43. An example of a country with a population pyramid that has a large base is
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) Nigeria
(D) United States
(E) Russia
44. The demographic transition model suggests that as countries industrialize
(A) in-migration increases over time
(B) migration increases from rural to urban areas
(C) birth and death rates decrease over time
(D) life expectancy decreases over time
(E) fertility rates increase over time
45. The first stage of the demographic transition model indicates that
(A) total population is low and constant with high birth rates and low death rates
(B) total population is low and constant with low birth rates and high death rates
(C) total population is increasing with high birth rates and low death rates
(D) total population is low and constant with high birth rates and high death rates
(E) total population is low and constant with low birth rates and low death rates
46. Which of the following is not a contributing factor to the low birth rates in stage four of the demographic transition model?
(A) Less dependence on child labor
(B) Reliance on subsistence agriculture
(C) The education of women
(D) Availability of health care
(E) Increased sanitation
47. According to Thomas Malthus’s population theory, which of the following is a preventive check on population?
(A) Famine
(B) Disease
(C) War
(D) Moral restraint
(E) Disaster
48. Which of the following population control examples did Thomas Malthus support?
(A) The upper class utilizing moral restraint to limit family size
(B) The upper class paying additional taxes to fund family planning and cleanliness education for the lower class
(C) Equitably distributing food among all citizens regardless of wealth during times of famine
(D) Relocating cities and towns away from stagnant pools and marshy lands to promote better health among all citizens
(E) Widening city streets in low-income neighborhoods to reduce over-crowding and the spread of disease
49. Which of the following countries contains three megacities, the most of any nation?
(A) Brazil
(B) United States
(C) China
(D) India
(E) Mexico
50. China’s one-child policy is an example of what theory?
(A) Maximum population theory
(B) Ideal population theory
(C) Optimum population theory
(D) Select population theory
(E) Population theory
51. Which of the following is not a result of overpopulation?
(A) Squatter settlements in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Low unemployment rates in Tokyo
(C) Deforestation in Madagascar
(D) Overcrowding in Mumbai
(E) Lack of access to food in Manila
52. Which of the following regions has the highest rate of natural increase?
(A) Sub-Saharan Africa
(B) North America
(C) Australia
(D) Europe
(E) Russian Domain
53. Arithmetic population density can be calculated by
(A) total land area multiplied by total population
(B) total land area minus total population
(C) total population multiplied by total land area
(D) total population minus total population
(E) total population divided by total land area
54. In the United States suburbanization increased in the 1960s and resulted in which of the following?
(A) Loss of tax base and increased poverty rates in city centers
(B) Renovation of city centers and increased employment opportunities
(C) Improved race relations through gentrification
(D) High unemployment rates in the suburbs as jobs remained downtown
(E) Increased use of public transportation
55. Commercial farming led to what 20th-century population change in North America?
(A) Urban decentralization
(B) The growth of the Sunbelt
(C) Counterurbanization
(D) Rural-to-urban migration
(E) The “black exodus” from the South
56. Which of the following cities is an example of urban primacy?
(A) Los Angeles
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) Toronto
(D) Moscow
(E) Rome
57. The population of developed nations can be described as having
(A) higher fertility rates than undeveloped countries
(B) higher crude death rates than undeveloped countries
(C) higher crude birth rates than undeveloped countries
(D) lower natural increase than undeveloped countries
(E) lower life expectancy rates than undeveloped countries
58. Between 1990 and 1999, population increased in the United States due primarily to which factor?
(A) Increased immigration
(B) Decreased emigration
(C) Increased birth rate
(D) Decreased death rate
(E) Increased fertility rates
59. Food availability, which can control population size, is an example of a
(A) control factor
(B) supply factor
(C) regulating factor
(D) limiting factor
(E) managing factor
60. In general, which of the following is true about carrying capacity and population?
(A) Above carrying capacity, population size increases.
(B) Above carrying capacity, population size decreases.
(C) Above carrying capacity, population size remains constant.
