Practice Test 4
The following practice exam tests your readiness for the PTCE. To best prepare, give yourself only 1 hour 50 minutes to complete the exam.
1. Which of the following is a corticosteroid?
A. montelukast
B. albuterol
C. fluticasone
D. hydrochlorothiazide
2. Which of the following would be considered by the ISMP to be high risk/alert?
A. fluoxetine
B. ranitidine
C. amoxicillin
D. insulin
3. Adderall is which schedule controlled substance?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
4. The third set of numbers in an NDC is known as the
A. product code
B. package code
C. labeler code
D. drug code
5. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
A. alprazolam
B. escitalopram
C. prednisone
D. pravastatin
6. The generic for Fosamax is
A. latanoprost
B. alendronate
C. budesonide
D. spironolactone
7. Which of the following is the appropriate way to write two milligrams?
A. 2.0mg
B. 2mcg
C. 2mg
D. 2.0mcg
8. A 13% w/v solution has how many mg of active ingredient?
A. 0.013mg
B. 13mg
C. 130mg
D. 13,000mg
9. Schedule III controlled substances have
A. no accepted medical use
B. high abuse potential
C. low to moderate abuse potential
D. no abuse potential
10. Which of the following is a direct oral anticoagulant?
A. sumatriptan
B. amitriptyline
C. apixaban
D. quetiapine
11. Keflex is which type of antibiotic?
A. penicillin
B. cephalosporin
C. tetracycline
D. fluoroquinolone
12. How many grams are in 450mL of a 7% solution?
A. 18.4g
B. 22.8g
C. 31.5g
D. 42.9g
13. Which of the following is a tool with a rounded end that is used to crush tablets into powder?
A. pestle
B. mortar
C. beaker
D. spatula
14. Which of the following is a benefit of BCMA?
A. Nurses have to scan medications in emergent situations.
B. Scanning the bar code at bedside alerts the retail pharmacy to fill the prescription.
C. The nurse does not need to complete five rights if scanning.
D. Medications are confirmed prior to administration.
15. Which of the following is one of the five rights of medication administration?
A. right pharmacy
B. right tubing
C. right insurance
D. right time
16. Zolpidem is which schedule controlled substance?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
17. The generic for Intuniv is
A. methylphenidate
B. guanfacine
C. mirtazapine
D. docusate
18. A prescription has been written for APAP 500mg PO TID PRN. The pharmacy technician is unsure what this abbreviation is. The provider should be called to confirm the drug is
A. acetaminophen
B. magnesium sulfate
C. aspirin
D. hydrochlorothiazide
19. Which of the following is a syringe tip and has a threading mechanism used for attaching needles securely?
A. slip tip
B. Luer lock
C. plunger
D. shaft
20. How many grams of active ingredient are in 35mL of a 17% solution?
A. 2.45g
B. 5.95g
C. 6.82g
D. 10.4g
21. How many times can a prescription for testosterone be refilled?
A. up to 5 times within 6 months
B. as many as issued by the provider
C. no refills
D. 12 times in 1 year
22. Baclofen is the generic for
A. Lioresal
B. Zetia
C. Altace
D. Diovan
23. Which of the following medications would not be stocked in the fast mover section of a pharmacy inventory?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. LASA drugs
C. antibiotic suspensions
D. statins
24. The generic of Tradjenta is
A. lansoprazole
B. glyburide
C. linagliptin
D. cefdinir
25. What does QS mean in the following prescription?
1. Crush tablets to a fine powder.
2. Add a small amount of water and mix well.
3. QS to 100mL with distilled water.
A. stir rapidly
B. mix gently
C. sufficient quantity
D. allow to disintegrate
26. A patient is admitted to the hospital with the diagnoses of HTN, CHF, and COPD. What is this patient suffering from?
A. headache, coronary artery disease, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
B. hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
C. heart attack, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
D. hypertension, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
27. DEA Form 41 is used for
A. theft or loss of a controlled substance
B. ordering Schedule I or II controlled substances
C. registration of a new DEA number
D. destruction of a controlled substance
28. An unwanted and undesirable effect of a medication that occurs during the standard clinical use or dose is a(n)
A. near miss
B. ADR
C. medication error
D. monitoring error
29. A patient fills a 30-day supply of a medication 5 times in 9 months. What is the adherence rate for this patient?
A. 72%
B. 42%
C. 56%
D. 95%
30. REMS is a program designed to
A. inform patients of safety concerns or specific practices for safe use of certain medications
B. allow patients to return unused medications safely
C. help report opioid prescriptions
D. inform healthcare workers of safe disposal methods
31. Which of the following TE codes represents extended-release dosage forms of which bioequivalence data are not submitted?
