PMP® Project Management Professional Practice Exams

CHAPTER 4 The Executing Domain

This chapter includes questions from the following tasks:

• Task 1 Acquire and manage project resources by following the human resource and procurement management plans in order to meet project requirements.

• Task 2 Manage task execution based on the project management plan by leading and developing the project team in order to achieve project deliverables.

• Task 3 Implement the quality management plan using the appropriate tools and techniques in order to ensure that work is performed in accordance with required quality standards.

• Task 4 Implement approved changes and corrective actions by following the change management plan in order to meet project requirements.

• Task 5 Implement approved actions by following the risk management plan in order to minimize the impact of the risks and take advantage of opportunities on the project.

• Task 6 Manage the flow of information by following the communications plan in order to keep stakeholders engaged and informed.

• Task 7 Maintain stakeholder relationships by following the stakeholder management plan in order to receive continued support and manage expectations.

QUESTIONS

The Executing process group is the place where all the project work takes place. It involves carrying out all the work that was planned in the Planning process group to satisfy the project requirements. Most of the budget is used, and most of the project team’s time is spent here. As the project manager, you and the project team create the unique product, service, or result planned in the Planning process group and brought to life in the Executing process group.

The Executing domain accounts for 31% (62) of the questions on the PMP exam. The PMBOK Guide, Sixth Edition, namely, Sections 4.3, 4.4, 8.2, 9.3–9.5, 10.2, 11.6, 12.2, and 13.3, cover the 10 tasks in the Executing domain.

The 124 practice questions in this chapter are mapped to the style and frequency of question types you will see on the PMP exam.

1. You are managing a construction project. At 75% through the project, you determine that you are behind schedule. You review the project schedule to determine how to complete the project on time. The project sponsor will not give you any more resources. When analyzing the project schedule, you see a lot of soft logic—the remaining activities are sequenced based on the project team’s knowledge of best practices. What can you do to adjust the project schedule and finish the project on the expected due date?

A. Crash the schedule.

B. Keep the soft logic decisions and fast-track the activities on the critical path.

C. Fast-track the schedule.

D. Remove the soft logic and do more of the remaining tasks/activities concurrently.

2. A generally accepted practice in project management is to use lessons learned to capitalize on effective and ineffective events that have happened in past projects and to take corrective actions for future work. In addition, the project manager uses lessons learned and communication techniques to keep stakeholders informed. Lessons learned will be compiled and archived at project closure time, and a final report will be written and distributed. When is the best time to inform stakeholders about lessons learned?

A. During all phases of the project life cycle

B. During the execution phase of the project life cycle

C. At the beginning of the project during the project kick-off meeting

D. When a major deliverable is completed during any phase of the project

3. You decide to conduct regular QA audits on the SCAN project. The major purpose is to:

A. Document best practices and noncompliance issues and forward these to the PMO

B. Confirm the implementation of approved change requests

C. Verify that the quality management plan is being followed

D. Determine if policies, processes, and procedures are complying with benefits realization

4. You are managing a project focused on optimizing company processes to increase efficiencies by taking advantage of economies of scale. A major challenge in the company is the knowledge silos that have appeared in project teams. You are determined to change the culture of your projects to one of information sharing, not hoarding. You have one person skilled in product development and another person who is the marketing guru on your project team. The product development person seems overallocated, and she is complaining about all the work. As the project manager you should:

A. Rely on the functional manager to assign the proper amount of work

B. Use the resource allocation team (RAT) to work with your project team to outsource some of the work

C. Use the resource calendar to document the time periods she is working

D. Meet with the product development person and prioritize her work

5. The product development specialist on your current project has the PMP certification. The marketing expert on your team has a master’s degree in project management. To ensure all your project team members, including these two, receive feedback on their performance, you decide to:

A. Meet with each of them weekly to generate decisions, actions, or awareness

B. Set up work performance reports for each one to determine recognition and rewards

C. Ask each of them to prepare an individual development plan for your review

D. Conduct a formal review with each of them at the end of each phase

6. As part of implementing risk responses, you are updating your risk report. You should include:

A. Any changes to overall risk exposure

B. Impact of identified risks on achieving project benefits

C. A change request process for risks that occur that affect project team assignments

D. A revised list of prioritized issues that affect the project’s objectives

7. As part of your Implement Risk Responses process, for a risk you should:

A. Specify the risk thresholds based on the risk appetite of the sponsor

B. Encourage risk owners to take necessary action, if required

C. Document the risk description and impact if it happens

D. Inform project stakeholders of all ranked risks

8. You are establishing a Project Management Office (PMO) in your global company. You know you need to set up knowledge management tools. You also have a chief knowledge officer in your company. She is on the project management team and is recommending the project use library services. Why?

A. To connect every team member so they can share knowledge management

B. To make reverse shadowing mandatory to build trust

C. To share explicit knowledge for your team

D. To focus the team on organizational learning

9. Your team is a weak matrix one, and given travel restrictions, you will not have any face-to-face meetings during this two-year project. During this two-year period, you do not want to lose any project members to either other projects or their functional work. To be successful in this environment, you need to:

A. Get commitments in writing that the functional manager will allocate the team member to your project for two years

B. Encourage the project team to collaborate/problem-solve to build consensus and commitment

C. Give certificates of appreciation to the functional team members at key milestone points to influence them to stay on the project

D. Have each team member sign a letter of intent stating that he or she will stay on the project until completion

10. Your last assignment before retirement is to design and develop the next-generation handheld device. You have used functional decomposition to create three subprojects in your project: video, audio, and AI. You must consider maintenance and customer support for your new product. Your three teams—one for each subproject—are geographically located in the United States, Ireland, and Russia. You expect team members to be committed to the success not only of their subproject but also to the overall project. You want to increase team cohesiveness and minimize staff turnover rate. To measure team effectiveness, you should:

A. Use structured interviews and focus group tools

B. Conduct individual team member assessments

C. Evaluate the openness of information sharing and experiences among the team

D. Formally establish a job shadowing program and encourage teams from each country to participate

11. Although people may say they can identify, assess, and manage their personal feelings, many teams experience tension and uncooperative behaviors among teammates. You have recognized this on projects where you have been a team member, especially virtual teams. Now that you are a project manager, you want to establish an environment in which teammates can reduce tension and increase cooperation. A best practice to follow is to:

A. Use emotional intelligence to control the sentiments of team members

B. Focus on goals to be served and ask that emotions be left outside the project

C. Emphasize areas of agreement rather than areas of difference

D. Maintain a good relationship with the project sponsor

12. You have been working on the SecureAI project for six months. You are scheduled to meet with your steering committee to review project performance next week. You have met individually with each member of the steering committee to better understand their concerns and issues. You found that one person does not believe the project has delivered any benefits to date based on the reports he has received. Another member of the team is concerned because even though you are only in the first six months of this two-year project, already you have had seven change requests. The third steering committee team member was out of the office last week, but her administrative assistant seems to think she is happy—so far. In this meeting you will explain how you are evaluating overall project progress. One approach to use is to:

A. Switch to a critical success factor approach

B. Tell them you are relying on the Project Management Information System (PMIS) as one way to evaluate progress

C. Enable them to have full access to the lessons learned repository

D. Set up a red-amber-green dashboard that emphasizes value and quality rather than the Triple Constraint Triangle

13. You are outlining and guiding the selection of resources and assigning them to their respective activities. Which of the following tools and techniques would be least helpful to you?

A. Decision making

B. Resource calendars

C. Negotiation

D. Pre-assignment

14. You are leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan. Which of the following actions would be least helpful to you?

A. Allocate available resources

B. Manage organizational interfaces

C. Analyze work performance data

D. Leverage prior organizational knowledge

15. Leadership and management are about getting things done. In the execution phase, leadership differs from management in that:

A. Leadership is about demonstrating the value of project management

B. Management is about delivering better strategic outcomes

C. Leadership includes making sure the project is delivered on target, on schedule, and on budget

D. Leadership involves guiding, motivating, and directing the project team

16. Decision making is the ability to negotiate and influence the project team. A guideline for effective decision making is:

A. Follow a decision-making process

B. Seek a compromise/reconcile solution

C. Improve the efficiency of conflict resolution

D. Apply both leadership and management techniques

17. One of your key stakeholders is upset about the quality of the demo from the last iteration. During the retrospective, one of the developers openly blames the other team members through the entire meeting to the point of hurting people’s feelings. You step in and remind the team that the retrospective is a time for them to learn from previous work and make small improvements. Two weeks later, at the next retrospective, the same team member repeats the same “blamestorming” behavior. The team development behavior that you can improve is:

A. Establishing high team performance

B. Encouraging collaborative problem solving

C. Providing “stretch” objectives

D. Setting up a project room

18. Translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities during the execution phase is:

A. Execute Quality Management

B. Manage Quality

C. Control Quality

D. Project Quality Management

19. A structured, independent process to determine whether project activities comply with project policies, processes, and procedures is called a:

A. Quality inspection

B. Quality audit

C. Retrospective

D. Quality demo

20. A key benefit of the Manage Team process is that it:

A. Requires subject matter experts to create sustainable solutions

B. Selects team members who can deal with high rates of change

C. Implements a zero-sum reward and recognition system for the team

D. Influences team behavior to optimize project performance

21. Which of the following is a tool and technique of the Manage Communications process?

A. Reporting performance

B. Project reporting

C. Work performance reports

D. Project communications

22. Which of the following trends and emerging practices in procurement management could have a negative effect on the success of your project?

A. Advances in tools

B. Permanent engagements

C. More advanced risk management

D. Changing contracting processes

23. An effective way to ensure that no prospective bidders receive preferential treatment is to hold a vendor conference. A vendor conference should be held:

A. Before you prepare the request for quotation (RFQ) so prices can be submitted by prospective sellers

B. Before prospective sellers submit their proposals and after procurement documents have been distributed

C. Before you issue the statement of work to the prospective sellers

D. After the contract is awarded so that unsuccessful vendors can improve their bid packages

24. Seller proposals is an input to:

A. Plan Procurement Management

B. Request Procurements

C. Procurement Strategy

D. Conduct Procurements

25. You are translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities. Which of the following inputs will be least helpful to you?

A. Quality control measurements

B. Process improvement plan

C. Lessons learned register

D. Risk report

26. Finally, after three months of negotiating with the resource allocation manager, a new business analyst, Sharon, has been added to your current project team. Given the introduction of a new team member, which team development stage might your team fall into?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

27. Negotiation is a key interpersonal and team skill used in the Conduct Procurements process. The negotiation should be led by:

A. The project manager working on behalf of the project sponsor

B. The senior member of the steering committee

C. A member of the procurement team who is authorized to sign contracts

D. The contracting officer representative assigned to the project

28. You are a junior project manager assigned to your first takeover project. The team does not feel confident in their own abilities. In fact, they show feelings of inferiority for assignments. What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is not being met?

A. Safety

B. Self-esteem

C. Physiological

D. Love/belonging

29. You have an optimistic, positive opinion of your project team, and you use a decentralized, participative management style. Douglas McGregor called this:

A. Theory Y

B. Theory X

C. Theory W

D. Theory Z

30. Effective project managers know that resources needed for the project can be acquired internally or externally. Which of the following outputs of the Acquire Resources process documents the material, equipment, and supplies that will be used in the project?