(D) Below carrying capacity, population size decreases.
(E) Below carrying capacity, population size remains constant.
61. In order for doubling time to be accurately predicted, which of the following assumptions must be true?
(A) That the population growth rate fluctuates annually
(B) That the population growth rate is decreasing annually
(C) That the population growth rate is constant over a long period of time
(D) That the population growth rate is increasing over a long period of time
(E) That the population growth rate is cyclic over a long period of time
62. The age-specific fertility rate (ASFR) among women in the United States from 1955 to 1995 indicates that
(A) women are having more children and starting families earlier in life
(B) women are having more children and starting families later in life
(C) women are having fewer children and starting families earlier in life
(D) women are having fewer children and starting families later in life
(E) there is no change in timing or child birth rates during this time period
63. For an emigrant, war in his or her homeland is an example of a
(A) push factor
(B) draw factor
(C) pull factor
(D) force factor
(E) driving factor
64. Baby booms are generally associated with
(A) periods of economic hardship
(B) increased education of women
(C) periods of economic prosperity
(D) increased number of women in the workforce
(E) times of war
65. The primary purpose of demographic data is to
(A) predict future migration patterns of a population
(B) describe the characteristics of a population
(C) estimate population density of a nation
(D) identify when a population will reach its carrying capacity
(E) calculate population decline of a population
66. A high dependency ratio suggests that a large percentage of the population is
(A) between 14 and 64 years old
(B) 65 years or older
(C) under 14 years old
(D) under 14 years old and over 65 years old
(E) between 1 and 64 years old
67. Which of the following is true regarding older populations in developed countries?
(A) Men tend to outlive women.
(B) Older populations vote less than younger populations.
(C) The older population growth is slower than the younger population growth.
(D) Older men are less likely to be married than older women.
(E) The majority of older people are women.
68. Which of the following countries has the lowest life expectancy at birth?
(A) Zimbabwe
(B) Japan
(C) Chile
(D) Switzerland
(E) Canada
69. The act of migrants sending money to family in their home country is termed
(A) alimony
(B) allowance
(C) subsidence
(D) remittance
(E) restitution
70. Generation X, which is a group of individuals all born within a defined time interval, is an example of a(n)
(A) unit
(B) cohort
(C) class
(D) brigade
(E) division
71. Which of the following regions experiences the highest diffusion of fertility control?
(A) Europe
(B) Russian Domain
(C) South America
(D) Middle East
(E) North America
72. A population continuing to grow following a fertility decline due to the large percentage of young people is known as
(A) demographic thrust
(B) demographic push
(C) demographic surge
(D) demographic force
(E) demographic momentum
73. Influenza is an example of which type of disease diffusion?
(A) Network
(B) Relocation
(C) Hierarchical
(D) Contagious
(E) Mixed
74. The term ecumene refers to
(A) the amount of time it takes a population to double in size
(B) the amount of land that is built on and the amount of land not developed yet
(C) regions under environmental stress due to overpopulation
(D) the distribution of goods and services within a population
(E) the number of farmers per unit area of farmland
75. Neo-Malthusian theory builds on Malthus’s overpopulation theory by considering which two additional factors?
(A) Population growth of underdeveloped countries and the outstripping of other resources beyond food
(B) Population growth of underdeveloped countries and the invention of new technologies to provide necessary resources
(C) Population growth of undeveloped countries and the population decline of developed countries
(D) Population decline of developed countries and the outstripping of other resources beyond food
(E) Population decline of developed countries and the invention of new technologies to provide necessary resources
76. A nomadic tribe that migrates seasonally to follow the availability of plants and game is an example of
(A) repeated migration
(B) chain migration
(C) recurrent movement
(D) temporary movement
(E) cyclic movement
77. The gravity model predicts
(A) the number of people a city can support with available resources
(B) the rate at which intercontinental migration occurs
(C) the movement of people, goods, and ideas between two locations based on size and distance
(D) periods of population explosion in a certain geographic region
(E) the physiological density of a country
78. The seasonal migration of livestock between lowlands and mountains is termed
(A) step migration
(B) transmigration
(C) periodic movement
(D) transhumance
(E) interregional migration
79. A husband migrates from Mexico to the United States and earns money to allow for his family to follow him to the United States. This is an example of
(A) chain migration
(B) forced migration
(C) distance decay
(D) internal migration
(E) interregional migration
80. Which of the following is true regarding fertility differentials in the United States in 2000?
(A) Metropolitan areas experience higher rates of fertility than rural areas.
