PMP® Project Management Professional Practice Exams

CHAPTER 5 The Monitoring and Controlling Domain

This chapter includes questions from the following tasks:

• Task 1 Measure project performance using appropriate tools and techniques in order to identify and quantify any variances and corrective actions.

• Task 2 Manage changes to the project by following the change management plan in order to ensure that project goals remain aligned with business needs.

• Task 3 Verify that project deliverables conform to the quality standards established in the quality management plan by using appropriate tools and techniques to meet project requirements and business needs.

• Task 4 Monitor and assess risk by determining whether exposure has changed and evaluating the effectiveness of response strategies in order to manage the impact of risks and opportunities on the project.

• Task 5 Review the issue log, update if necessary, and determine corrective actions by using appropriate tools and techniques in order to minimize the impact on the project.

• Task 6 Capture, analyze, and manage lessons learned, using lessons learned management techniques, in order to enable continuous improvement.

• Task 7 Monitor procurement activities according to the procurement plan in order to verify compliance with project objectives.

QUESTIONS

The Monitoring and Controlling process group consists of those processes required to measure and correct the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and trigger change requests. The 12 processes in Monitoring and Controlling are essential to maintaining an efficient and effective workflow throughout the project.

The Monitoring and Controlling domain accounts for 25% (50) of the questions on the PMP exam. The PMBOK Guide, Sixth Edition, Sections 4.5, 4.6, 5.5, 5.6, 6.6, 7.4, 8.3, 9.6, 10.3, 11.7, 12.3, and 13.4, cover the 24 tasks in the Monitoring and Controlling domain.

The 100 practice questions in this chapter are mapped to the style and frequency of question types you will see on the PMP exam.

1. On your project, a configuration audit has been scheduled. Your best C++ programmer, Radhika, asks you what this process entails. Your response should indicate that:

A. Configuration audits involve reviewing deliverables with the customer or sponsor to ensure they are completed satisfactorily and obtaining formal acceptance by the customer or sponsor

B. Configuration audits ensure that the composition of a project’s configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented

C. Configuration auditing is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes, and it is done throughout the project

D. Configuration audits include the process of tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan, and they are done throughout the project

2. Your company, Stay Home Shopping Network (SHSN), a creative and fluid family business that sells products using television network combined with a data streaming service, is about to be bought out by a corporate conglomerate that already owns 18% of the company stock, Home Quality Value Convenience (HQVC). This takeover will affect your project, and all the other projects in the organization’s portfolio. You understand how risky this is. While you are performing the Implement Risk Responses process, you may identify new risks. What document might be updated now, to help you later, with identifying overall project risk?

A. PESTLE framework

B. Prompt list

C. VUCA list

D. TECOP log

3. You are the project manager for a small project team for a project that has a set of approved functional requirements. In one of the regular meetings, your software developer team member, Patty, proposes an additional feature to the system. As project manager, you remind the team that they must concentrate on completing only the work approved. Your statement was guided by your adherence to:

A. Quality management

B. Change management

C. Scope management

D. Configuration management

4. You have been assigned as the project manager on a project focused on developing a new process for your organization called configuration management. Which of the following identifies the functions this process performs?

A. Identifying, submitting, approving, tracking, and validating changes

B. Submitting, approving, tracking, measuring, and validating changes

C. Identifying, requesting, assessing, validating, and communicating changes

D. Reviewing, approving, tracking, validating, and proving changes

5. You are managing a project that is in progress. Many tasks have been completed, some are in progress, and others are yet to start. You are reviewing your work load related to the work performance monitoring of the activities in the project. When is the best time to collect this information?

A. At the start of the activity

B. Routinely and regularly

C. At the end of the task only

D. Monthly for progress reports

6. When running a project, the project manager must manage the project work. Which of the following is part of effectively monitoring and controlling the project progress?

A. Email the team the schedule according to the plan.

B. Record the actual progress on tasks daily.

C. Compare actual activity performance against the plan.

D. Report only completed activities, schedules, and costs.

7. One of the tools you use during project management is the “earned value technique.” Which of the following best explains why you are using the earned value technique?

A. Future performance can be made to exactly meet the plan.

B. Past performance can be measured to an accuracy of less than 5%.

C. Future performance can be predicted to within 10% of the budget.

D. Future performance can be forecasted based on past performance.

8. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of using preventive actions in a project?