A. AB
B. AP
C. BC
D. CE
32. The generic of Cleocin is
A. norethindrone
B. gemfibrozil
C. clindamycin
D. ezetimibe
33. VAERS is used as a reporting system for which of the following?
A. anticoagulants
B. medical devices
C. vaccines
D. insulin
34. Which of the following can be compounded using the punch method?
A. suppository
B. capsule
C. elixir
D. enema
35. Which of the following are designed to reduce the frequency and severity of adverse events of FDA approved medications by informing patients of safety concerns of specific medications?
A. USP<797>
B. REMS
C. unit of use
D. OSHA
36. A patient has the following prescription:
Novolin 70/30 Insulin 1,000 units/10mL
Inject 30 units subcutaneously twice daily before meals
How many vials will the patient need for a 30-day supply?
A. 2 vials
B. 3 vials
C. 4 vials
D. 5 vials
37. How much active ingredient is required to make 75mL of a 0.3% solution?
A. 22.25g
B. 2.25mg
C. 26.25mg
D. 60.5g
38. Which medication has a narrow therapeutic index?
A. cetirizine
B. ondansetron
C. amoxicillin
D. warfarin
39. If a medication is administered intra-articular, it is injected into the
A. cartilage
B. joint
C. artery
D. spinal column
40. Which of the following drugs will require a medication guide to be dispensed?
A. rosuvastatin
B. valsartan
C. naproxen
D. amoxicillin
41. Which of the following would be an acceptable purchase under the CMEA?
A. 4 boxes of 10 tablets, 30mg pseudoephedrine in one day
B. 3 boxes of 90 tablets, 60mg pseudoephedrine in one day
C. 5 boxes of 30 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month
D. 2 boxes of 90 tablets, 90mg pseudoephedrine in one month
42. In order to dispense, prescribe and take isotretinoin, pharmacies, providers, and patients must all participate in which REMS?
A. Clozaril
B. iPLEDGE
C. CMEA
D. thalidomide
43. A drug administered over a quick period, often to bring a blood concentration to a therapeutic level quickly, is known as an
A. IV piggybck
B. IV bolus
C. IA
D. intrathecal
44. Olmesartan, an ARB, can be therapeutically substituted by which of the following?
A. Accupril
B. Coreg
C. Prinivil
D. Cozaar
45. Special instructions for laxatives and stool softeners include
A. may cause insomnia
B. rinse mouth after administration
C. may cause photosensitivity
D. drink plenty of water to avoid dehydration
46. Which of the following is an example of an acute condition?
A. diabetes
B. sinus infection
C. hypertension
D. hyperlipidemia
47. A pharmacy technician accidentally fills a prescription for bupropion SR instead of XL. The pharmacist does not catch the error, and the patient picks up the incorrect prescription. Which type of error has occurred?
A. dispensing
B. prescribing
C. monitoring
D. administering
48. A prescriber writes an order for 2.5mg/kg for a 42kg patient. How many grams will be in each dose?
A. 0.05g
B. 0.105g
C. 150g
D. 175.5g
49. A patient has the following prescription:
Prednisone 10mg. Take 5 tabs PO QD × 5 days, then 4 tabs PO QD × 4 days, then 3 tabs PO QD × 3 days, then 2 tabs PO QD × 2 days, then 1 tab PO QD × 2 days.
How many 10mg tablets are required to fill this prescription?