A. Project team assignments

B. Resource management plan

C. Resource breakdown structure

D. Physical resource assignments

31. The Manage Project Knowledge process consists of:

A. Managing tacit and explicit knowledge

B. Knowledge sharing and codifying implicit knowledge

C. Making sure tools and techniques are shared by the stakeholders

D. Ensuring that all stakeholder knowledge needs are met

32. Corporate communications requirements are an example of:

A. Organizational process assets

B. A best practice in information management

C. A knowledge requirement for knowledge management

D. Enterprise environmental factors

33. Design for X (DfX) is a(n):

A. Set of technical guidelines for the optimization of a specific aspect of the product design

B. Situational guideline for using agile approaches

C. Specific design tool that addresses specific aspects of a mature product

D. Agile tool used by everybody throughout the project

34. Which of the following inputs for the Develop Team process documents the team values and operating guidelines?

A. Team charter

B. Project team assignments

C. Agile team manifesto

D. Single-team process framework

35. Two of the common quality improvement tools are:

A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control (DMAIC) and three-point estimating

B. Design of experiments (DOE) and Mean time between failure (MTBF)

C. Logical data models and Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers (SIPOC)

D. Plan-do-check-act (PDCA) and Six Sigma

36. The least effective way to motivate team members is to ensure there is adequate:

A. Opportunity to grow

B. Application of professional skills

C. Financial reward

D. Appreciation

37. Conflict is a reality that project managers face every day. Successful conflict resolution can produce positive results for everyone. When the project manager actively works to increase stakeholder support and minimize resistance, it is an example of which process?

A. Plan Conflict Management

B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C. Manage Stakeholder Conflict

D. Manage Communications

38. In David McClelland’s needs-based motivational model, this determined results-driven approach is almost invariably present in the character makeup of all successful project managers:

A. People with strong achievement motivation

B. A strong power/authority motivation

C. Strong affiliation motivation

D. Motivational or needs “mix”

39. Frederick Herzberg’s two-factor theory, also known as motivation-hygiene theory or intrinsic vs. extrinsic motivation, concludes that certain factors in the workplace can cause job satisfaction and a separate set of factors can cause dissatisfaction. Which of the following factors would be least effective in increasing motivation?

A. Sense of achievement

B. Job recognition and potential for promotion

C. The work itself and responsibility

D. Lifetime employment

40. You are working in an adaptive environment. You want to streamline team member access to information and have transparent decision making. The most effective project reporting technique in this situation would be to:

A. Set up an intranet site

B. Email and fax project status reports

C. Form an online community

D. Use information radiators

41. Which of the following project communications artifacts would be most useful in managing communications?

A. Issue log

B. Schedule progress

C. Risk register

D. Communications management plan

42. You are in the process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans. Which of the following actions is least likely to occur?

A. A change request to the cost baseline

B. A change request to the schedule baseline

C. A change request to the scope baseline

D. An update to the project team assignments

43. You have been hired by a large organization to apply agile techniques and approaches. Your job is to move the organization from being internally focused to being focused outwardly on the customer experience. The PMO is a stumbling block; their lack of support in establishing an organizational change management (OCM) group is a major concern. You are pushing the PMO to adopt an agile mind-set. Your agile implementation strategy depends on the PMO and the OCM. Addressing this concern is an example of:

A. Manage Communications

B. Manage Team Members

C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D. Direct and Manage Project Work

44. Your project team is collecting requirements. Sally has proposed interviewing as an elicitation technique to gather information from three system operators working three different shifts to cover their job tasks in a 24-hour period. She anticipates she will need two hours per shift from each person for a three-week period. In the meeting with the system operators’ manager, she confirms listening by nodding, eye contact, and asking questions for clarification. Sally summarizes the conversation along the way. What communication skill is being practiced here?

A. Language management

B. Verbal feedback

C. Effective listening

D. Active listening

45. You are obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Conduct Procurements process?

A. List of preferred sellers that have been prequalified

B. Resource management systems

C. Prior agreements already in place

D. Resource pre-assignment in the project charter

46. Who is primarily responsible for execution of the project management plan?

A. Project manager and project team

B. Project sponsor and project manager

C. Program sponsor and project manager

D. Program manager and project manager

47. You will be producing many outputs during the execution phase, such as deliverables, work performance data, and the issue log. You will also be implementing which of the following during the execution phase?

A. Project scope, business case, project charter

B. Project management plan, communications plan, work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Procurement management plan, contract statement of work, contract management plan

D. Defect repairs, corrective actions, preventive actions

48. Key skills are needed to manage project data and the flow of information in and out of project processes. Which of the following is least useful in consolidating project data?

A. Organizing various data metrics

B. Using reporting tools to create and assemble the reports

C. Clarifying requirements

D. Communicating and presenting complex information

49. A major automotive manufacturer is working hard to adjust to recent legislative changes to the fuel mileage ratings on new vehicles. The government has changed the calculation methods to make the determination for gas mileage more realistic. This has caused the distance ratings to decline and resulted in a decline in sales due to consumer expectations to get better fuel economy. When the project was established, which of the following were most likely involved in developing governance for project tracking and updating?

A. Project board

B. Project managers

C. Project office

D. Project management office (PMO)

50. Which of the following tool sets will be most useful in facilitating project management activities to deliver the benefits of the project?

A. Creation of the milestone plan

B. Measuring project performance

C. Estimation of task schedule

D. Estimating resource usage

51. A new project needs to be chartered to ensure adjustments are made to keep the project work aligned with new strategic goals related to the reductions in fuel economy. Which of the following techniques/notations is least useful in chartering new projects?

A. The “rich picture” approach

B. The “context diagram” from structured analysis

C. Lean manufacturing’s “A3”

D. eXtreme programming (XP) best practice

52. Many key resources from other projects in the organization will be needed on the new project you are starting. Which of the following should you apply as constraints when you level the related resources?

A. Schedule, budget, quality

B. Schedule, availability, level of expertise

C. Time, schedule, availability

D. Availability, level of expertise, commitment

53. Even though your matrix management organization uses projects extensively to bring change to the company, nearly all decisions are made by and are the responsibility of functional managers. Project managers are primarily facilitators for their respective projects. Which of the following will be most useful in managing this circumstance?

A. Identifying market trends for benefits planning

B. Negotiating trade-offs with functional managers

C. Identifying personal aspirations

D. Identifying tools for resource determination

54. Which of the following processes is focused on creating the project’s intended benefits?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Manage Quality

C. Direct and Manage Project Work

D. Manage Project Knowledge

55. Most of your staff has been assigned to you temporarily from various functional departments. Even so, you want to motivate them as much as possible and make sure their level of commitment is high. Which of the following will help you manage their career development the most?

A. Identify career path within available and potential roles

B. Identify competence assessment techniques

C. Identify intellectual property

D. Create team ground rules and techniques

56. To motivate the team, it is essential to use appropriate tools and techniques to increase commitment to the project objectives. Which of the following skills will be most useful in generating the highest level of commitment?

A. Conflict resolution between team members

B. Analyzing data and reports

C. Scenario analysis

D. Maintaining work/life balance

57. More and more organizations today are becoming globally diversified. Outsourcing resources from around the world and having staff work remotely are two optimization methods that will increase your need to manage diversity in your project. Awareness of the diverse population in your project will benefit least from which of the following?

A. Describing the organization’s culture

B. Describing the team structure and individual cultures

C. Maintaining cohesiveness among all teams

D. Establishing workgroups that consist of individual cultural groups

58. The project you are managing is complex and challenging. This has resulted in concerns by several of the staff on this project that their performance may be viewed poorly in relation to others on less complex and demanding projects. Which of the reward and recognition policies will assist you in managing this dilemma best?

A. Facilitate coaching and mentoring across the teams

B. Measure resource retention and personal achievement

C. Map results to rewards

D. Complete a skill set inventory

59. What Project Resource Management processes do you manage as a part of the Executing process group?

A. Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team

B. Initiate Team, Develop Team, Close Team

C. Human Resource Planning, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team

D. Initiate Team, Acquire Team, Develop Team

60. A major educational institution is late in developing a project that allows students to attend classes and complete educational requirements online. This has resulted in a 20% reduction in enrollment and led the executive board to establish a project that will increase enrollment in the next year by 10%. Part of your project is delayed pending availability of resources. The programming can start in the next two weeks. The delayed projects will maintain the staff, regardless of changes, because no other resources are available and the budget does not support hiring contractors who have the necessary expertise. Which of the following will be least useful in developing the teams for these projects under these conditions?

A. Training plan

B. Staffing management plan

C. Project preferred-vendor list

D. Training records

61. Your current project is construction oriented with a variety of subcontractors bidding on various parts of the work. Which of the following will be least useful in assessing potential contractors you will use?

A. Request for proposal (RFP)

B. Request for information (RFI)

C. Return on investment (ROI)

D. Request for quotation (RFQ)

62. Your construction project has identified four possible vendors who can connect the water and sewer lines to the municipality’s main water and sewer trunk. To select a subcontractor for this work, which of the following will be most useful in managing the selection process fairly and equitably?

A. Request for proposal (RFP)

B. Source selection criteria

C. Project budget

D. Lease agreements

63. You establish a formal documented procedure to define how work will be authorized to ensure work is done by the right people at the right time and in the right sequence. Which of the following is this a description of?

A. Work authorization system

B. Project management information system

C. Manage quality

D. Performance monitoring system

64. To make sure there is an evaluation of overall project performance, you manage the quality on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will comply with the quality policy and standards. Which of the following is least useful as an input for managing quality?

A. Quality control measurements

B. Quality metrics

C. Risk report

D. Resource capabilities and availability

65. Several options are available to you in formulating the team on a project. Which of the following is a common method for staffing projects?

A. Requesting resources from the directors of functional managers through the project management office

B. Procuring resources from family members

C. Negotiating with functional managers

D. Preassigning external resources before internal resources

66. A major metropolitan city has lost over 40% of its manufacturing jobs due to outsourcing overseas. Left with a large volume of skilled workers from the manufacturing sector, the city and businesses have combined their efforts to generate a new class of manufacturing jobs building ecofriendly products. The consortium has launched a project that will provide training to existing workers in the area, focusing on currently unemployed members. A consulting firm did a study and found there are currently 1,700 electrical tradesmen in the community that are not employed. One project, already funded, will build a facility to manufacture solar panels. The unemployed tradesmen are skeptical of potentially working at the solar panel plant because their skills are related to other types of electrical products. Which of the following will be most useful in convincing the workers to accept these immediately available jobs?

A. Change the project scope.

B. Build trust and establish good working relationships.

C. Define a process for budget allocation.

D. Complete a skills inventory.

67. You’ve been assigned as the replacement project manager for a project that is already in the executing phase. After a brief period of ramping up on the project, you have determined you will need to make changes to the project as you go forward. Which of the following will you need least to manage changes effectively?

A. Change control board

B. Stage gates

C. Change request reviews

D. Resource leveling

68. While executing the Solar Panel Retraining project, you need to capture status and store data in the project management information system. To maintain accurate and current information for the diverse set of stakeholders on this project, you will need to consolidate the approach to information and decide on a set of data points that matter to a large cross-section of the stakeholders. Which of the following steps will benefit you least as you consolidate the information?

A. Demonstrating the benefits of the project

B. Applying resource-leveling techniques

C. Developing a project data retrieval process

D. Applying the data retrieval process

69. You are managing project communications and are wondering what tools to use as part of the PMIS. The least effective tool to use so that stakeholders can easily retrieve the information they need in a timely manner is:

A. Work performance reports

B. Social media

C. Web conferencing

D. Blogs

70. As you execute a project, you use appropriate project plans to ensure all facets of the project are managed and carried out consistent with the project governance criteria you established. Which plan do you review and adjust to reflect needed changes to personnel that are moved from project to project based on skill sets needed to support technical activities?

A. Risk management plan

B. Human resource management plan

C. Communications management plan

D. Staffing management plan

71. You plan to staff your project using internal company staff and to avoid the use of consultants and contractors. Which of the following will be least useful to you in trying to staff internally?