A. It reduces the probability of negative consequences related to risks.

B. It reduces the impact of negative consequences related to risks.

C. It increases the project budget to allow for some cost overruns.

D. It increases the reporting frequency on activities that are critical.

9. You are planning a project and wish to introduce the concept of integrated change control to your team. What is the best way to describe the use of integrated change control to the team?

A. Change control applies to the inception stage to define the scope only.

B. Change control applies from the beginning of the project to the end.

C. Change control is used only when there are substantial changes to the budget.

D. Change control is used at the execution stage to control schedule creep.

10. You are managing a section of a large project and have adopted an integrated change control system for the constant flow of changes from the project team. Which of the following describes how you would act on changes?

A. Approve changes that cost less than 10% of the budget.

B. Automatically approve all changes to the schedule.

C. Review, then approve or reject project changes.

D. Reject all changes to the budget, scope, or deliverables.

11. You are asked to describe why you are using the Perform Integrated Change Control process in your projects. You refer to the systems and processes that are in place in your workplace. Which of the following best describes your reasons for using change control?

A. We have a form that we always use on every project.

B. We always use change control to limit budget overspending.

C. It is required on our project because of legislation.

D. It is part of our project management methodology.

12. A project that is using the Perform Integrated Change Control process will have many outputs. A member of your team suggests that the project management plan is an output of this process. What should your answer be?

A. Disagree because project management plan updates are outputs.

B. Disagree because the project management plan is not an output.

C. Agree that the project management plan is an output.

D. Disagree because the project management plan is not used in this process.

13. The project team you are working with is doing the work of obtaining formal stakeholders’ acceptance of the completed project and associated deliverables. Each deliverable is reviewed to check that it has been completed satisfactorily. What is this process called?

A. Validate Scope

B. Define Scope

C. Control Scope

D. Plan Scope Management

14. You are discussing your project roles with a colleague. She states that she is working on developing a process that ensures all scope changes make use of the company-wide change control system. What project work is she performing?

A. Defining change control

B. Validating configuration management

C. Developing a risk register

D. Validating scope

15. The project team is involved in the following tasks: measuring, examining, and verifying that the work and deliverables meet the product and acceptance criteria. Which of the following is a summary description of the work your team is doing?

A. Define Scope: Inputs

B. Validate Scope: Outputs

C. Validate Scope: Inspection

D. Plan Scope Management: Inputs

16. You have been working on defining the procedures by which the project scope and product scope can be changed. In which process is your team engaged?

A. Validate Scope

B. Plan Configuration Management

C. Initial Scope Definition

D. Control Scope

17. You are writing a procedure for ensuring that changes to product scope and project scope are considered and documented. These artifacts will be processed through Perform Integrated Change Control. What title should you put on this process?

A. Configuration management

B. Scope validation

C. Integrated change control

D. Project Scope Management

18. Many changes to the project schedule and requirements have been suggested by the project team and the customer. These are urgent, and all affect the resources you are using. What is the next step to take?

A. Submit the changes to Perform Integrated Change Control for review.

B. Notify the project sponsor that the work on the changes will start immediately.

C. Ignore the changes to eliminate the risk to the project schedule.

D. Reschedule resources to begin the changes immediately.

19. What does the term variance analysis mean for a project manager?

A. Recording the actual start date of critical activities in the project

B. Analyzing the calendar contract start date and finish date

C. Calculating the difference between total slack and free slack

D. Comparing activity target start date with actual start date

20. The project archives you are reviewing show that the project has had several changes to the start and finish dates of the approved baseline schedule. These changes are known as:

A. Schedule variance analysis

B. Schedule baseline updates

C. Approved change requests

D. Performance measurement

21. What factors are needed to calculate the ETC for a project?

A. EAC and PV

B. BAC, AC, and PV

C. BAC, EV, and AC

D. ECA and AC

22. You have been asked to report to the project sponsor on project performance. She asks you for an estimate of the project completion date. Which of the following would help you to provide this estimate?

A. CPI

B. SPI

C. ETC

D. EAC

23. The values for CV, SV, CPI, and SPI for the activities in a project are used to calculate:

A. Schedule estimates

B. Cost estimates

C. Earned value

D. Corrective actions

24. A new team member is monitoring and recording results of executing quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes. He asks for clarification on what his activities are related to. Which of the following is the best answer to his question?

