardous. OSHA requires specific information be included in a 16-section format for standardization. The first 8 sections contain information regarding the chemical, including safe handling practices, emergency control measures, and composition. The remaining sections contain other information such as physical or chemical properties and date of last revision.
44. A
Alendronate must be swallowed with 8 ounces plain water immediately after rising for the day and must be 30 minutes before first food, beverage, or medication of the day.
45. A
Class III recalls are those in which the products are unlikely to cause any reaction, but violate FDA labeling or manufacturing requirements.
46. A
Insulin aspart is a long-acting insulin.
47. C
Prescribing errors occur from the written order of a provider, either a prescription or a medication order. This includes errors in prescribed dosage or drug strength, quantity (excessive or insufficient) needed for drug therapy, route or dosage form, rate of infusion, or drug ordered. A prescribing error can also include omitting necessary refills or approving early refills that may alter appropriate therapy. Incorrect patient errors can also occur during prescribing, including writing an order for a medication to a patient with a known allergy or contraindication.
48. A
0.39mL.
49. B
18 tabs.
(3 tabs)(3 days) = 9 tabs
(2 tabs)(3 days) = 6 tabs
(1 tab)(3 days) = 3 tabs
9 + 6 + 3 = 18 tabs
50. D
Naloxone blocks the opioid receptors and inhibits the effect of oxycodone.
51. B
Lansoprazole is indicated for the treatment of gastric ulcers, healing of erosive esophagitis, and GERD.
52. B
A chemical incompatibility is a reaction between two or more substances, which causes a change in the chemical properties of a drug. Chemical incompatibilities are often unseen but can be observed through a temperature or color change due to oxidation.
53. A
20°C to 25°C is the range for controlled room temperature.
54. B
Statins may cause muscle pain and dyspepsia as a side effect.
55. A
The FDA uses information from MedWatch to initiate recalls, investigate manufacturers, or make recommendations on medications. Reporting is therefore crucial for patient safety, though there is no legal requirement to report adverse events.
56. B
An RCA is a process to find the “root cause” of a problem through a comprehensive review of all workflows and systems in place.
57. D
0.42mL.
58. A
125mg.
59. D
An omission error is also considered an administration error and occurs if a patient does not receive a medication at all.
60. C
16 tabs.
61. B
45.2mL diluent is added to 54.8mL stock.
This question also asks for quantity of diluent needed with the stock solution. This can be found by taking the final volume and subtracting the stock volume calculated.
100mL − 54.8mL = 45.2mL
54.8mL stock solution and 45.2mL of diluent to get a final volume of 100mL.
62. A
An additive drug interaction occurs when two drugs given together have the same effect if each were taken separately.
63. B
Antibiotics may lower the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
64. A
A credit return is a credit from the wholesaler to an invoice after sending back eligible drugs.
65. B
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA) requires most OTC and prescription drugs be packaged in containers that cannot be opened by 80% of children under five years old, but can be opened by 90% of adults.
66. D
1.3mL.
67. B
Adalimumab is indicated for the treatment of Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.
68. D
Glipizide is indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise for type II diabetes.
69. C
A DUR can be considered prospective (screening of medication before it is dispensed) or retrospective (ongoing review of claims data).
70. A
Norco is an opioid analgesic that is more likely to be abused than Naprosyn (NSAID), Coreg (beta blocker), or Aldactone (diuretic).
71. D
Alendronate is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
72. B
Diclofenac is an NSAID and can be therapeutically substituted with meloxicam.
73. D
The Beers list is published by the American Geriatrics Society and is a list of medications and drug classes that may be inappropriate for geriatric use.
74. C
Ropinirole is indicated for Parkinson’s disease and restless leg syndrome.
75. A
Cleaning counting trays regularly helps prevent cross-contamination, which is the contamination of another medication due to residual residue left on a counting tray.
76. B
In the ante area outside the buffer area, the air should be no higher than ISO class 8.
77. C
Ferrous sulfate is indicated for treatment of iron deficiency anemia.
78. A
Saint John’s wort is a supplement that can be used to treat depression and anxiety.
79. C
USP<797> provides standards and requirements on the following:
▪ Engineering controls for compounding equipment
▪ Training and competencies
▪ Certification requirements for hoods
▪ Beyond-use-dating
▪ Layout of facility
▪ Clean room design
▪ Environmental monitoring for potential contaminants
80. C
Hospital pharmacies, or those with a clean room, follow standards in USP<797>, which require monthly cleaning of walls, ceilings, and shelves that are in the buffer or ante room. This cleaning must be documented in a log each month.
81. B
Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim is indicated to treat UTI, otitis media, and traveler’s diarrhea.
82. C
Nitrofurantoin is indicated to treat cystitis and bacteriuria.
83. C
Fluticasone and salmeterol may cause thrush as a side effect.
84. A
33%.
85. B
Visibly bloody IV tubing should be discarded in the biohazard waste.
86. A
Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic and may cause photosensitivity as a side effect.
87. C
Risperidone is an antipsychotic that may cause tardive dyskinesia as a side effect.
88. C
Cephalexin is stable for 14 days if refrigerated after reconstitution.
89. C
ARBs end in -sartan.
90. C
Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir or valacyclovir, end in -vir.