A. Identifying existing personnel qualified for open positions

B. Negotiating for existing personnel with their functional management

C. Balancing the needs of the individual with the individual’s career path

D. Transitioning them to their project positions

72. You are focused on creating new knowledge that helps achieve the project’s objectives while simultaneously contributing to organizational learning for the company and the project team. Which of the following is the most important part of knowledge management?

A. Reporting project data

B. Creating an atmosphere of trust

C. Coaching and mentoring members of the project team

D. Analyzing appropriate project data

73. One technique you can use to develop a project team is to place the team members in the same physical location. This technique enhances the team’s ability to perform and is commonly referred to as:

A. Co-location

B. Geographic leveling

C. Remote staffing

D. Peer transfer

74. There are many methods for communicating key information within the project team. Which of the following methods is most useful for collecting, sharing, and distributing timely information to stakeholders?

A. Written reports distributed through a channeling system

B. Meetings and conferences with all the key players

C. Electronic communications and conferencing tools

D. Monthly or quarterly reviews

75. What are the key outputs of the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Evaluation criteria, proposals, and qualified sellers lists

B. Evaluation criteria and project preferred-vendor lists

C. RFIs, RFPs, and RFQs

D. Procurement statement of work, selected sellers, and change requests

76. As a project manager, you are assuring that benefits management and stakeholder engagement are carried out according to established policies and plans. Where in the project life cycle do these activities occur?

A. Pre-project setup

B. Initiation

C. Project planning

D. Execution

77. You are a project manager and are periodically verifying that team leaders are adhering to established project management methodologies and delivering products that meet business and technical requirements. What major project management theme do these activities most support?

A. Manage quality

B. Stakeholder engagement

C. Project governance

D. Benefits delivery

78. Samantha is the newly assigned project manager for a proposed project to provide basic cable service to retirement facilities nationwide. She establishes a formal documented procedure to define how work will be authorized to ensure work is done by the right organization, at the right time, and in the right sequence. This is a description of:

A. Work authorization system

B. Project management information system

C. Quality assurance system

D. Performance monitoring system

79. Samantha is performing an evaluation of her project using the Manage Quality process to provide confidence that the project will comply with the quality policy and standards. Which of the following is least useful as an input for performing the Manage Quality process?

A. Quality management plan

B. Quality metrics

C. Resource availability

D. Lessons learned register

80. Gary is using appropriate project plans to ensure all phases of his project are managed and carried out according to criteria that have been established. Which plan will he review and adjust to reflect needed changes to personnel based on skill sets and the need to be moved from one project to another?

A. Human resource management plan

B. Quality management plan

C. Personnel assignment plan

D. Resource management plan

81. You have just been appointed as the project manager for a new project at Smart Planes, Inc., and are responsible for the development of a new innovative unmanned aerial vehicle. This is your first large-scale project, and you know that the project management plan execution is your primary responsibility once the initial planning activities are completed and execution of the project has begun. Who else is primarily responsible for the project management plan execution?

A. Business analyst

B. Project team

C. Project managers

D. PMO

82. In addition to producing deliverables, the Direct and Manage Project Work process implements which of the following the least?

A. Approved change requests

B. Corrective actions

C. Key performance indicators

D. Preventive actions

83. Which project management processes in the Executing process group provide change requests as an input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution, Schedule Control

B. Manage Quality, Project Contract Administration

C. Direct and Manage Project Work, Perform Quality Control

D. Implement Risk Responses, Manage Quality, Direct and Manage Project Work

84. A household appliance company has established a major project to upgrade numerous products using projects for each product. The director of research and development will oversee all the projects, and the CFO will ensure that the benefits are realized from these upgrades by conducting independent reviews. The director of research and development is managing a:

A. Large project

B. Program

C. Operation

D. Functional area

85. A major filmmaker has established a large project to enhance the technologies for special effects development for several upcoming productions. Several teams are working on the project, and resources are shared between the project and ongoing operations. To develop some of your project team, you decide to have your team work in pairs, with experienced members working side by side with less experienced members. Which tool or technique of developing a team have you implemented?

A. Centralized staffing

B. Remote staffing

C. Co-location

D. Peer transfer

86. A large defense contractor has an established safety project to support manufacturing operations. Recent regulatory changes from government regulators and increased risks related to new work have increased operational cost substantially. You have instituted a process to provide timely and accurate information to project stakeholders and to use formats and media that are useful to the clients, sponsors, and the project team. Which of the following tools is most consistent with these actions?

A. Meetings

B. RACI (responsible, accountable, inform, consult) chart

C. Project management information system

D. Resource breakdown structure

87. Outsourcing resources from around the world and having staff resources work remotely are two resource optimization methods that will increase your need to manage diversity in your project. Given the global nature of team resourcing present in your company, awareness of the diverse population in your project will benefit least from which of the following?

A. Establishing work groups that consist of individual cultural groups

B. Identifying and understanding the organization’s culture

C. Describing the team structure and individual cultures

D. Maintaining cohesiveness among all cross-divisional teams

88. You sent out RFPs to three vendors and received their offers. Currently you are reviewing the offers to choose potential vendors and negotiate contract conditions and are involved in the Conduct Procurements process. Which of the following are you expected to have to complete this process?

A. Seller responses

B. Executed seller risk plans

C. Selected sellers

D. Planned project contracting

89. A large defense contractor has an established safety project to support manufacturing operations. Recent regulatory changes from government regulators and increased risks related to new work have increased operational cost substantially. You need to select contractors. Which of the following will be most useful in managing the selection process fairly and equitably?

A. Evaluation criteria

B. Request for proposal (RFP)

C. Project budget

D. Lease agreements

90. The specific technique for evaluating sellers’ proposals that involves evaluation of the proposals by a multidiscipline team containing members with specialist knowledge in each of the areas covered by the proposed contract is called a(n):

A. Seller rating system

B. Expert judgment

C. Screening system

D. Bidder conference

91. Within the Conduct Procurements process, the procurement management plan, seller proposals, and source selection criteria are examples of:

A. Contract types

B. Tools and techniques

C. Inputs

D. Outputs

92. The project sponsor asks you to be certain that you ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and collective understanding of the procurement you require. He suggests you have a structured meeting to do this. What type of meeting is being suggested?

A. Request seller responses

B. Contract status meeting

C. Project progress meeting

D. Bidder conference

93. The part of the procurement process involving obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Qualified sellers list

B. Bidder conference

C. Conduct procurements

D. Selected sellers

94. You are part of a team running a complex project spanning several years and involving several subcontractors. The contracts signed for this project might or will end during:

A. Any phase of the project

B. The completion phase

C. The execution phase

D. The acceptance phase

95. Documenting the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and the root causes and of the effectiveness of managing risk is called (a):

A. Implement risk responses

B. Risk identification

C. Risk analysis

D. Risk audit

96. When engaging project stakeholders, you may use many different techniques, including written and oral and both giving and receiving. These techniques are examples of what type of skills?

A. Influence

B. Negotiating

C. Delegation

D. Communications

97. You have completed an end-of-phase review meeting. Several actions and suggestions have been given to you as the project manager. You must document these and ensure that they become part of the project and organizational process assets (OPAs) from this point on. These actions and suggestions are called (the):

A. Project issues list

B. Lessons learned

C. Risk register items

D. Project documentation

98. Which of the following is the recommended way of reporting on project progress to stakeholders?

A. Regularly at preset times

B. Comprehensively at the end of the project

C. Regularly and on exception

D. On exception and at the end of the project

99. You have been asked to collect and provide performance information to the project stakeholders. This action is called:

A. Baselining the schedule

B. Stakeholder management

C. Performance analysis

D. Performance reporting

100. Work performance reports on the status of deliverables and what has been accomplished in the project is part of which process group?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Closing

D. Planning

101. You have many reports, including analysis of project forecasts, status of issues and risks, and work completed during the Manage Communications process. The collective name for this information is:

A. Performance measurements

B. Forecast completion

C. Performance reports

D. Deliverables status reports

102. You have been asked to give details of how you propose to develop the project team. What description best describes what you should be doing?

A. Improve the competencies of team members

B. Document the resource calendars of team members

C. Assign the appropriate people to activities on the project

D. Finalize roles and responsibilities in the project plan

103. You are discussing the work that you have been doing with a colleague. The activities include assisting others when the workload is unbalanced, sharing information, and communicating in diverse ways to suit individual team members. This group of activities is related to:

A. Communications planning

B. Effective team working

C. Improving team competencies

D. Management by objectives (MBO)

104. At your personal performance review, your line manager suggests many areas in which you can improve. These include understanding better the sentiments of the project team members and acknowledging their concerns. These skills are most related to:

A. Effective team working

B. Communication planning

C. Interpersonal skills

D. Negotiating techniques

105. You are required to develop a recognition and reward system for your project office. Which of the following is an appropriate basis for this system?

A. Reward only desirable behavior

B. Reward the team member of the month

C. Reward all team members who work overtime

D. Reward individualism, regardless of culture

106. Which type of organization complicates the management of the project team?

A. Functional

B. Matrix

C. Projectized

D. Hierarchical

107. Tracking team performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and coordinating changes to enhance project performance are all part of which process?

A. Develop Team

B. Perform Team

C. Manage Team

D. Build Team

108. Checking skills improvements, recording current competencies, and monitoring reduction in team turnover rates are related to:

A. Project staff assignments

B. Project team building activities

C. Recognition and reward systems

D. Team performance assessment

109. To help you manage the project team, you are using a system that documents who is responsible for resolving a specific problem by a target date. This system is called using (a):

A. Project risk register

B. Change control

C. Project issue log

D. Performance reports

110. You meet with the project sponsor, and the conversation covers the following topics: availability, competencies, experience, interests, and costs of the potential project team. A list or chart of these items is known as a(n):

A. Enterprise environmental factor (EEF)

B. Project resource histogram

C. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

D. Organizational hierarchy chart

111. Which of the following is an input to the Manage Quality process?

A. Quality metrics

B. Project requirements

C. Change requests

D. Validated deliverables

112. A project manager is reviewing a project that is in progress. She is trying to identify the best project practices being used and gaps between best practices and current practices, as well as sharing the best practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization. This is known as:

A. Developing the quality metrics

B. Performing a quality audit

C. Setting the quality baseline

D. Building quality checklists

113. You are coaching a new team member in your project. One of her functions is to recommend corrective actions to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization. This falls under the Manage Quality process ITTOs (inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs). This list of actions is documented as:

A. Change requests

B. Organizational process assets (OPAs) updates

C. Project management plan updates

D. Recommended preventive actions

114. As a project manager you must audit the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used. This is part of which of the following processes?

A. Improve Quality Standards

B. Manage Quality

C. Plan Quality

D. Plan Quality Improvement

115. You are managing the execution stage of a project. Your responsibilities include gathering data on actual start and finish dates of activities, along with remaining durations for work in progress. The work you are doing is involved with:

A. Cost variance analysis

B. Performance measurement

C. Performance reviews

D. Critical path analysis

116. You are managing a project that is running late. You have proposed corrective actions that will affect the schedule baseline. These actions are called:

A. Change requests

B. Action change control

C. Schedule baseline updates

D. Project scope updates

117. You are managing the execution of a project in your organization. You work with many people and groups regularly during this stage of a project. With whom do you work closely to direct, manage, and execute the project?

A. The project initiator and sponsor

B. The business unit as the customer

C. No one; as project manager, you assume full responsibility

D. The project management team

118. You are asked by your line manager to describe your current activities as a project manager. You list the activities as “obtain, manage, and use resources to accomplish the project objectives.” In what process group is this project?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Monitoring and Controlling

119. During the execution of a project, many influences drive a project manager’s activities. Which of the following is an input to this process?