A. Control Quality

B. Manage Quality

C. Plan Quality Management

D. Quality Improvement

25. In the process of Control Quality, when is time normally allocated to do this work?

A. At every project milestone

B. At termination of the project

C. At the initiation stage only

D. Throughout the project

26. The project you are managing has a fundamental problem that will compromise the delivery of a key component. Your team is trying to find the reasons for the failure of the system, using a tool consisting of a diagram that shows how several factors might be linked to the problem or the effects. This diagram is called:

A. Variable scatter diagram

B. Cause-and-effect diagram

C. Process control chart

D. Statistical sampling matrix

27. Your mentor suggests that you use a chart that shows, by frequency of occurrence, events and defects in the project. The common name for this chart is:

A. Scatter diagram

B. Flowchart

C. Pareto chart

D. Control chart

28. A common tool used in analyzing problems on a project is a diagram that shows the relationship between two variables. This is called a:

A. Control chart

B. Pareto chart

C. Run chart

D. Scatter diagram

29. Your team has proposed that a resource optimization strategy should be adopted for the project schedule from this point on. Which of the following best describes what they are suggesting?

A. No change to the resources and reducing the project schedule

B. Adding resources and reducing the project schedule

C. Reducing resources but not changing the project schedule

D. Adding more resources or modifying the project schedule

30. The document that covers the topics of identifying project successes and failures, and making recommendations on how to improve future performance on other projects, is referred to as the:

A. Lessons learned documentation

B. Project management plan

C. Issue log

D. Change log

31. As part of your role as project manager, you must frequently update and reissue work performance information as the project proceeds. This information concerns how the project’s past performance could affect the project in the future. This information is called:

A. Performance reports

B. Corrective actions

C. Change requests

D. Variance analysis

32. One of the tools a project manager uses to help document and monitor the resolution of issues in the project is a(n):

A. Risk register

B. Issue log

C. Change requests

D. Corrective actions

33. Sally is reviewing the risk management plan for the current project. How often should she monitor the project work for new and changing risks?

A. At the beginning of project planning

B. Continuously throughout the project life cycle

C. At the beginning of each project phase

D. At the end of each project phase

34. A consultant has been reviewing your Monitor Risks process outputs. She lists many actions that are required to bring the project into compliance with the project management plan. What are these actions called?

A. Recommended preventive actions

B. Risk register updates

C. Recommended corrective actions

D. Project management plan updates

35. You have been asked by the project sponsor to ensure that the seller’s performance meets the contractual requirements and that your organization, as the buyer, performs according to the contract. What best describes your efforts?

A. Control Procurements

B. Plan Procurement Management

C. Conduct Procurements

D. Selected Sellers

36. The project you are managing has a problem that requires the contract with a seller to be modified. The alteration to the contract is in accordance with the change control terms of the contract and project. The best time to make this change to the contract is:

A. Never; the contract cannot be modified at any time

B. At any time, regardless of the response from the seller

C. At any time prior to the contract being awarded to the seller

D. At any time prior to contract closure by mutual consent

37. You are managing a system that includes the following information: contract documentation, tracking systems, dispute resolution procedures, and approved levels of authority for changes. What is this system called?

A. Short-listing the qualified sellers

B. Change control system

C. Procurement management plan

D. Contract change control system

38. As part of the Control Procurements process, contested changes will arise where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the change, or cannot agree that a change has occurred. These are called claims, disputes, or appeals. If the parties cannot resolve a claim by themselves, it may need to be resolved using what method?

A. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

B. Compromising technique

C. Integrated change control

D. Economic price adjustment

39. A document produced by the contract manager that rates how well each seller is performing the project work is called a:

A. Seller selection criteria

B. Seller performance evaluation

C. Procurement management plan

D. Work performance information

40. In a project, the seller is performing below the contracted level of work consistently. What is the most appropriate procedure to follow?

A. Continue until the seller provides an explanation.

B. Add time to the project schedule.

C. Terminate the seller’s contract early.

D. Increase the budget allocated to the contract.

41. The project management office wants to do a structured review on your project of the Project Procurement Management knowledge area from Plan Procurement Management to Control Procurements. This review is called:

A. Performance reporting

B. Contract management

C. Procurement audit

D. Claims administration

42. What is the objective of the use of a procurement audit on a project when conducted in the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Identify when legal action should be started.