(B) Fertility rates are highest among low-income groups.
(C) Women with college degrees have higher fertility rates than high school–educated women.
(D) Women aged 16–20 have the highest fertility rates of any age group.
(E) Hispanic women have lower fertility rates than white women.
81. To compensate for growing populations, undeveloped countries have tried to raise crop yields by
(A) decreasing irrigation
(B) using manure instead of chemical fertilizers
(C) planting genetically modified plants
(D) finding new land to farm
(E) reducing their dependency on pesticides
82. Which regions have the fewest freshwater resources per capita?
(A) Latin America and the Caribbean
(B) Europe and Central Asia
(C) Middle East and North Africa
(D) Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia
(E) East Asia and the Pacific
83. Which of the following countries has the least arable land per capita?
(A) Canada
(B) Argentina
(C) Australia
(D) Kazakhstan
(E) China
84. The process where voting districts are spatially altered to favor one political party over another is known as
(A) repositioning
(B) gerrymandering
(C) reapportionment
(D) packing
(E) riding
85. The Homestead Act of 1862, which governed the initial settlement of the Great Plains, resulted in which rural population spatial pattern?
(A) Random
(B) Clustered
(C) Uniform
(D) Unsystematic
(E) Erratic
86. Factors that prevent a species from reproducing at its maximum rate are known as environmental
(A) fecundity
(B) fertility
(C) struggle
(D) limits
(E) resistance
87. The maximum reproductive capacity of a population is known as
(A) sterility
(B) fertility
(C) fruitful
(D) fecundity
(E) prolific
88. Population distribution that is evenly spread over a landscape typically in low densities is called
(A) concentrated distribution
(B) dispersed distribution
(C) scattered distribution
(D) condensed distribution
(E) diluted distribution
89. Gross national product (GNP) per capita is the
(A) total value of produced goods and services of a country in one year divided by total number of people living in the country
(B) total value of produced goods and services of a country in one year multiplied by total number of people living in the country
(C) total number of people living in the country divided by the total value of produced goods and services of a country in one year
(D) total number of people living in the country minus the total value of produced goods and services of a country in one year
(E) total value of produced goods and services of a country in one year minus the total number of people living in the country
90. A person, typically 20–35 years old, who leaves his or her home country to work in another country is known as a
(A) guest worker
(B) temporary laborer
(C) host laborer
(D) interim worker
(E) provisional laborer
91. The rule of 70 refers to
(A) the goal life expectancy for developing countries
(B) the percentage of people living above extreme poverty levels
(C) the approximate amount of time it takes for a population to double
(D) the literacy rate in developed countries
(E) the average growing period for subsistence farming in developing countries
92. Which of the following is an example of a choropleth map?
(A) A map with distorted areas that reflect varying GNPs and not the size and shape of the country
(B) A birth-rate map that uses different colors to represent countries with varying birth rates
(C) A map using arrows to indicate the global flow of commodities
(D) A population map that uses dots to represent population density
(E) A crop yield map that uses isolines to connect areas with the same crop yields
93. Malaria, which is present in many populations living in tropical or subtropical regions, is an example of a(n)
(A) epidemic
(B) endodermic
(C) pandemic
(D) prosodemic
(E) endemic
94. Which of the following is true regarding standard of living?
(A) Standard of living indicates the percentage of the population that is malnourished.
(B) Standard of living reflects the age distribution of a country.
(C) Standard of living is a measure of a country’s GNP.
(D) Standard of living can trace development of a country.