A. Outstanding defects and faults

B. Administrative procedure edits

C. Approved change requests

D. Postponed change requests

120. You are managing a project that is time critical and essential for the survival of the business. You have many changes on this project. Which of the following do you spend your time scheduling into the work for the project team?

A. Likely changes to the schedule

B. Change requests to the scope

C. Requested changes to the budget

D. Approved change requests

121. A new team member has joined your project team and asks you what is a project deliverable from a generic perspective rather than for your project. Which of the following is the best answer to this question?

A. All items consumed in the project during the execution

B. The goods that are delivered to the shipping dock and are signed for

C. A product purchased according to the procurement plan

D. Something that is produced to complete the project

122. A quantitative standard of measurement typically used in projects to measure performance and progress is a:

A. Metric

B. Process

C. Tool

D. Technique

123. Which of the following tool sets will be most useful in facilitating project management activities to deliver the benefits of the project?

A. Creating the milestone plan

B. Estimating the task schedule

C. Estimating resource usage

D. Measuring project performance

124. What Project Integration Management processes do you manage as a part of the Executing process group?

A. Integrate Team, Develop Team, Close Team

B. Project Integration Planning, Acquire Project Team, Integrate Team

C. Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge

D. Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team

QUICK ANSWER KEY

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. D

5. B

6. A

7. B

8. C

9. B

10. C

11. A

12. B

13. B

14. D

15. D

16. A

17. B

18. B

19. B

20. D

21. B

22. B

23. B

24. D

25. B

26. B

27. C

28. B

29. A

30. D

31. A

32. A

33. A

34. A

35. D

36. C

37. B

38. A

39. D

40. D

41. B

42. C

43. C

44. D

45. C

46. A

47. D

48. C

49. B

50. B

51. D

52. A

53. B

54. C

55. A

56. D

57. D

58. C

59. A

60. C

61. C

62. B

63. A

64. D

65. C

66. B

67. D

68. B

69. A

70. D

71. C

72. B

73. A

74. C

75. D

76. D

77. C

78. A

79. C

80. D

81. B

82. C

83. D

84. A

85. C

86. C

87. A

88. C

89. A

90. B

91. C

92. D

93. C

94. A

95. D

96. D

97. B

98. C

99. D

100. B

101. C

102. A

103. B

104. C

105. A

106. B

107. C

108. D

109. D

110. B

111. A

112. B

113. C

114. B

115. C

116. A

117. D

118. B

119. C

120. D

121. D

122. A

123. D

124. C

ANSWERS

A. Crash the schedule.

B. Keep the soft logic decisions and fast-track the activities on the critical path.

C. Fast-track the schedule.

D. Remove the soft logic and do more of the remaining tasks/activities concurrently.

Images D. When you remove the discretionary dependencies, you are now ready to fast-track and do more task activities in parallel, leaving the rest of the work on the critical path.

Images A is incorrect because crashing is a way to shorten the schedule by adding more resources. B is incorrect because when fast tracking is used, soft logic should be reviewed and considered for modification or removal. C is incorrect because just fast tracking alone will not overcome the discretionary dependencies.

A. During all phases of the project life cycle

B. During the execution phase of the project life cycle

C. At the beginning of the project during the project kick-off meeting

D. When a major deliverable is completed during any phase of the project

Images A. Lessons learned can occur at key times in a project: the team delivers something, the end of a phase, and the end of the project.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all too limiting. Stakeholders need to know about what could be improved, what to incorporate in the rest of the project, and what to add to organizational process assets.

3. You decide to conduct regular QA audits on the SCAN project. The major purpose is to:

A. Document best practices and noncompliance issues and forward these to the PMO

B. Confirm the implementation of approved change requests

C. Verify that the quality management plan is being followed

D. Determine if policies, processes, and procedures are complying with benefits realization

Images B. Approved change requests, including updates, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions, are confirmed in a quality audit.

Images A is incorrect because documenting best practices is part of lessons learned, and the results of the quality audit are forwarded to the requester of the audit, not necessarily the PMO. C is incorrect because the quality management plan should be reviewed to ensure that decisions are based on accurate information. D is incorrect because the benefits management plan is evaluated later to determine if benefits are realized.

A. Rely on the functional manager to assign the proper amount of work

B. Use the resource allocation team (RAT) to work with your project team to outsource some of the work

C. Use the resource calendar to document the time periods she is working

D. Meet with the product development person and prioritize her work

Images D. Assigning and prioritizing work is a primary responsibility of the project manager.

Images A is incorrect because the project manager assigns the work, not the functional area manager. B is incorrect because a risk assessment team (RAT) may be the name of a company team that assesses risks, but this is not a PMI term, nor are risks directly related to who assigns work in a project. C is incorrect because a resource calendar identifies the working days for each resource.

A. Meet with each of them weekly to generate decisions, actions, or awareness

B. Set up work performance reports for each one to determine recognition and rewards

C. Ask each of them to prepare an individual development plan for your review

D. Conduct a formal review with each of them at the end of each phase

Images B. Work performance reports will help you manage the team and make decisions about recognition and rewards.

Images A is incorrect because meeting weekly is too frequent to discuss the performance of each team member. Monthly or quarterly meetings are recommended. C is incorrect because an individual development plan is prepared yearly by the project manager and the team member and reviewed periodically during the year. D is incorrect because formal reviews are usually performed annually.

6. As part of implementing risk responses, you are updating your risk report. You should include:

A. Any changes to overall risk exposure

B. Impact of identified risks on achieving project benefits

C. A change request process for risks that occur that affect project team assignments

D. A revised list of prioritized issues that affect the project’s objectives

Images A. The risk report may be updated to include changes to overall project risk exposure that are made because of the Implement Risk Responses process.

Images B is incorrect because the risk register already includes the impact of identified risks on achieving project benefits and was being monitored before implementing the risk response. C is incorrect because the question does not mention limiting the risk responses to those that affect project team assignments. D is incorrect because the issue log includes a revised list of prioritized issues that affect the project’s objectives.

7. As part of your Implement Risk Responses process, for a risk you should.

A. Specify the risk thresholds based on the risk appetite of the sponsor

B. Encourage risk owners to take necessary action, if required

C. Document the risk description and impact if it happens

D. Inform project stakeholders of all ranked risks

Images B. Accepting a risk acknowledges its existence, and no proactive action is taken.

Images A is incorrect because specifying the risk thresholds based on the risk appetite of the sponsor is part of planning risk management. C is incorrect because you document risks in the risk register, and you inform stakeholders in a risk meeting. D is incorrect because even if the risk is a low-priority threat, the risk will still be added to the risk register and monitored in risk meetings.

A. To connect every team member so they can share knowledge management

B. To make reverse shadowing mandatory to build trust

C. To share explicit knowledge for your team

D. To focus the team on organizational learning

Images C. Library services are an information management tool and technique for sharing codified explicit knowledge.

Images A is incorrect because information management tools and techniques connect people to information. B is incorrect because reverse shadowing (where a more junior member of staff, who is recognized as one of the organization’s lynch pins, shares some of their hard-earned experience with a colleague from the managerial/leadership cadre on how to circumnavigate barriers in order to deliver a key piece of work effectively and efficiently) is a tool and technique used in knowledge management. D is incorrect because expert judgment is a tool and technique of the Manage Project Knowledge process and uses an individual’s specialized knowledge of organizational learning.

A. Get commitments in writing that the functional manager will allocate the team member to your project for two years

B. Encourage the project team to collaborate/problem-solve to build consensus and commitment

C. Give certificates of appreciation to the functional team members at key milestone points to influence them to stay on the project

D. Have each team member sign a letter of intent stating that he or she will stay on the project until completion

Images B. Encouraging collaborative problem solving improves consensus and commitment to the team. It also creates a cohesive team culture.

Images A is incorrect because even if the functional manager commits in writing to allocating the team member to your project, there is still no guarantee the commitment would be honored when business/strategy changes. C is incorrect because certificates of appreciation will only be effective if they satisfy a need that is valued by that individual. D is incorrect because a letter of intent (LOI) is a document outlining the general plans of an agreement between two or more parties before a legal agreement is finalized. A letter of intent is not a contract and cannot be legally enforced; however, it signifies a serious commitment from one involved party to another.

A. Use structured interviews and focus group tools

B. Conduct individual team member assessments

C. Evaluate the openness of information sharing and experiences among the team

D. Formally establish a job shadowing program and encourage teams from each country to participate

Images C. Cohesiveness and staff turnover rate are both based on trust and open communications. Team effectiveness is the capacity of a team to accomplish the goals or objectives of the project. Reducing turnover rate reduces the time teams spend going through the Tuckman ladder and improves productivity.

Images A is incorrect because structured interviews and focus groups work well in requirements elicitation and do relate to staff turnover rate. B is incorrect because individual assessments can be used to improve understanding and trust. Team performance assessments can be used to improve team interaction. D is incorrect because work shadowing (working with another employee who might have a different job in hand, might have something to teach, or can help the person shadowing him or her to learn new aspects related to the job, organization, certain behaviors or competencies) is a tool and technique used in knowledge management so the team can work together to create new knowledge.

A. Use emotional intelligence to control the sentiments of team members

B. Focus on goals to be served and ask that emotions be left outside the project

C. Emphasize areas of agreement rather than areas of difference

D. Maintain a good relationship with the project sponsor

Images A. Emotional intelligence (the ability to manage your emotions and others’ emotions) leads directly to reducing conflict and making positive decisions.

Images B is incorrect because focusing only on the goals is too “task” oriented and not enough “relationship” oriented. C is incorrect because this is the definition of the smoothing technique used in conflict resolution. D is incorrect because it is one of the factors that influence conflict resolution methods.

A. Switch to a critical success factor approach

B. Tell them you are relying on the Project Management Information System (PMIS) as one way to evaluate progress

C. Enable them to have full access to the lessons learned repository

D. Set up a red-amber-green dashboard that emphasizes value and quality rather than the Triple Constraint Triangle

Images B. The PMIS provides access to IT tools as well as corporate knowledge base repositories. Overall project performance can be determined by accessing the Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) in the PMIS.

Images A is incorrect because whether you have a Critical Success Factor (CSF) reporting approach or you use KPIs, the PMIS allows access to the information. C is incorrect because the lessons learned repository contains the lessons learned register. The lessons learned register is transferred to the lessons learned repository at the end of a project or phase. D is incorrect because a RAG dashboard is commonly used in project status reporting to communicate the level of risk.

13. You are outlining and guiding the selection of resources and assigning them to their respective activities. Which of the following tools and techniques would be least helpful to you?

A. Decision making

B. Resource calendars

C. Negotiation

D. Pre-assignment

Images B. The question asks about tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process, and resource calendars are a needed input to this process, so would not be designated as “least” important.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they are the right tools and techniques to use in the Acquire Resources process.

14. You are leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan. Which of the following actions would be least helpful to you?

A. Allocate available resources

B. Manage organizational interfaces

C. Analyze work performance data

D. Leverage prior organizational knowledge

Images D. The question is asking about the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Leveraging prior organizational knowledge is expertise that could be considered in the expert judgment technique.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect in this case because they are all project activities to complete project deliverables and accomplish established objectives.

15. Leadership and management are about getting things done. In the execution phase, leadership differs from management in that:

A. Leadership is about demonstrating the value of project management

B. Management is about delivering better strategic outcomes

C. Leadership includes making sure the project is delivered on target, on schedule, and on budget

D. Leadership involves guiding, motivating, and directing the project team

Images D. Leadership involves working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another.

Images A is incorrect because management is about demonstrating the value of project management. B is incorrect because leadership is about delivering better strategic outcomes. C is incorrect because project management is the art and science of getting the project done—on target, on schedule, and on budget.