B. Terminate the nonperforming suppliers’ contracts.

C. Identify who signed the nonperforming contracts.

D. Identify success and failure for use in future contracts.

43. What is the most common logical relationship in a PDM?

A. Finish-to-start (FS)

B. Start-to-finish (SF)

C. Finish-to-finish (FF)

D. Start-to-start (SS)

44. The ADM is visually the opposite of __________:

A. MDA

B. PDM

C. AON

D. AOA

45. As the project manager for a major shipyard, you are responsible for ensuring that safety regulations and quality standards are complied with for all activities. Your project involves nuclear work. Last month a nuclear incident occurred. The root cause was an uncertified technician being tasked to work on a shift without the change being reviewed and approved. Which of the following control processes is most related to preventing the unauthorized worker from being assigned and most likely would have prevented the incident?

A. Control Schedule

B. Control Costs

C. Manage Quality

D. Perform Integrated Change Control

46. After the incident, a thorough review of the work packages to perform nuclear repair work was conducted to make sure each repair plan included specific instructions to follow the procedures for reassignment of personnel. Which of the following is least related to this action?

A. Perform quality audit

B. Evaluate additional training and resourcing needs

C. Apply earned value techniques

D. Apply change management tools and techniques

47. You are managing a project for the new nuclear power facility due to go live in the next six months. In nuclear repair work, changes must be controlled without error to prevent risk to the health and welfare of the workers and possibly the public. These risks demand careful attention to change control and management through which framework of the project life cycle?

A. Starting the project, organizing and preparing, carrying out the work, and ending the project

B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

C. Feasibility study, requirements, analysis, design, coding, and testing

D. Goal, plan, status

48. Which of the following processes is most needed to monitor and measure resources to ensure the committed resources are made available to the project consistent with commitments and to ensure resources are allocated to the project according to the project management plan?

A. Control Staffing

B. Control Team

C. Control Scope

D. Control Resources

49. In preparation for a major political election, your political party has tasked you with increasing voter participation by 10% nationwide for the primary elections. You have established a separate polling group to perform polls in various geographic areas and determine the effectiveness of your project. As the poll results are received, you need to change the scope of your project to improve the project results and better accomplish the benefits delivery and achieve the strategic goals for your party. Which of the following tasks will be least useful in changing the scope of the project?

A. Ensuring a project manager is assigned to the CCB

B. Evaluating each requested change

C. Deciding the disposition of each change

D. Archiving change requests and the supporting detail for them

50. You assign one of your junior staff to track the actual start and finish of activities and milestones to ensure they are being performed against the planned timeline. They report regularly any deviations and keep the plan updated as changes occur. Which of the following processes is most consistent with these activities?

A. Control Scope

B. Control Schedule

C. Monitor Communications

D. Monitor Risks

51. From your experience with other projects, you know that the Control Schedule process results in people focusing on slippage and many times forgetting to look for:

A. Lag

B. Slack

C. Opportunities

D. Critical tasks

52. Which of the following documents is least useful in managing your program scope?

A. Scope management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Change management plan

D. Procurement management plan

53. As a part of your quality control efforts, you are required to monitor repetitive activities to make sure they are operating inside three standard deviations of the mean. Which tool are you required to understand and use?

A. Scatter diagrams

B. Pareto diagrams

C. Control chart

D. Failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)

54. As a part of your quality control efforts, you are required to use a procedure to test ways in which components fail and determine the impact of the failures. Which tool should you be required to understand and use?

A. Mean time between failure (MTBF)

B. Pareto diagrams

C. Control chart

D. Failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)

55. It is imperative that you keep your budget in control. Project governance has been established to keep budgets within 10% of what was planned and report weekly when costs are more or less than this threshold. Which of the following facets of cost control is least useful in controlling your budget?

A. Contracting outsource services vs. using capable in-house staff

B. Holding down costs so the project remains on budget

C. Bringing the project back on budget when an overrun occurs

D. Identifying opportunities to return project funding to the enterprise

56. The project management plan directs monitoring and controlling of specific project deliverables and reviewing results to determine if the deliverables fulfill specified requirements. Which process ensures this best?

A. Control Project Work

B. Risk Monitoring and Control

C. Control Quality

D. Schedule Control

57. It was identified during project planning that a strong potential of going over budget might exist. What process did you put into place to identify this possibility, define how to react to it, and evaluate how effective your response to its occurrence was?