A. 52 tabs
B. 56 tabs
C. 62 tabs
D. 64 tabs
50. Taking aspirin and warfarin together can cause excessive bleeding. This is which type of drug–drug interaction?
A. additive
B. antagonistic
C. synergistic
D. potentiated
51. Which of the following medications is indicated as an adjunctive therapy for reduction in total cholesterol?
A. ezetimibe
B. nifedipine
C. nebivolol
D. chlorthalidone
52. Two medications are mixed together and a precipitate forms. This is an example of which type of incompatibility?
A. chemical
B. therapeutic
C. clinical
D. physical
53. A drug that must be stored in the freezer should be within which temperature range?
A. −13°F to 14°F
B. 30°C to 40°C
C. 36°F to 46°F
D. 8°C to 15°C
54. Fatigue is a side effect of which medication?
A. metoprolol
B. prednisone
C. albuterol
D. methylphenidate
55. What three components of transactions must be stored for 6 years to provide tracking information under the DSCSA?
A. transaction logs, transaction data, and transaction documentation
B. transaction information, transaction history, and transaction statement
C. transaction statement, transaction audits, and transaction licensing
D. transaction history, transaction registration, and transaction licensing
56. A root cause analysis is designed to
A. allow one person to conduct a thorough investigation
B. recognize the problem and develop a way to prevent recurrence
C. identify the problem only
D. determine the punitive response needed
57. A pharmacy technician drawing up 74 units into an insulin U-100 syringe has drawn up how many mL?
A. 0.74mL
B. 7.4mL
C. 0.074mL
D. 74mL
58. What volume of amoxicillin 125mg/5mL suspension is needed for a 275mg dose?
A. 15mL
B. 7.5mL
C. 24mL
D. 11mL
59. Pharmacists who review lab results may help prevent which type of error?
A. dispensing
B. prescribing
C. administering
D. monitoring
60. How many 100mg atenolol tablets are needed to prepare atenolol 2mg/mL oral suspension and a final volume of 250mL?
A. 9 tabs
B. 15 tabs
C. 5 tabs
D. 2 tabs
61. An order is written for 50mL of a 10% solution. You have a 25% solution in stock. How much stock solution and how much diluent is needed to compound this order?
A. 30mL diluent is added to 20mL stock
B. 41.2mL diluent is added to 8.8mL stock
C. 6mL diluent is added to 44mL stock
D. 35.5mL diluent is added to 14.5mL stock
62. Which type of interaction occurs when a patient’s condition alters the properties of the drug, such as excretion or metabolism?
A. drug–laboratory
B. drug–disease
C. drug–nutrient
D. drug–dietary supplement
63. A patient has an allergy to penicillin antibiotics. Which of the following could be an alternative for treatment of a bacterial infection?
A. amoxicillin
B. azithromycin
C. valacyclovir
D. ampicillin
64. Which of the following attaches to the end of a MDI so the medication can stay within the chamber for inhalation?
A. nebulizer
B. spacer
C. lancet
D. nebule
65. A steroid dose pack, which includes a full course of therapy in one pack, is considered
A. repackaged
B. unit dose
C. unit-of-use
D. bulk supply
66. Prepare 50 grams of 6% gabapentin cream using 20% gabapentin base and an inert cream base. How many grams of each are required to compound this order?
A. 16g of the cream base and 34g of the 20%
B. 4g of the cream base and 46g of the 20%
C. 35g of the cream base and 15g of the 20%
D. 12g of the cream base and 38g of the 20%
67. Docusate is indicated for
A. diarrhea
B. constipation
C. nausea and vomiting
D. migraine
68. Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of COPD?
A. mometasone
B. loratadine
C. tiotropium
D. benzonatate
69. Through which review would an allergy alert be identified?
A. therapeutic interchange
B. retrospective DUR
C. claims review
D. prospective DUR
70. A patient asks a pharmacy technician for recommendation for their itchy throat. The pharmacy technician should
A. ask the pharmacist to assist the customer
B. tell the customer which works best
C. advise the customer that they can’t help them
D. show the customer to the allergy section since that is most likely what the issue is
71. A patient is suffering from anxiety and panic disorder. Which medication could be used as treatment?
A. alprazolam
B. citalopram
C. amitriptyline
D. trazodone
72. A patient is taking nebivolol upon hospital admission. Which of the following could be therapeutically substituted?
A. Coreg
B. Prinivil
C. Diovan
D. Zantac
73. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be misused or abused?
A. metoprolol
B. epinephrine
C. lovastatin
D. alprazolam
74. Which of the following is indicated for depression, OCD, bulimia, and panic disorder?
A. lithium
B. quetiapine
C. gabapentin
D. fluoxetine
75. Which of the following is important to use for cleaning counting trays after counting medications that have high allergy implications, such as a penicillin antibiotic?