16. Decision making is the ability to negotiate and influence the project team. A guideline for effective decision making is:

A. Follow a decision-making process

B. Seek a compromise/reconcile solution

C. Improve the efficiency of conflict resolution

D. Apply both leadership and management techniques

Images A. Decision making in this context follows six guidelines. “Follow a decision-making process” is guideline #2.

Images B is incorrect because it is one of the five general techniques for solving conflict. C is incorrect because it is one of the goals of conflict resolution. D is incorrect because applying leadership and management techniques are what you do when performing project management.

A. Establishing high team performance

B. Encouraging collaborative problem solving

C. Providing “stretch” objectives

D. Setting up a project room

Images B. A servant leader/facilitator encourages collaboration through interactive meetings and knowledge sharing.

Images A is incorrect because high-performing teams are a result of the project manager’s skills to motivate and inspire project teams. C is incorrect because providing challenges is one way a project manager can create an environment that encourages teamwork. D is incorrect because establishing a “war room” is an organizational placement strategy that will improve communications.

18. Translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities during the execution phase is:

A. Execute Quality Management

B. Manage Quality

C. Control Quality

D. Project Quality Management

Images B. This is the definition of the Manage Quality process.

Images A is incorrect because Execute Quality Management is a made-up term. C is incorrect because Control Quality is a Monitoring and Controlling process group. D is incorrect because Project Quality Management is the name of a knowledge area.

19. A structured, independent process to determine whether project activities comply with project policies, processes, and procedures is called a:

A. Quality inspection

B. Quality audit

C. Retrospective

D. Quality demo

Images B. This is the definition of a quality audit.

Images A is incorrect because a quality inspection involves reviewing the product to see if it meets the defined quality norms. Conducting reviews is an example of inspection. C is incorrect because at the end of each sprint, a sprint review meeting is held. During this meeting, the Scrum team shows what they accomplished during the sprint. Typically, this takes the form of a demo of the new features. D is incorrect because at the end of each sprint, the team holds a sprint review meeting where the team must demonstrate the user stories completed during the sprint to the product owner and other interested stakeholders.

20. A key benefit of the Manage Team process is that it:

A. Requires subject matter experts to create sustainable solutions

B. Selects team members who can deal with high rates of change

C. Implements a zero-sum reward and recognition system for the team

D. Influences team behavior to optimize project performance

Images D. The Manage Team process influences team behavior, manages conflict, and resolves issues.

Images A is incorrect because subject matter experts are used for expert knowledge based on an application area. B is incorrect because selecting change-tolerant team members would be useful in an agile environment. C is incorrect because project managers should avoid zero-sum awards where only one project team member can win the award, such as project team member of the month. These rewards can damage trust among the project team.

21. Which of the following is a tool and technique of the Manage Communications process?

A. Reporting performance

B. Project reporting

C. Work performance reports

D. Project communications

Images B. Project reporting is the act of collecting and distributing project information in the Manage Communications process.

Images A is incorrect because reporting performance is not a tool; it would be an action, and of more specific use would be project reporting. C is incorrect because work performance reports are an input to the Manage Communications process. D is incorrect because project communications is an output of Manage Communications.

22. Which of the following trends and emerging practices in procurement management could have a negative effect on the success of your project?

A. Advances in tools

B. Permanent engagements

C. More advanced risk management

D. Changing contracting processes

Images B. Trial engagements are used to evaluate potential partners.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because all three are recognized as major trends in procurement that positively affect the success rate of projects.

23. An effective way to ensure that no prospective bidders receive preferential treatment is to hold a vendor conference. A vendor conference should be held:

A. Before you prepare the request for quotation (RFQ) so prices can be submitted by prospective sellers

B. Before prospective sellers submit their proposals and after procurement documents have been distributed

C. Before you issue the statement of work to the prospective sellers

D. After the contract is awarded so that unsuccessful vendors can improve their bid packages

Images B. Bidder conferences (contractor conferences/vendor conferences) are meetings between the buyer and prospective sellers prior to submitting proposals.

Images A is incorrect because if the seller is going to submit a price proposal, a good practice is for it to be separate from the technical proposal. C is incorrect because the procurement statement of work is developed from the scope baseline and defines what is to be included in the related contract. D is incorrect because after the contract is awarded is the time for unsuccessful bidders to meet with procurement to understand the proposal evaluation process.

24. Seller proposals is an input to:

A. Plan Procurement Management

B. Request Procurements

C. Procurement Strategy

D. Conduct Procurements

Images D. Seller proposals are an input to the Conduct Procurements process.

Images A is incorrect because Plan Procurement Management is a process in the Planning process group. B is incorrect because request procurements is not an activity of Plan Procurement Management. C is incorrect because procurement strategy is the planned approach to cost-effectively purchasing a company’s required goods and supplies.

25. You are translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities. Which of the following inputs will be least helpful to you?

A. Quality control measurements

B. Process improvement plan

C. Lessons learned register

D. Risk report

Images B. The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing project management and product development processes to identify activities that enhance their value.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they are all inputs to the Conduct Procurements process.

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

Images B. Project team members who have worked together in the past might skip a stage; instead of starting with forming, the team could move up the ladder to storming.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because it is common for the Tuckman team stages to occur in order: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning (reforming).

27. Negotiation is a key interpersonal and team skill used in the Conduct Procurements process. The negotiation should be led by:

A. The project manager working on behalf of the project sponsor

B. The senior member of the steering committee

C. A member of the procurement team who is authorized to sign contracts

D. The contracting officer representative assigned to the project

Images C. Procurement negotiation concludes with a signed document that can be executed by both seller and buyer.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because the project manager and other members of the project team may be present during procurement negotiation to help as needed.

A. Safety

B. Self-esteem

C. Physiological

D. Love/belonging

Images B. Although not found in the PMBOK Guide, Sixth Edition, questions about Maslow’s hierarchy of needs may be on your exam. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, level 3, self-esteem, is the need to have self-esteem and self-respect. Esteem presents the typical human desire to be accepted and valued by others. People often engage in a profession or hobby to gain recognition. These activities give the person a sense of contribution or value. Low self-esteem or an inferiority complex may result from imbalances during this level in the hierarchy.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they describe the most fundamental needs at the bottom of the hierarchy.

29. You have an optimistic, positive opinion of your project team, and you use a decentralized, participative management style. Douglas McGregor called this:

A. Theory Y

B. Theory X

C. Theory W

D. Theory Z

Images A. Although not found in the PMBOK Guide, Sixth Edition, questions about McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y may be on your exam. Theory Y denotes a positive view of human nature and assumes individuals are generally industrious, creative, and able to assume responsibility and exercise self-control in their jobs.

Images B is incorrect because Theory X represents a negative view of human nature that assumes individuals generally dislike work, are irresponsible, and require close supervision to do their jobs. C is incorrect because so far, there is no Theory W attributed to anyone in the project management field. D is incorrect because Theory Z focuses on increasing employee loyalty to the company by providing a job for life, with a strong focus on the well-being of the employee, both on and off the job.

A. Project team assignments

B. Resource management plan

C. Resource breakdown structure

D. Physical resource assignments

Images D. This is the definition of physical resource assignments.

Images A is incorrect because project team assignments record the team members and their roles and responsibilities. B is incorrect because the resource management plan is an output of the Plan Resource Management process. C is incorrect because a resource breakdown structure is used in the Plan Resource Management process.

31. The Manage Project Knowledge process consists of:

A. Managing tacit and explicit knowledge

B. Knowledge sharing and codifying implicit knowledge

C. Making sure tools and techniques are shared by the stakeholders

D. Ensuring that all stakeholder knowledge needs are met

Images A. Explicit knowledge can be readily codified, and tacit knowledge is personal and difficult to express. The Manage Project Knowledge process is concerned with managing both explicit and tacit knowledge.

Images B is incorrect because codifying implicit knowledge is part of work done by a business analyst to create explicit knowledge. Codified explicit knowledge can be used in lessons learned. C is incorrect because tools are something tangible used in producing a product or result, and techniques are defined procedures used by a human resource to perform an activity to produce a product or result or deliver a service. D is incorrect because knowledge management is about making sure all the skills and expertise of the stakeholders are used throughout the project.

32. Corporate communications requirements are an example of:

A. Organizational process assets

B. A best practice in information management

C. A knowledge requirement for knowledge management

D. Enterprise environmental factors

Images A. Formal and informal communications are used to influence the Manage Project Knowledge process. Both are examples of organizational process assets.

Images B is incorrect because the answer is specific to “corporations,” whereas communication is not. C is incorrect because requirements are not referred to as “knowledge requirements.” D is incorrect because organizational communication requirements are organizational process assets, not enterprise environmental factors.

33. Design for X (DfX) is a(n):

A. Set of technical guidelines for the optimization of a specific aspect of the product design

B. Situational guideline for using agile approaches

C. Specific design tool that addresses specific aspects of a mature product

D. Agile tool used by everybody throughout the project

Images A. This is the definition of design for X (DfX).

Images B is incorrect because DfX is not a situational guideline, but rather a tool/technique of the Manage Quality process. C is incorrect because DfX is used in new product development. D is incorrect because DfX is not an agile tool.

34. Which of the following inputs for the Develop Team process documents the team values and operating guidelines?

A. Team charter

B. Project team assignments

C. Agile team manifesto

D. Single-team process framework

Images A. The team charter is where the team values and operating guidelines are documented.

Images B is incorrect because project team assignments identify the team and member roles and responsibilities. C is incorrect because the Agile Manifesto is the original and official definition of agile values and principles. D is incorrect because it is a made-up phrase.

35. Two of the common quality improvement tools are:

A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control (DMAIC) and three-point estimating

B. Design of experiments (DOE) and Mean time between failure (MTBF)

C. Logical data models and Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers (SIPOC)

D. Plan-do-check-act (PDCA) and Six Sigma

Images D. Trends and emerging practices in project quality management include PDCA, as defined by Shewhart and implemented by Deming. Six Sigma may improve project management processes and products.

Images A is incorrect because DMAIC is an acronym for Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control and refers to a data-driven improvement cycle used for improving, optimizing, and stabilizing business processes and designs. The DMAIC improvement cycle is the core tool used to drive Six Sigma projects. The three-point estimating technique is used in estimating time and costs. B is incorrect because design of experiments (DOE) is a statistical method used in the Plan Quality process, and mean time between failure (MTBF) is a key performance indicator. C is incorrect because logical data models are used in data architecture to show a detailed representation of an organization’s data, independent of any technology, and is described in business language; the SIPOC (Supplier, Input, Process, Output, Customer) model is a type of flowchart used to map procedures.

36. The least effective way to motivate team members is to ensure there is adequate:

A. Opportunity to grow

B. Application of professional skills

C. Financial reward

D. Appreciation

Images C. People are motivated when they feel they are valued in the organization. Money is a tangible aspect of a rewards system; intangible rewards could be even more effective.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect in this case because most project team members are motivated by an opportunity to grow, accomplish, be appreciated, and apply their professional skills to meet new challenges.

A. Plan Conflict Management

B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C. Manage Stakeholder Conflict

D. Manage Communications

Images B. The key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is that it allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders.

Images A and C are incorrect because they are not the name of recognized processes. D is incorrect because the Manage Communications process enables an effective and efficient information flow between the project team and the stakeholders.

38. In David McClelland’s needs-based motivational model, this determined results-driven approach is almost invariably present in the character makeup of all successful project managers:

A. People with strong achievement motivation

B. A strong power/authority motivation

C. Strong affiliation motivation

D. Motivational or needs “mix”

Images A. McClelland’s research suggests that the n-ach person is “achievement motivated” and therefore seeks achievement, attainment of realistic but challenging goals, and advancement in the job. There is a strong need for feedback as to achievement and progress and a need for a sense of accomplishment.