(E) Standard of living is a direct result of the literacy rate of a country.
95. A J-curve on a population graph indicates
(A) exponential population growth
(B) cyclical population growth
(C) logarithmic population growth
(D) quadratic function
(E) linear population growth
96. Which of the following is true regarding least developed countries (LDC) and most developed countries (MDC)?
(A) LDC have lower infant mortality rates than MDC.
(B) LDC have higher standards of living than MDC.
(C) MDC have lower illiteracy rates than LDC.
(D) Economies of MDC have more reliance on agricultural production than LDC.
(E) LDC have higher gross national incomes (GNI) than MDC.
97. A factor that persuades an immigrant to settle en route to his or her planned destination is called a(n)
(A) interfering factor
(B) intervening opportunity
(C) interruption
(D) interceding factor
(E) disrupting opportunity
98. A country that has high development levels, innovation capacity, and a convergence of trade flows is known as a(n)
(A) interior country
(B) central country
(C) periphery country
(D) primary country
(E) core country
99. Panama is classified as a periphery country due to which of the following factors?
(A) Panama is a least developed country and has a low GNP.
(B) Panama has a geographic location far from the Old World countries.
(C) Panama has low immigration rates.
(D) Panama is considered a frontier that is sparsely inhabited.
(E) Panama has many ports and trade routes that enable a high flow of goods and services.
100. Which of the following is not one of Ravenstein’s migration laws?
(A) Most migration is rural to urban.
(B) Migrants traveling long distances will likely settle in a big city.
(C) People in rural areas are more migratory than city dwellers.
(D) Most international migrants are young women.
(E) Most migration is step migration.
101. In 1997, Pakistan and the United Kingdom experienced the two-way nature of migration. Which of the following is true regarding that migration pattern?
(A) The migration in both ways was equal.
(B) More people migrated from Pakistan to the UK.
(C) More people migrated from the UK to Pakistan.
(D) The migration to the UK was the countermigration.
(E) The migration to Pakistan was the dominant migration.
102. All of the following are examples of forced migration EXCEPT
(A) the Trail of Tears in the early 19th century
(B) the Atlantic slave trade
(C) the California gold rush in the mid-19th century
(D) the Irish Potato Famine from 1846 to 1850
(E) the Japanese internment camps during World War II
103. The phenomenon where educated men aged 20–25 are more likely to migrate than other groups is an example of
(A) uneven migration
(B) irregular migration
(C) biased migration
(D) disproportionate migration
(E) differential migration
104. Which of the following is true regarding emigration?
(A) Emigration results in an influx of talented people in underdeveloped countries.
(B) Emigration reduces the pressure on land in overpopulated areas.
(C) Emigration increases unemployment rates in underdeveloped countries.
(D) Emigration can speed up development in underpopulated areas.
(E) Emigration can increase culture diversity.
105. The practice of harvesting crops twice a year, thus resulting in poor soil quality, is known as
(A) double cropping
(B) repeat planting
(C) crop replication
(D) duplicate planting
(E) twofold cropping
106. Several families living close together in multiple houses surrounded by farms is termed
(A) clustered
(B) dispersed
(C) nucleated
(D) bundled
(E) bunched
107. A refugee is defined as a person
(A) who willingly left his or her homeland for better opportunities in another country
(B) who illegally resides in a country other than his or her homeland
(C) who works outside of his or her home country
(D) who was forced to leave his or her homeland due to war or violence
(E) who was deported from a country back to his or her homeland
108. Which of the following is a consequence of zero population growth?
(A) Higher rates of malnutrition
(B) Reduced strain on available resources
(C) A larger workforce
(D) Increased fertility rates
(E) Decreased progress toward development in least developed countries
109. Which of the following is not a contributing factor to the rising death rates in India?
(A) Decreasing available cropland per person resulting in malnutrition
(B) The HIV epidemic
(C) Decreased government spending on health care
(D) The depletion of aquifers
(E) Increased maternal mortalities
110. In a developed country, all of the following are likely to lower the rate of natural increase (RNI) of the population EXCEPT
(A) women gaining political and economic rights
(B) very high divorce rates
(C) a proliferation of single-parent, single-child families
(D) a high rate of immigration
(E) a high number of DINK (double-income, no kids) households
111. All of the following are true of the total fertility rate (TFR) equation EXCEPT
(A) A large population must have a TFR of 2.1 in order to replace itself.