A. ammonia
B. distilled water
C. 0.5% sodium hypochlorite
D. 70% IPA
76. If the PEC (laminar or vertical) has been shut off at any time, how long must it run for prior to use?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 10 minutes
D. It can be used immediately after turning on.
77. ADHD and narcolepsy can be treated with
A. sumatriptan
B. dextroamphetamine and amphetamine
C. tamsulosin
D. mirabegron
78. Latanoprost is indicated for
A. conjunctivitis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. elevated intraocular pressure
D. ophthalmic infections
79. Cleaning of the hood should occur at what times?
A. only if a spill occurs
B. beginning of every shift and for all spills
C. beginning of every shift, every 30 minutes while batching, and if a spill occurs
D. end of the day and if a spill occurs
80. Which of the following is the last item to be garbed prior to compounding?
A. shoe covers
B. face mask
C. gown
D. sterile gloves
81. Cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, and tizanidine can all be used to treat
A. osteoarthritis
B. migraine
C. insomnia
D. muscle spasm
82. Tramadol is indicated for the treatment of
A. narcolepsy
B. moderate to severe pain
C. alcohol withdrawal
D. tetanus and muscle spasm
83. Nervousness and insomnia may be a side effect of which medication?
A. ethinyl estradiol and desogestrel
B. dextromethorphan
C. insulin glargine
D. albuterol
84. A patient fills a 30-day supply of a medication 4 times in 6 months. What is the adherence rate for this patient?
A. 67%
B. 30%
C. 100%
D. 80%
85. Which of the following prevents the spread of illness and maintains cleanliness in the pharmacy?
A. cleaning counting trays
B. garbing PPE
C. good hand hygiene
D. cleaning the hoods every 30 minutes
86. Constipation, nausea, and vomiting are side effects of which medication?
A. oxycodone
B. aspirin
C. mupirocin
D. fluconazole
87. Which of the following can be used for more than one dose?
A. ampule
B. SDV
C. MDV
D. enema
88. A patient has a prescription for Augmentin suspension. The medication is reconstituted in the pharmacy. How many days is the Augmentin stable after reconstituting?
A. 14 days
B. 10 days
C. 3 days
D. 6 months
89. Which of the following has a preservative to help prevent growth of microbials?
A. epidural
B. ampules
C. SDV
D. MDV
90. Which class of drugs end in -prazole?
A. antiulcer agent—proton pump inhibitor
B. antiulcer agent—histamine (H2) antagonist
C. monoclonal antibody
D. antiemetic
Practice Test 4 Answer Key
1. C
Fluticasone is a corticosteroid.
2. D
Insulin is on the ISMP high-alert/risk medication list for both subcutaneous and IV infusions.
3. B
Adderall is a Schedule II controlled substance.
4. B
The last set of numbers is the package code. This describes the package’s size and type.
5. B
Escitalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
6. B
Alendronate is the generic for Fosamax.
7. C
2mg. Trailing zeros should never be used when writing doses.
8. D
13,000mg
w/v = g/100mL
134 = 13g
(13)(1,000) = 13,000mg
9. C
Schedule III controlled substances have low to moderate abuse potential.
10. C
Apixaban is a direct oral anticoagulant.
11. B
Keflex is a cephalosporin antibiotic.
12. C
31.5g.
13. A
A mortar is a bowl and a pestle is a tool with a rounded end that is used for crushing and grinding.
14. D
The patient’s medications are scanned and documented in the medication administration record (MAR) and confirmed prior to administration. The bar code of the manufacturer label or pharmacy label is scanned to confirm correct product selection. If the wrong medication is scanned, an alert will notify the nurse that there is a problem. BCMA should not take the place of the five rights, but help support medication safety.
15. D
The five rights are:
▪ Right patient
▪ Right drug
▪ Right dose
▪ Right route
▪ Right time
16. D
Zolpidem is a Schedule IV controlled substance.
17. B
Guanfacine is the generic for Intuniv.
18. A
APAP is a confusing abbreviation for acetaminophen and should not be used.
19. B
Luer-lock syringes have a threading mechanism that allows a needle to screw on tight and prevent it from falling off.
20. B
5.95g.
21. A
Testosterone is a Schedule III controlled substance and can be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months.
22. A
Lioresal is the name brand of baclofen.
23. B
For medication safety, use signing programs that draws attention to LASA drugs and high-risk/alert medications, such as stickers or separate inventory and avoid stocking LASA drugs in “fast mover” sections.
24. C
Linagliptin is the generic for Tradjenta.
25. C
QS means to add sufficient quantity to reach the final volume of 100mL.
26. D
This patient is suffering from hypertension, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder.