Images B is incorrect because McClelland theorizes two distinct types of power motivation: socialized power and personal power (n-pow), and this type of person is “authority motivated.” This does not indicate a successful project manager. The n-pow driver produces a need to be influential, effective, and make an impact. There is a strong need to lead and for their ideas to prevail. There is also motivation and need for increasing personal status and prestige. C is incorrect because the n-affil person is “affiliation motivated” and has a need for friendly relationships and is motivated for interaction with other people. The affiliation driver produces motivation and need to be liked and held in popular regard. These people are team players. D is incorrect because McClelland’s research did not identify a motivational or needs “mix” that affects working/managing style.

A. Sense of achievement

B. Job recognition and potential for promotion

C. The work itself and responsibility

D. Lifetime employment

Images D. This is the exception. Top pay and lifetime employment are not motivators; Herzberg called them hygiene factors. Pay means the pay or salary structure should be appropriate and reasonable. It must be equal and competitive to those in the same industry in the same domain. Job security means the organization must provide job security to the employees.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because they are motivators. The motivational factors yield positive satisfaction. These factors are inherent to work and motivate the employees to provide superior performance. These factors are called satisfiers, and employees find them intrinsically rewarding.

A. Set up an intranet site

B. Email and fax project status reports

C. Form an online community

D. Use information radiators

Images D. Information radiators are visible, physical displays that provide up-to-the-minute knowledge sharing without having to disturb the team.

Images A is incorrect because setting up a SharePoint site, wiki, or intranet site requires additional resources. B is incorrect because electronic communications will be either push or pull methods, and stakeholders will participate based on cost and time constraints. C is incorrect because forming an online community gives the opportunity to engage with stakeholders who are members of that community, and stakeholders may not have familiarity with the tools.

41. Which of the following project communications artifacts would be most useful in managing communications?

A. Issue log

B. Schedule progress

C. Risk register

D. Communications management plan

Images B. Schedule progress is monitored in the Control Schedule process.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they are project documents that may be updated when carrying out the Manage Communications process.

42. You are in the process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans. Which of the following actions is least likely to occur?

A. A change request to the cost baseline

B. A change request to the schedule baseline

C. A change request to the scope baseline

D. An update to the project team assignments

Images C. A change request to the scope baseline would come from the Control Scope process.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because they are most likely to occur during the Implement Risk Responses process.

A. Manage Communications

B. Manage Team Members

C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D. Direct and Manage Project Work

Images C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process of developing approaches to involve stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.

Images A is incorrect because the Manage Communications process enables an effective and efficient information flow between the project team and the stakeholders. B is incorrect because Manage Team Members is not the name of a process. D is incorrect because the Direct and Manage Project Work process is concerned with providing overall management of the project work and implementing approved changes.

A. Language management

B. Verbal feedback

C. Effective listening

D. Active listening

Images D. Active listening is a communication technique used in conflict resolution. It requires that the listener fully concentrate, understand, respond, and then remember what is being said.

Images A is incorrect because it is a made-up term. B is incorrect because verbal feedback is communication that is spoken. Feedback is defined as a return of information about a result or the returned portion of a process. C is incorrect because effective listening requires that communication is heard completely and effectively interpreted into meaningful messages. It requires knowledge of the subject being discussed and attention to the speaker.

A. List of preferred sellers that have been prequalified

B. Resource management systems

C. Prior agreements already in place

D. Resource pre-assignment in the project charter

Images C. Prior agreements already in place is an EEF that can influence the Conduct Procurements process.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect in this question because they are distracters—made-up words and phrases—not in the PMBOK Guide.

46. Who is primarily responsible for execution of the project management plan?

A. Project manager and project team

B. Project sponsor and project manager

C. Program sponsor and project manager

D. Program manager and project manager

Images A. The project management plan execution is the primary responsibility of the project manager and the project team once the initial planning activities are completed and execution of the project has begun.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because though it involves the project manager, the project team is not present.

A. Project scope, business case, project charter

B. Project management plan, communications plan, work breakdown structure (WBS)

C. Procurement management plan, contract statement of work, contract management plan

D. Defect repairs, corrective actions, preventive actions

Images D. This question lists deliverables of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. In addition to producing deliverables, this process implements approved change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions once they have been integrated within the relevant plans.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because each represents deliverables for processes other than the Direct and Manage Project Work process.

48. Key skills are needed to manage project data and the flow of information in and out of project processes. Which of the following is least useful in consolidating project data?

A. Organizing various data metrics

B. Using reporting tools to create and assemble the reports

C. Clarifying requirements

D. Communicating and presenting complex information

Images C. Consolidating project data requires us to use predefined reporting tools and methods to monitor project performance–required skills and organize various data metrics, analyze and evaluate appropriate project data, use reporting tools to create and assemble the reports, and communicate and present complex information.

Images A, B, and D are all useful aspects of consolidating project data.

A. Project board

B. Project managers

C. Project office

D. Project management office (PMO)

Images B. When you are establishing a management infrastructure, you must set up governance for all projects within the organization. This normally includes a project board, project management office, and project teams. Project managers are not normally involved directly with setting up governance for the project. Project managers execute and apply project governance as defined by the project management office.

Images A is incorrect because there is no entity referred to as the project board. C and D are incorrect because both reference the project management office, which may preexist the project, and the question is asking about governance when the project was first established.

50. Which of the following tool sets will be most useful in facilitating project management activities to deliver the benefits of the project?

A. Creation of the milestone plan

B. Measuring project performance

C. Estimation of task schedule

D. Estimating resource usage

Images B. Measuring project performance is an ongoing task during a project that will ensure you are tracking progress and benefits, measuring project performance, and communicating effectively.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because these activities take place during the planning of the project.

A. The “rich picture” approach

B. The “context diagram” from structured analysis

C. Lean manufacturing’s “A3”

D. eXtreme programming (XP) best practice

Images D. eXtreme programming is an approach used to code software project solutions and therefore doesn’t apply to all types of projects.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because each are valid techniques or notations used to charter new projects.

A. Schedule, budget, quality

B. Schedule, availability, level of expertise

C. Time, schedule, availability

D. Availability, level of expertise, commitment

Images A. When you charter projects, you assign project managers and allocate appropriate resources to meet project objectives. This requires knowledge of resource leveling and applying resource leveling within the constraints of schedule (time), budget, and quality.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because each is missing some aspect of schedule, budget, or quality.

A. Identifying market trends for benefits planning

B. Negotiating trade-offs with functional managers

C. Identifying personal aspirations

D. Identifying tools for resource determination

Images B. When you charter projects, you assign project managers and allocate appropriate resources to meet project objectives. This requires knowledge of matrix management and the use of project-perceived benefits as a means of cross-functional negotiation and the use of techniques to negotiate for trade-offs with functional managers.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the aspect of matrix management and the negotiations required.

54. Which of the following processes is focused on creating the project’s intended benefits?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Manage Quality

C. Direct and Manage Project Work

D. Manage Project Knowledge

Images C. The Direct and Manage Project Work process is what delivers the intended benefits.

Images A is incorrect because Plan Risk Management is a part of the Planning process group. B is incorrect because Manage Quality is a separate process in the Executing process group. D is incorrect because Manage Project Knowledge is a separate process in the Executing process group.

A. Identify career path within available and potential roles

B. Identify competence assessment techniques

C. Identify intellectual property

D. Create team ground rules and techniques

Images A. When you charter projects, you assign project managers and allocate appropriate resources to meet project objectives. This requires knowledge of line management and career development, where you identify personnel aspirations, identify career paths within available and potential roles, and communicate personal performance to line managers.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the aspect of managing the careers of team members in a matrix management situation.

A. Conflict resolution between team members

B. Analyzing data and reports

C. Scenario analysis

D. Maintaining work/life balance

Images D. Motivating the team using appropriate tools and techniques to increase commitment to the program deliverables requires skills in building a team, balancing discipline and recognition, maintaining work/life balance, mentoring members from the project team, ensuring a safe and secure working environment, allocating resources, conducting resource assessments, demonstrating leadership, demonstrating empathy, demonstrating a sense of integrity and ethics, demonstrating loyalty to the company and customer, facing the issues, collaborating with stakeholders, resource leveling, coaching and mentoring, and empowering.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not directly related to a team member’s individual commitment but instead are focused on conflict between team members.

A. Describing the organization’s culture

B. Describing the team structure and individual cultures

C. Maintaining cohesiveness among all teams

D. Establishing workgroups that consist of individual cultural groups

Images D. Motivating the team using appropriate tools and techniques to increase commitment to the project deliverables requires you to have knowledge of diversity awareness and be able to describe the organization’s culture, describe the team structure and individual cultures, establish a safe and secure work environment, and maintain cohesiveness among all teams.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not go far enough individually to create an awareness of the diverse population.

A. Facilitate coaching and mentoring across the teams

B. Measure resource retention and personal achievement

C. Map results to rewards

D. Complete a skill set inventory

Images C. Motivating the team using appropriate tools and techniques to increase commitment to the project deliverables requires you to have knowledge of rewards and recognition policies and to map results to rewards, design a commensurate incentive program, and demonstrate a sense of integrity and ethics.

Images A, B, and D refer to allocating appropriate resources to meet project objectives rather than reward and recognition policies.

59. What Project Resource Management processes do you manage as a part of the Executing process group?

A. Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team

B. Initiate Team, Develop Team, Close Team

C. Human Resource Planning, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team

D. Initiate Team, Acquire Team, Develop Team

Images A. The Project Resource Management processes that map to the Executing process group include Acquire Resources, Develop Team, and Manage Team.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because they each include processes that do not map from Project Resource Management to the Executing process group.

A. Training plan

B. Staffing management plan

C. Project preferred-vendor list

D. Training records

Images C. The Develop Team process builds individual and group competencies to enhance project performance. This process supports development of personnel by providing necessary knowledge and skills to the project or to relevant project management competencies. In this situation, key inputs would include the training plan, assign training resources, personnel records, project management plan, role and responsibility assignments, staffing management plan, and training records. These are parts of the Project Procurement Management knowledge area.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because these are useful ways to develop team skills and should be used.

A. Request for proposal (RFP)

B. Request for information (RFI)

C. Return on investment (ROI)

D. Request for quotation (RFQ)

Images C. Return on investment (ROI) is not part of the process of assessing contractors.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because each is involved in assessing potential contracts. The process of issuing a request for information (RFI), request for proposal (RFP), and request for quotation (RFQ) and obtaining the responses is the Conduct Procurements process. These formal documents are used in the initial stages of planning to help evaluate “make vs. buy” decisions, as well as to gain an understanding of seller interest and qualifications. Key inputs include evaluation criteria and preferred-vendor lists, and the key outputs are seller responses to requests.

A. Request for proposal (RFP)

B. Source selection criteria

C. Project budget

D. Lease agreements

Images B. The process for reviewing offers, choosing among potential sellers, and negotiating the details of the contract, including technical terms and conditions, roles and responsibilities, deliverables, and final cost, is part of the Conduct Procurements process and requires source selection criteria to complete. The key inputs for this process include source selection criteria, seller proposals, and bid documents.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not help the project manager in the selection process.

A. Work authorization system

B. Project management information system

C. Manage quality

D. Performance monitoring system

Images A. A collection of formal documented procedures defining how the project work will be authorized to ensure work is being done by the right organization, at the right time, and in the right sequence is a work authorization system.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because the project management information system, quality assurance system, and performance monitoring system serve purposes unrelated to documenting how work will be authorized.