(B) The TFR equation calculates average number of children born per woman of birthing age (15 to 45).
(C) TFR, like RNI, can be negative.
(D) A country with a low TFR may still experience a growing population.
(E) The TFR equation produces a 30-year estimate, not an accurate annual number.
112. In which area of the world would countries in stage one of the demographic transition model most likely be found?
(A) Northern Europe
(B) North America
(C) South America
(D) East Asia
(E) Western and southern Africa
113. All of the following are arguments advanced by neo-Malthusians with regard to future world population growth EXCEPT
(A) Global food demand will rise as third-world countries develop.
(B) Technological advancements will likely solve issues of food production and consumption.
(C) Current environmental problems could keep food-producing regions of the world from producing comparable amounts in the future.
(D) Overconsumption of other resources like coal and timber will not be sustainable as population increases.
(E) Even if global population numbers level off over the next several decades, a myriad of issues will still confront the world community.
114. Which of the following might account for the triangle-shaped population graph of the city of Brownsville in southern Texas?
(A) A large population of retirees moving from colder cities in the northeast
(B) A large college-age population
(C) Very low birth rates due to an inflow of young professionals
(D) Large numbers of Mexican immigrants, causing the graph to be similar to that of Mexico
(E) A much larger population of men than women
115. Migration in which people move to a series of increasingly more economically advantageous locations is referred to as
(A) step migration
(B) forced migration
(C) cyclic movement
(D) periodic movement
(E) demographic transition
116. All of the following are potential pull factors for immigration EXCEPT
(A) access to health-care services
(B) the high cost of land
(C) potential for higher-paying employment
(D) access to electricity and utilities
(E) entertainment options like television and sports
117. Which of the following best describes the general direction that the population center of the United States has moved since 1790?
(A) North and east
(B) South
(C) West and south
(D) North and west
(E) South and east
118. All of the following are true of physiologic density EXCEPT
(A) Unlike arithmetic density, physiologic density calculates number of people per unit of farmland.
(B) Countries like Iraq, Egypt, and Uzbekistan have high physiologic densities because the amount of arable land is low.
(C) Physiologic density helps illustrate why in the United States populations have moved to urban areas and into the western part of the country.
(D) Physiologic density is useful in determining the sustainability of a population in a given region.
(E) A country with a high physiologic density must also have a high arithmetic density.
119. Chronic diseases are more common today than in the past in developed countries due to
(A) better health care
(B) longer life expectancies
(C) decreased malnutrition
(D) population decline
(E) increased access to clean water
120. All of the following accurately reflect the attitudes of Thomas Malthus toward the poor EXCEPT
(A) Wealthy people giving money to the poor would deprive the world of culture and refinement.
(B) Preventive checks were not enough to control the population of the poor.
(C) Better health care and sanitation should not be provided to poor people.
(D) A surplus population of poor people was necessary to provide a stable workforce.
(E) Left unchecked, the population of poor people would be ultimately limited by famine.
121. In 1977 Abdel Omran first described the epidemiological transition model that explains health and disease patterns in populations.
(A) Identify and explain how the three major stages of the epidemiological transition model impact population growth, life expectancy, and mortality rates at each stage.
(B) Identify and explain two factors (either social, environmental, or economic) that contribute to longer life expectancies at birth.
122. Stouffer’s law of intervening opportunities (1940) suggests that migration is the result of the available opportunities and not distance as suggested by the gravity model.
(A) Define a migration push factor and provide two examples.
(B) Define an intervening opportunity and provide two examples.
(C) Define a migration pull factor and provide two examples.