HTN = hypertension
CHF = congestive heart failure
COPD = chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
27. D
DEA Form 41 is used for destruction of a controlled substance.
28. B
An adverse drug reaction (ADR) is an unwanted and undesirable effect of a medication that occurs during the standard clinical use or dose.
29. C
56%
30. A
REMS are designed to reduce the frequency and severity of adverse events by informing patients of safety concerns or requiring specific practices for safe use.
31. C
TE Code BC represents extended release dosage forms with no bioequivalence data submitted.
32. C
Clindamycin is the generic for Cleocin.
33. C
Any concerns reported by patients for vaccines should be reported to the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS). This system is designed to detect possible problems with US vaccines.
34. B
To compound capsules, a capsule-filling machine can be used, or the punch method. The punch method is used for a smaller quantity. In this method, the height of the active ingredient powder is the same height as the capsule base. The pharmacy technician compounding can then punch the capsule into this powder, which will fill the entire base.
35. B
REMS are designed to reduce the frequency and severity of adverse events by informing patients of safety concerns or requiring specific practices for safe use.
36. A
2 vials.
37. B
2.25mg.
38. D
Warfarin has a narrow therapeutic index.
39. B
Intra-articular route is injected into a joint.
40. C
Naproxen is an NSAID and requires a medication guide to be dispensed when filling a prescription.
41. A
4 boxes of 10 tablets, 30mg pseudoephedrine in one day.
42. B
The REMS program for isotretinoin is known as iPLEDGE. The goal of this REMS to prevent fetal exposure and inform pharmacist, providers and patients of the potential for teratogenic effects.
43. B
IV bolus is administering a drug over quick period often to bring a patient’s blood concentration to a therapeutic level quickly (loading dose).
44. D
Olmesartan is an ARB that can be therapeutically substituted to Cozaar (losartan).
45. D
Special instructions for laxatives and stool softeners include drinking plenty of water to avoid dehydration.
46. B
Acute conditions are those with a rapid onset and quick resolution, such as a cold or viral infection.
47. A
A dispensing error is a difference in what was prescribed and what is dispensed to a patient. Dispensing errors can be caused by anyone involved in this process, including both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians. It can result from a wrong product selection, including wrong strength or dosage form.
48. B
0.105g.
49. B
56 tabs.
(5 tabs)(5 days) = 25 tabs
(4 tabs)(4 days) = 16 tabs
(3 tabs)(3 days) = 9 tabs
(2 tabs)(2 days) = 4 tabs
(1 tab)(2 days) = 2 tabs
25 + 16 + 9 + 4 + 2 = 56 tabs
50. C
Because aspirin and warfarin together have a greater effect than when each is taken separately, this would be considered a synergistic interaction.
51. A
Ezetimibe is indicated as an adjunctive therapy for reducing total cholesterol.
52. D
A physical incompatibility is the interaction of two or more substances, which results in a change in color, odor, taste, viscosity, or physical structure. An example of this would be a precipitate forming when two substances are mixed that are incompatible.
53. A
−13°F to 14°F is the temperature range for freezer storage.
54. A
Metoprolol is a beta blocker and a side effect of beta blockers is fatigue. Beta blockers slow the heart rate, and fatigue or drowsiness is a possible side effect.
55. B
All drugs must be accompanied by transaction information (TI), transaction history (TH), and a transaction statement (TS), and these must be stored for 6 years to provide tracking information.
56. B
An RCA is a process to find the “root cause” of a problem through a comprehensive review of all workflows and systems in place. This will then not only identify the problem, but help develop a way to prevent it from occurring again. Not all errors have one root cause, and a RCA can help identify additional causes if there is more than one. A RCA should be conducted in a team approach. It is typically more beneficial to have the team be consisting of those who were not involved in the original error itself, but familiar with the workflows, processes, and procedures in the area it occurred.
57. A
0.74mL.
58. D
11mL.
59. D
Preventing monitoring errors start with proper training of providers on the potential negative effects of medications, which may indicate toxicity. Providers must also be trained in understanding monitoring methods, such as through vital signs and evaluating lab results, this includes pharmacists. Pharmacists often review lab results prior to initiating drug therapy, such as chemotherapy.
60. C
5 tabs.
61. A
30mL diluent is added to 20mL stock.
This question also asks for quantity of diluent needed with the stock solution. This can be found by taking the final volume and subtracting the stock volume calculated.