A. Quality control measurements

B. Quality metrics

C. Risk report

D. Resource capabilities and availability

Images D. Resource capabilities and availability are not part of the input to managing quality.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because each is part of the process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will comply with the relevant quality policies and standards. This is the Manage Quality process. Key inputs for this process include the quality management plan, quality control measurements, quality metrics, and the risk report.

65. Several options are available to you in formulating the team on a project. Which of the following is a common method for staffing projects?

A. Requesting resources from the directors of functional managers through the project management office

B. Procuring resources from family members

C. Negotiating with functional managers

D. Preassigning external resources before internal resources

Images C. When performing the Acquire Resources process, you must be able to negotiate with functional managers or other project management teams within the performing organization.

Images A is incorrect because requesting resources from directors is a last resort and therefore uncommon. B and D are incorrect because they are not common occurrences for staffing projects. When performing the Acquire Resources process, you must be able to negotiate with functional managers or other project management teams within the performing organization. This is typically done for internal staff members. You also do pre-assignments when project team members are known in advance. You would not procure resources from family members.

A. Change the project scope.

B. Build trust and establish good working relationships.

C. Define a process for budget allocation.

D. Complete a skills inventory.

Images B. As a part of the Develop Team process, you perform team-building activities to build trust and establish good working relationships and to improve team relationships and communications to develop cohesiveness between the team members and other teams.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to team development.

A. Change control board

B. Stage gates

C. Change request reviews

D. Resource leveling

Images D. Resource leveling is a schedule compression technique, not a technique to manage project change.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because each will enable informed project decision making; you need to establish project consistency by deploying uniform standards, resources, infrastructure, tools, and processes. This requires knowledge of change acceptance procedures, which includes establishing a change control board, stage gates, and reviewing change requests.

A. Demonstrating the benefits of the project

B. Applying resource-leveling techniques

C. Developing a project data retrieval process

D. Applying the data retrieval process

Images B. Applying resource leveling is not related to consolidating information, but rather is a schedule compression technique.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because each will help maintain accurate and current project information for the use of stakeholders. You need to capture program status and data by ensuring the population of the project management information system. This requires you to consolidate information, which includes three steps: 1) demonstrate the benefits of project data consolidation, 2) develop a project data consolidation process, and 3) apply the data consolidation process.

A. Work performance reports

B. Social media

C. Web conferencing

D. Blogs

Images A. Work performance reports represent information that can be retrieved, but this is not a tool for retrieval.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because all are instances of organizational process assets that provide stakeholders with access to information that they can retrieve themselves.

A. Risk management plan

B. Human resource management plan

C. Communications management plan

D. Staffing management plan

Images D. Staffing information (found in the staffing management plan) should be reviewed prior to making personnel changes during the executing phase.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because project plans are used in the planning phase; by auditing the results of the use of these plans, you ensure that the project outcomes meet stakeholder expectations and standards.

A. Identifying existing personnel qualified for open positions

B. Negotiating for existing personnel with their functional management

C. Balancing the needs of the individual with the individual’s career path

D. Transitioning them to their project positions

Images C. Balancing the needs of the individual with the individual’s career path is a part of developing the project team and is least useful to performing the staffing requirement.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because each relates to activities helpful in staffing a project internally. The Acquire Resources process addresses the provision of resources for the project through selection of internal or external candidates. In this case, because they are staffing with internal resources, identifying existing personnel qualified for open positions, negotiating for existing personnel with their functional management, and transitioning them to their project positions are relevant activities.

A. Reporting project data

B. Creating an atmosphere of trust

C. Coaching and mentoring members of the project team

D. Analyzing appropriate project data

Images B. Knowledge exists within people, and sharing that information is best established by creating an atmosphere of trust that encourages safe sharing of information.

Images A and D are incorrect because they are related to specific types of knowledge rather than the big picture of sharing information. C is incorrect because coaching and mentoring may help team members share, but the sharing will still not take place without the atmosphere of trust being present first.

A. Co-location

B. Geographic leveling

C. Remote staffing

D. Peer transfer

Images A. Co-location places project team members in the same physical location.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because although many tools and techniques are used to develop a project team, geographic leveling, remote staff, and peer transfer are not among them.

A. Written reports distributed through a channeling system

B. Meetings and conferences with all the key players

C. Electronic communications and conferencing tools

D. Monthly or quarterly reviews

Images C. Electronic communication and conferencing tools help with information distribution and allow you to collect, share, and distribute timely information to stakeholders.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because each tends to be costly and includes inherent time delays that are adverse to project progress.

75. What are the key outputs of the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Evaluation criteria, proposals, and qualified sellers lists

B. Evaluation criteria and project preferred-vendor lists

C. RFIs, RFPs, and RFQs

D. Procurement statement of work, selected sellers, and change requests

Images D. The key outputs of the Conduct Procurements process include procurement statement of work, selected sellers, and change requests. The process for reviewing offers, choosing among potential sellers, and negotiating the details of the contract—including technical terms and conditions, roles and responsibilities, deliverables, and final cost—is the Conduct Procurements process.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because all are involved in conducting procurements as inputs or tasks, but not as outputs.

A. Pre-project setup

B. Initiation

C. Project planning

D. Execution

Images D. It is in the execution phase that projects deliver the incremental benefits focused on carrying out the work of the project and assuring benefits are occurring, stakeholders are engaged, and governance is performed.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because these aspects take place before carrying out plans.

A. Manage quality

B. Stakeholder engagement

C. Project governance

D. Benefits delivery

Images C. Project governance focuses on oversight of the project. This is carried out through phase gate reviews to aid in project control and provides an objective check against exit criteria.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because each is unrelated to verifying that team leaders are following project management methodologies.

A. Work authorization system

B. Project management information system

C. Quality assurance system

D. Performance monitoring system

Images A. A collection of formal documented procedures defining how project work will be authorized to ensure work is being done by the right organization, at the right time, and in the right sequence is a work authorization system.

A. Quality management plan

B. Quality metrics

C. Resource availability

D. Lessons learned register

Images C. Resource availability is not an input into the Manage Quality process.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because each is part of the process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will comply with the relevant quality policies and standards, which are part of the Manage Quality process. Key inputs for this process include the quality management plan, quality metrics, and lessons learned register.

A. Human resource management plan

B. Quality management plan

C. Personnel assignment plan

D. Resource management plan

Images D. As a project manager, you execute appropriate project plans, including the risk management plan, quality management plan, communications management plan, resource management plan, and other applicable plans in the project management plan. You use the tools identified in the planning phase, and by auditing the results of the use of these plans, you ensure that the project outcomes meet stakeholder expectations and standards. The plan with staffing information in it is the resource management plan.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because none are the specific plans that will be updated for staff changes.

A. Business analyst

B. Project team

C. Project managers

D. PMO

Images B. Executing the project management plan becomes the primary responsibility of the project manager, together with the project team, once the initial planning activities are completed and execution of the project has begun.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because all are a part of or associated with the project team, but are not the same as the project team being responsible for carrying out the work.

82. In addition to producing deliverables, the Direct and Manage Project Work process implements which of the following the least?

A. Approved change requests

B. Corrective actions

C. Key performance indicators

D. Preventive actions

Images C. Key performance indicators are planned before project execution and tracked in the PMIS.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because in addition to producing deliverables, the Direct and Manage Project Work process implements approved change requests, corrective actions, and preventive actions once they have been integrated with the relevant plans.

83. Which project management processes in the Executing process group provide change requests as an input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution, Schedule Control

B. Manage Quality, Project Contract Administration

C. Direct and Manage Project Work, Perform Quality Control

D. Implement Risk Responses, Manage Quality, Direct and Manage Project Work

Images D. The Executing processes provide change requests as an input to the Perform Integrated Change Control processes of Implement Risk Responses, Manage Quality, and Direct and Manage Project Work.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because each contains a variation of processes but not the exact inputs to the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

A. Large project

B. Program

C. Operation

D. Functional area

Images A. Although the large project is split into smaller, more manageable projects, taken together the director is managing a large project.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because the director is not managing a project, an operation, or a functional area in the company.

A. Centralized staffing

B. Remote staffing

C. Co-location

D. Peer transfer

Images C. Co-location will be necessary to place staff members side by side to work.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because none will result in placing team members side by side to work.

A. Meetings

B. RACI (responsible, accountable, inform, consult) chart

C. Project management information system

D. Resource breakdown structure

Images C. A project management information system (PMIS) will help provide timely and accurate project information to stakeholders. Information distribution is the process of providing timely and accurate information to project stakeholders in useful formats and appropriate media. It includes administration of three major communication channels: the client, the sponsors, and the project team.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because none will result in information being distributed to the project team.

A. Establishing work groups that consist of individual cultural groups

B. Identifying and understanding the organization’s culture

C. Describing the team structure and individual cultures

D. Maintaining cohesiveness among all cross-divisional teams

Images A. Establishing workgroups that consist of individual cultural groups is averse to these ideals. To increase commitment to the project deliverables, you need to motivate the team using appropriate tools and techniques. This requires you to have knowledge of diversity awareness and be able to describe the organization’s culture, describe the team structure and individual cultures, establish a safe and secure work environment, and maintain cohesiveness among all teams.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because each will help establish an awareness of the diversity in your team.

A. Seller responses

B. Executed seller risk plans

C. Selected sellers

D. Planned project contracting

Images C. Sellers are selected in the Conduct Procurements process where a project manager reviews offers, chooses among potential sellers, and negotiates the details of the contract, including technical terms and conditions, roles and responsibilities, deliverables, and final cost.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because these are not needed to complete the Conduct Procurements process.

A. Evaluation criteria

B. Request for proposal (RFP)

C. Project budget

D. Lease agreements

Images A. Evaluation criteria will be helpful in being fair and equitable when choosing a contractor. The process for reviewing offers, choosing among potential sellers, and negotiating the details of the contract, including technical terms and conditions, roles and responsibilities, deliverables, and final cost, is the Conduct Procurements process. The key inputs for this process include source selection criteria, seller proposals, and bid documents.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because the RFP is sent to the sellers, and project budget and lease agreements are part of other processes.

A. Seller rating system

B. Expert judgment

C. Screening system

D. Bidder conference

Images B. Expert judgment is the specific technique for evaluating sellers’ proposals that involves evaluation of the proposals by a multidiscipline team containing members with specialist knowledge in each of the areas covered by the proposed contract.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Having proposals evaluated by a multidiscipline team containing members with specialist knowledge in each of the areas covered by the proposed contract is known as using expert judgment. Seller rating systems are based on past performance. Screening systems are based on predefined minimum levels of compliance to requirements. Bidder conferences are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and mutual understanding of the procurement.

91. Within the Conduct Procurements process, the procurement management plan, seller proposals, and source selection criteria are examples of:

A. Contract types

B. Tools and techniques

C. Inputs

D. Outputs

Images C. The procurement management plan, seller proposals, and source selection criteria are examples of inputs to the Conduct Procurements process.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. They are not contract types, tools and techniques, or outputs.

A. Request seller responses

B. Contract status meeting

C. Project progress meeting

D. Bidder conference

Images D. A structured meeting to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and mutual understanding of the procurement you require is called a bidder conference.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Request seller responses occurs after this conference takes place and is not a common meeting. A contract status meeting may be internal or with a single seller. A project progress meeting may discuss the potential sellers, and this is not generally an open meeting.

93. The part of the procurement process involving obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Qualified sellers list

B. Bidder conference

C. Conduct procurements

D. Selected sellers

Images C. The part of the procurement process involving obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called Conduct Procurements.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. A qualified sellers list is an input to this process, bidder conferences are tools and techniques used within this process, and selected sellers is an output of the process.