50mL − 20mL = 30mL
20mL stock solution and 30mL of diluent get a final volume of 50mL.
62. B
Drug–disease interaction occurs when a patient’s disease alters the ADME properties of the drug, such as metabolism and excretion.
63. B
Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and can be taken when a patient has an allergy to penicillin.
64. B
A spacer attaches to the end of the MDI so the aerosolized medication stays within the chamber, and then the patient breathes into the other end of the spacer to absorb more of the drug.
65. C
Unit-of-use packaging is packaging that allows for a medication to be dispensed directly to a patient without any manipulation except applying a label.
66. C
35g of the cream base and 15g of the 20%.
Total parts = 20
20% gabapentin
15 grams of the 20% gabapentin is needed.
Cream base
35g of the cream base is needed.
67. B
Docusate is a stool softener indicated for treating constipation.
68. C
Tiotropium is indicated to treat COPD.
69. D
Prospective DUR identify issues such as
▪ Therapeutic duplication
▪ Drug–disease interaction
▪ Drug–drug interaction
▪ Inappropriate prescribing, such as incorrect dosage, frequency, or duration
▪ Recommendations for substitutions and therapeutic interchange
▪ Allergies
▪ Misuse or abuse of a medication
▪ Appropriateness of medication for patient
▪ Pregnancy alert
70. A
Pharmacy technicians can assist in selection of OTC products by answering any nonclinical questions, asking the pharmacist for assistance, and helping patients locate specific products.
71. A
Alprazolam is indicated for the treatment of anxiety and panic disorder.
72. A
Nebivolol is a beta blocker and can be therapeutically substituted with Coreg (carvedilol).
73. D
Alprazolam is a sedative (benzodiazepine) that is frequently abused and is more likely to be abused than a beta blocker (metoprolol), epinephrine, or a statin (lovastatin).
74. D
Fluoxetine is indicated for the treatment of depression, OCD, bulimia, and panic disorder.
75. D
Counting trays should be cleaned with 70% isopropyl alcohol (IPA). Cleaning counting trays regularly helps prevent cross-contamination, which is the contamination of another medication due to residual residue left on a counting tray. Drugs that leave a powder on the tray can contaminate the next prescription if the tray is not cleaned in between prescriptions. This is especially true for medications that have allergy implications. For example, if a counting tray is not cleaned following the counting of amoxicillin, and a patient has a penicillin allergy, this could result in an allergic reaction if the residue remains on the tray when the next prescription is counted.
76. A
If the PEC has been shut off at any time, it should be turned on and left to run for 30 minutes prior to use.
77. B
Dextroamphetamine and amphetamine are indicated to treat ADHD and narcolepsy.
78. C
Latanoprost is indicated for elevated intraocular pressure.
79. C
Cleaning of the hood should be done at the beginning of every shift, every 30 minutes, or before every batch and if a spill occurs.
80. D
Here is the proper order of PPE donning for sterile compounding:
▪ Start by removing any jewelry, makeup, artificial nails or polish before donning PPE.
▪ Put on shoe covers.
▪ Don hair cover including beard cover if needed.
▪ Put on a face mask or shield. A face shield or goggles are typically only required when compounding hazardous drugs.
▪ Perform hand hygiene.
▪ Don nonshedding gown over clean scrubs.
▪ Use surgical (alcohol-based) hand scrub prior to putting on gloves. Allow to dry.
▪ Don sterile gloves. Two pairs of chemotherapy gloves should be used if compounding a hazardous drug.
81. D
Cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, and tizanidine are all muscle relaxants indicated for the treatment of muscle spasm.
82. B
Tramadol is indicated for the treatment of moderate to severe pain.
83. D
Albuterol may cause nervousness, insomnia and palpitations.
84. A
67%.
85. C
Good handwashing and hand hygiene prevents the spread of illness and also helps maintain cleanliness within a pharmacy.
86. A
Oxycodone and other narcotic analgesics may cause constipation, nausea, and vomiting
87. C
A MDV or multidose vial can be used for more than one dose.
88. B
Augmentin suspension is good for 10 days after reconstitution.
89. D
MDVs do contain a preservative, and this prevents the growth of microbials. MDVs, once opened, typically have a BUD of 28 days.
90. A
Antiulcer agent proton pump inhibitor has the stem -prazole such as esomeprazole, lansoprazole, and omeprazole.