94. You are part of a team running a complex project spanning several years and involving several subcontractors. The contracts signed for this project might or will end during:

A. Any phase of the project

B. The completion phase

C. The execution phase

D. The acceptance phase

Images A. In a complex project involving many contracts and subcontractors, each contract life cycle can end during any phase of the project as and when the deliverables are accepted.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. In a complex project involving many contracts and subcontractors, each contract life cycle can end during any phase of the project as and when the deliverables are accepted, not only at the end of one phase.

95. Documenting the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and the root causes and of the effectiveness of managing risk is called (a):

A. Implement risk responses

B. Risk identification

C. Risk analysis

D. Risk audit

Images D. The actions of documenting the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and the root causes, and of the effectiveness of the risk management process, are known as a risk audit.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Risk mitigation is a specific set of alternatives to manage risk. Risk identification and risk analysis are processes used to build a risk management plan.

96. When engaging project stakeholders, you may use many different techniques, including written and oral and both giving and receiving. These techniques are examples of what type of skills?

A. Influence

B. Negotiating

C. Delegation

D. Communications

Images D. Written and oral communication techniques are a part of communications skills.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Influence skills, negotiating skills, and delegation skills are different attributes of the soft skills set that a project manager should have.

A. Project issues list

B. Lessons learned

C. Risk register items

D. Project documentation

Images B. Actions and suggestions that are documented and become part of the project and organization processes from this point on are called lessons learned.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because project issues may become lessons learned; a risk register is for actions that may also become lessons learned. Project documentation is a broad topic for the whole project and does include lessons learned.

98. Which of the following is the recommended way of reporting on project progress to stakeholders?

A. Regularly at preset times

B. Comprehensively at the end of the project

C. Regularly and on exception

D. On exception and at the end of the project

Images C. Generally, regular reports are required by stakeholders, and exception reports should be issued as appropriate.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Generally regular reports are required by stakeholders, and exception reports should be issued as appropriate.

99. You have been asked to collect and provide performance information to the project stakeholders. This action is called:

A. Baselining the schedule

B. Stakeholder management

C. Performance analysis

D. Performance reporting

Images D. Performance reporting is the act of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Baselining the project is a specific action to record the planned schedule, budget, etc. Stakeholder management is analyzing and communicating with the stakeholders. Performance analysis may be a part of the input to performance reporting.

100. Work performance reports on the status of deliverables and what has been accomplished in the project is part of which process group?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Closing

D. Planning

Images B. Work performance reports on the status of deliverables and what has been accomplished in the project are part of the Executing process group.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Work performance reports on the status of deliverables and what has been accomplished in the project are part of the Executing process group.

A. Performance measurements

B. Forecast completion

C. Performance reports

D. Deliverables status reports

Images C. Information that includes bar charts, S-curves, histograms, and tables for the data analyzed against the project baseline is known as performance reports.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Performance measurements, forecast completion, and deliverables status are all inputs to the performance reporting process.

102. You have been asked to give details of how you propose to develop the project team. What description best describes what you should be doing?

A. Improve the competencies of team members

B. Document the resource calendars of team members

C. Assign the appropriate people to activities on the project

D. Finalize roles and responsibilities in the project plan

Images A. The Develop Team process includes activities such as improving the competencies of team members.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Document the resource calendars of team members, assign the appropriate people to activities on the project, and finalize roles and responsibilities in the project plan are outputs of the Acquire Resources process.

A. Communications planning

B. Effective team working

C. Improving team competencies

D. Management by objectives (MBO)

Images B. Activities including assisting others when the workload is unbalanced, sharing information, and communicating in diverse ways to suit the individual team members are related to effective team work.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Communications planning is a planning activity. Improving team competencies is related to developing the project team. Management by objectives is related to objective setting and measurement and is not mentioned in the question.

A. Effective team working

B. Communication planning

C. Interpersonal skills

D. Negotiating techniques

Images C. Understanding better the sentiments of the project team members and acknowledging their concerns are examples of interpersonal skills.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Effective team work includes assisting others when the workload is unbalanced, sharing information, and communicating in diverse ways. Communication planning is about planning how to communicate to the team. Negotiation techniques are not as described in the question.

105. You are required to develop a recognition and reward system for your project office. Which of the following is an appropriate basis for this system?

A. Reward only desirable behavior

B. Reward the team member of the month

C. Reward all team members who work overtime

D. Reward individualism, regardless of culture

Images A. Only desirable behavior should be rewarded in a recognition and reward system.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Rewarding the team member of the month and rewarding all team members who work overtime will damage the team. Rewarding individualism, regardless of culture, may not always be appropriate.

106. Which type of organization complicates the management of the project team?

A. Functional

B. Matrix

C. Projectized

D. Hierarchical

Images B. Management of the project team is complicated when team members are accountable to both a functional and a project manager, as in a matrix organization.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Functional and project organizations have clear accountability. Hierarchical organizations are the norm.

107. Tracking team performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and coordinating changes to enhance project performance are all part of which process?

A. Develop Team

B. Perform Team

C. Manage Team

D. Build Team

Images C. Tracking team performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and coordinating changes to enhance project performance are all part of the Manage Team process.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Recognition and reward systems, team performance assessment, and team-building activities are all part of developing the project team process.

108. Checking skills improvements, recording current competencies, and monitoring reduction in team turnover rates are related to:

A. Project staff assignments

B. Project team building activities

C. Recognition and reward systems

D. Team performance assessment

Images D. Checking skills improvements, recording current competencies, and monitoring reduction in team turnover rates are part of project team performance assessment.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Project staff assignments are an input to developing the project team. Recognition and reward systems, as well as team-building activities, are part of developing the project team process.

109. To help you manage the project team, you are using a system that documents who is responsible for resolving a specific problem by a target date. This system is called using (a):

A. Project risk register

B. Change control

C. Project issue log

D. Performance reports

Images D. Performance reports are related to staff management.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. A system that documents who is responsible for resolving a specific problem by a target date is known as using a project issue log. A project risk register is a specific tool for identifying, tracking, and resolving risks. Change control is the process that supports changes to any item or process within the project.

A. Enterprise environmental factor (EEF)

B. Project resource histogram

C. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

D. Organizational hierarchy chart

Images B. The project resource histogram shows use of resources on a time base.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Acquiring the project team has the following inputs to the enterprise environmental factors: availability, competencies, experience, interests, and costs of the potential project team. The responsibility assignment matrix is done once the issues in the question have been defined. The organization hierarchy chart does not include the topics in the question.

111. Which of the following is an input to the Manage Quality process?

A. Quality metrics

B. Project requirements

C. Change requests

D. Validated deliverables

Images A. Quality metrics are an input to the Manage Quality process.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Project requirements are not usually quality inputs. Change requests are an output of Manage Quality. Verified deliverables are an output of Control Quality.

A. Developing the quality metrics

B. Performing a quality audit

C. Setting the quality baseline

D. Building quality checklists

Images B. Identifying the good/best practices being implemented, identifying gaps/shortcomings, sharing the good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry, proactively improving process implementation, and highlighting the results in the lessons learned repository is known as performing a quality audit.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Quality metrics are an input to quality assurance and define the quality control measurements. The quality baseline records the quality objectives for the project. Quality checklists are component specific.

A. Change requests

B. Organizational process assets (OPAs) updates

C. Project management plan updates

D. Recommended preventive actions

Images C. Project management plan updates are related to changes to the quality management plan.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Actions that have been recommended to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization are documented as change requests. Change requests can be used to take corrective or preventive action or to perform defect repair. Process assets updates are changes to the processes.

A. Improve Quality Standards

B. Manage Quality

C. Plan Quality

D. Plan Quality Improvement

Images B. Manage Quality process ensures that appropriate quality standards are used.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Plan Quality is related to establishing the quality requirements and/or standards for the project. Monitoring and recording results of executing quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes is Control Quality. Quality improvement is an organizational development process.

A. Cost variance analysis

B. Performance measurement

C. Performance reviews

D. Critical path analysis

Images C. Gathering actual start and finish dates of activities, along with remaining durations for work in progress, is known as performance reviews.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Cost variance analysis compares baseline to actual data. Performance measurement is a specific earned value technique. Critical path analysis is a planning tool.

116. You are managing a project that is running late. You have proposed corrective actions that will affect the schedule baseline. These actions are called:

A. Change requests

B. Action change control

C. Schedule baseline updates

D. Project scope updates

Images A. Schedule variance analysis, along with project report reviews and performance measure results, can result in change requests to the schedule baseline.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Action change control does not itself constitute corrective actions. Schedule baseline updates may not be a result of the activity described. Project scope updates are not necessarily implied.

A. The project initiator and sponsor

B. The business unit as the customer

C. No one; as project manager, you assume full responsibility

D. The project management team

Images D. The project manager cannot do it all. She needs to work with the team to execute the range of activities to be performed.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. The project manager, in conjunction with the project management team, directs, manages, and executes the project. The project sponsor or initiator does not manage the day-to-day activities of the project. The business unit/customer receives the deliverables from the project.

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Monitoring and Controlling

Images B. The definition of the Executing process group is “obtain, manage, and use resources to accomplish the project objectives.”

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. The other stages do not match the description given of the activities.

119. During the execution of a project, many influences drive a project manager’s activities. Which of the following is an input to this process?

A. Outstanding defects and faults

B. Administrative procedure edits

C. Approved change requests

D. Postponed change requests

Images C. The execution process has many inputs defined. These are approved documents or actions. The correct answer is “approved change requests.”

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. The answers are not inputs to the execution process.

A. Likely changes to the schedule

B. Change requests to the scope

C. Requested changes to the budget

D. Approved change requests

Images D. Only approved changes should be scheduled into the project activities.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Likely changes have not been approved and should not be scheduled into the project workload. Requests for change are approved only through the formal change control process.

A. All items consumed in the project during the execution

B. The goods that are delivered to the shipping dock and are signed for

C. A product purchased according to the procurement plan

D. Something that is produced to complete the project

Images D. Deliverables are produced as outputs from the processes described in the project management plan.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Not all tasks produce project deliverables, and not all WBS elements produce project deliverables. The initial project scope document does not list project deliverables.

122. A quantitative standard of measurement typically used in projects to measure performance and progress is a:

A. Metric

B. Process

C. Tool

D. Technique

Images A. A metric is a description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it. An example of a quality metric is the number of defects identified per day.

Images B is incorrect because a process is a systematic series of activities directed toward causing a result. C is incorrect because a tool is something tangible, such as a template or software program. D is incorrect because a technique is a defined systematic procedure employed by a human resource.

123. Which of the following tool sets will be most useful in facilitating project management activities to deliver the benefits of the project?

A. Creating the milestone plan

B. Estimating the task schedule

C. Estimating resource usage

D. Measuring project performance

Images D. Projects are initiated to realize business opportunities and deliver business benefits. The success of the project is measured against the project objectives, and the most useful tool set in facilitating project management activities to deliver the benefits of the project is to measure and monitor project performance.

Images A is incorrect because the milestone plan is frequently used to monitor project progress, but there are limitations to its effectiveness. The milestone plan usually shows progress only on the critical path and ignores noncritical activities. B is incorrect because estimating the schedule’s tasks and activities will provide the amount of time each activity will take to complete—not tell you how the work is progressing. C is incorrect because estimating resource usage will tell you the type, quantity, and characteristics of resources required to complete the project.

124. What Project Integration Management processes do you manage as a part of the Executing process group?

A. Integrate Team, Develop Team, Close Team

B. Project Integration Planning, Acquire Project Team, Integrate Team

C. Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge

D. Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team

Images C. The two processes in the Executing process group that are in the Project Integration Management knowledge area are Direct and Manage Project Work and Manage Project Knowledge.

Images A and B are incorrect because these processes are made-up terms. D is incorrect because these three processes are the Executing processes in the Project Resource Management knowledge area.