A. Monitor Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Validate Scope

D. Manage Risk

58. Which process group or process provides the most primary interface with the project governance structure?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Direct and Manage Project Work

D. Monitor and Control Project Work

59. As a newly assigned project manager, you find that your stakeholder list contains every functional manager and all executive managers, as well as users of the future solution. You send scope, schedule, cost, quality, and value reports to several key stakeholders. No one seems to agree on the expectations from your project. You check with stakeholders’ involvement as you proceed through your project’s life cycle and focus on strategies and plans with all stakeholders. You are performing:

A. Plan Stakeholder Management

B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

C. Develop Project Life Cycle

D. Maintain Project Management Plan

60. You are a project manager documenting corrective actions that have been taken on your project and their associated outcomes. In performing this activity across your project life cycle, what document would you use to best log this information for subsequent analysis and archiving?

A. Historical information

B. Supporting details

C. Lessons learned

D. Risk log

61. You are a project manager reviewing the benefits management plan with a key member of the organization’s executive staff to determine effort and cost for a set of current tasks. What term best describes the technique you are applying?

A. Walkthrough

B. Performance review

C. Root cause analysis

D. Expert judgment

62. You are a new project manager attempting to understand what is expected of you when you are managing the relationships with sellers and buyers. What process best describes what work activities are required?

A. Control Procurements

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Identify Stakeholders

D. Develop Team

63. For the last nine months you have been the project manager for the Rio Grande railroad upgrade project. Several of the activities are on track, but some have started to derail. During project planning, a strong potential of going off the tracks (over budget) was identified. What process should be in place to identify this possibility, define how to react to it, and evaluate how effective your response to its occurrence has been?

A. Control Quality

B. Control Costs

C. Control Resources

D. Monitor Risks

64. In one of the project status meetings, you find several team members have conflicts between tasks for the functional manager and the project team. Which control process is most related to preventing unauthorized or conflicting assignments to prevent future occurrences of these incidents?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Integrated Change Control

C. Control Resources

D. Monitor Human Resources

65. As a part of your efforts to ensure quality, you require each project manager to monitor repetitive activities to make sure they are operating inside three standard deviations of the mean. Which tool should they be required to understand and use?

A. Control chart

B. Scatter diagram

C. Mind mapping

D. Failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)

66. Which of the following processes is most related to managing the project’s staff and supplies correctly and the associated costs related to them in accordance with the project management plan?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Control Resources

C. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

D. Develop Staff Release Plan

67. A pharmaceutical company is developing three new drugs. Each one is a part of a line of products. One of the drugs is used over the counter. The second is a prescription for retail purchase. The third is used exclusively in hospitals during critical operations as a router point for small businesses to provide broadband capability to customers. You are over budget by 20% and your schedule for the project has slipped by several weeks. To compound your problems, marketing is recommending releasing the products simultaneously to the market at least three weeks earlier than planned. Your budget is thin, and your sponsor has informed you that no additional funding is available at this time. In this case, to deliver ahead of schedule, which of the following constraint adjustments will be most useful in resolving this challenge?

A. Scope

B. Budget

C. Schedule

D. Quality

68. Joyce is a senior project manager. Her team successfully completed the SellMe project. The collection of all SellMe documents are archived into a SharePoint repository and full text indexed for easy searching for reusability downstream. Joyce’s company is about to be bought out by a corporate conglomerate that already owns 18% of the company stock. Semaj, the CIO, asks Joyce to “protect the cost baseline.” What is a key to effective cost control (managing the approved cost baseline)?

A. Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

B. Controlling the work performance data, information, and reports

C. Updating the cost management plan using earned value analysis

D. Preventing approved change requests from being included in the reported cost or resource usage

69. As a project manager, you gather final values of work and compare them to planned values for quality, cost, schedule, and resource usage to determine project performance and generate performance reports for the project. Which of the following skills is least related to these tasks?

A. Communicating results of project performance

B. Managing stakeholder expectations

C. Organizing cost, resource, and schedule data

D. Rebudgeting and financial modeling

70. A pharmaceutical company is developing three new drugs. Each one is a part of a line of products. One of the drugs is used over the counter. The second is a prescription for retail purchase. The third is used exclusively in hospitals during critical operations as a router point for small businesses to provide broadband capability to customers. You are over budget by 20% and your schedule for the project has slipped by several weeks. To compound your problems, marketing is recommending releasing the products simultaneously to the market at least three weeks earlier than planned. In your performance report on the drug project, you note a change because there is new technology that can add features to the router point for small businesses. This technology was not included in the project management plan. You have issued a change request, but because it requires corrective action beyond your approval level, your next step is to:

A. Schedule a meeting with your PMO.

B. Receive governance approval to proceed.

C. Set up a change control board to see if the change should be implemented.

D. Use your project management information system.

71. As the project manager in your drug company, you know you are over budget by 20% and your schedule for the project has slipped by several weeks. You have set up a system of regularly reporting on progress to:

A. Forecast completion because you are using earned value management (EVM)

B. Describe each task/activity benefit and when it is scheduled for completion

C. Provide stakeholders with metrics to show the benefits realized

D. Provide stakeholders with overall customer and sponsor feedback

72. The work on the drug project has not gone according to plan. Even though you are tracking its progress, it appears to be missing its due dates. On Friday, you meet with your project steering committee. Many issues have resulted because of lack of resources. The first thing to do is:

A. Tell the steering committee you have analyzed the work performance data, and the work performance reports are wrong

B. Start with general and background information about the project’s performance

C. The problems from lack of resources have been noted in variance and trend analysis reports, which you are bringing to the project steering committee to justify more resources

D. You now need to rebaseline the project’s schedule because of the resource shortage

73. Finally, on your drug project, you have a meeting with your project management team tomorrow. While you will discuss the resource problem, you also should include in your meeting:

A. Your scope management plan

B. A discussion of the schedule management plan

C. An analysis of the BAC, VAC, and ETC

D. Feedback from customers

74. When you met with the steering committee, given the difficulties with the schedule slippages, the committee members felt you should inform your stakeholders about what was happening. What is the most likely action to take in this situation?

A. Assign a member of your team to meet individually with each stakeholder.

B. Use the information management system to distribute information between the project team and the stakeholders.

C. Submit a change request to the CCB.

D. Rebaseline your schedule so your stakeholders have a collective understanding of when deliverables will be due.

75. Recently, your drug company conducted an OPM3 assessment and found that it had 349 of the 488 best practices in place. The resulting improvement report showed little work needed to be done in stakeholder engagement, while more emphasis was required in project cost management. As you continue your work on the drug project, you consequently:

A. Should be adept at keeping costs under control

B. Need to regularly meet with the financial auditors and other stakeholders and show them your progress in cost-controlling techniques

C. Need to redefine your budget because of the size of the project

D. Will not need regular status reviews of the cost status of your project’s activities

76. Your program manager says you should use earned value management (EVM) on your drug project. You decide to implement the milestone method of tracking project progress. This means that:

A. You can also use other methods such as CCM and CPM

B. Stakeholders must be kept fully informed to establish realistic expectations

C. You will not need to use EAC, ETC, or BAC

D. You will need to consider dependency types and integration

77. The PMO has suggested that you use the EAC as your principal means of forecasting costs for your drug project. You should:

A. Also calculate the CV, SV, SPI, and CPI

B. Communicate the cost forecasts to the key stakeholders according to the cost forecast plan

C. Follow the cost forecast strategy in the stakeholder management plan

D. Know that you can use three common methods to calculate EAC values

78. As the project manager for the AISecure project, you have awarded two contracts. Every two weeks you receive performance reports from both contractors. Contractor 1 is not achieving its objectives and had made no progress in the last two 2 weeks. This contractor’s work is important because it affects three major components of the AISecure product. As the project manager, the next thing to do is:

A. Schedule a contract performance review

B. Ask the procurement department to conduct an audit of Contractor 1

C. Update the seller-developed technical documentation

D. Ask the contracts department to begin alternative dispute resolution (ADR) procedures

79. You recognize the importance of monitoring contract performance and closing out contracts in your drug project. As the project manager, it is important to focus on:

A. Including contractors in the project governance process

B. Ensuring contractors understand the benefits management plan

C. Prequalified seller lists updates

D. Setting up a lessons learned repository for ease of archiving

80. The major focus of the drug project is on value and quality. You also want to focus on benefits delivery because of the competition you face in the market. You decide to conduct inspections. A key purpose is to:

A. Ensure the process improvement plan is being followed

B. Decrease the payback period as described in the business case

C. Avoid the need for walkthroughs, reviews, and audits

D. Promote fitness for use

81. You are conducting these inspections on your project so you can focus on:

A. Taking corrective actions

B. The need for issue resolution

C. Inspecting the correctness of deliverables resulting in verified deliverables

D. Overall project deliverable validity

82. A senior project manager recommends that you use checklists in the Control Quality process on your project. A best practice is to:

A. Ensure completed checklists are documented and archived

B. Rely on the senior project manager’s judgment in determining whether a checklist fits your project

C. Use them as part of walkthroughs for works in progress

D. Use a corporate-approved template

83. Many quality control measurements can be used, but given the nature of this drug project, the most effective is:

A. Root cause analysis (RCA) versus design for X (DfX)

B. Planned versus actual project performance reviews

C. Customer satisfaction surveys

D. Retrospectives/lessons learned

84. In the early phases of your drug project, you prepared a resource management plan, which included a project organization chart and a recognition plan. Now, because of a rise in interest rates, resource cuts are going to result in a 12% reduction in force throughout the company. As the project manager, your next step is to:

A. Carefully monitor and control the scarce resources

B. Request a preassigned contractor for needed resources

C. Suggest that a contractor officer representative (COR) be used for all project procurements

D. Use MoSCoW to reprioritize the work in your project

85. Recognizing the resource capacity constraints that now affect your project, you built a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) to determine if any resources were underallocated. Several team members work in a weak matrix structure, and another is in a strong matrix. A best practice is to:

A. Prepare a RACI chart to show an overall picture of project resource requirements

B. Release resources back to their functional managers when they are not required

C. Work with other project managers to share scarce resources

D. Update your resource management plan and present it to the sponsor to determine alternative approaches

86. You realize that a key part of your sphere of influence is to establish relationships with subject matter experts (SMEs). You have three SMEs “on loan” to your project. Two of the SMEs are overallocated on your project, and other project managers need them, too. You may be required to assign alternative resources. Your best course of action is to:

A. Meet with the project sponsor to show the impact on benefit delivery if you cannot keep the three SMEs

B. Meet with the change control board and plead your case that your project deserves the necessary resources to meet the strategic goals

C. Reprioritize each work package in your WBS and the milestone due dates and present this information to your steering committee

D. Use resource leveling in your schedule to show overallocation

87. You are a PMI-RMP. You know that risk management planning takes a considerable amount of time in a project. Risk identification is an agenda item at your project status meetings, and you include risk analysis as part of the status reports you submit on a biweekly basis to the project management team. You and your team work actively to perform the Monitor Risks process. An example is:

A. Unresolved project risks that require resolution by the risk management department

B. Identifying and analyzing new risks at the work package level

C. Time and cost contingency reserves allocated to each work package in the project

D. Fallback plans in the risk register

88. Having been a project manager for over 20 years and passed the PMI-RMP exam, you recognize the importance of preparing a risk management plan early on in projects and then monitoring and controlling the risks throughout the project. You also had the opportunity to work as a risk management officer on your last project. You realize a key action to reduce the risk that may affect the delivery of the project’s benefits is to:

A. Use communication as a risk mitigation strategy

B. Focus on maximizing business value delivery

C. Make sure the right team members are chosen for the project team

D. Decompose and progressively elaborate project risks

89. The measure used to forecast the final project completion estimates is:

A. CPI

B. ETC

C. EAC

D. BAC

90. A project was estimated to cost $1.5 million and scheduled to last six months. Halfway through the project, the earned value analysis shows the following:

EV = $650,000

PV = $750,000

AC = $800,000

What are the schedule and cost variances?

A. SV= +$100,000 / CV= +$150,000

B. SV= +$150,000 / CV= −$100,000

C. SV= −$50,000 / CV= +$150,000

D. SV= −$100,000 / CV= −$150,000

91. Configuration management is a technique for:

A. Overall change control

B. Project plan execution

C. Project scope

D. Perform qualitative risk analysis

92. In anticipation of a corporate merger completion, your business analyst team has been tasked with the business process and software system integration effort with an emphasis on determining which processes and systems should be absorbed into the new company and which aren’t needed, what data is important to migrate, and how much integration is needed before the companies are technically joined. You anticipate that your new project, the actual integration work, will be a matter of extracting the data from one system and putting in another. Throughout the project, you will verify that project deliverables and work meet the requirements specified by key stakeholders for final acceptance. What process are you performing?

A. Manage Quality

B. Validate Scope

C. Control Scope

D. Control Quality

93. Reviewing work products and results to ensure that all were completed satisfactorily and formally accepted is part of:

A. Plan Risk Acceptance

B. Control Quality

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Validate Scope

94. Through no fault of your own, your project has been canceled. The Validate Scope process:

A. Will be delayed until the project is continued

B. Should determine the correctness of the work results

C. Should establish and document the level and extent of completion

D. Will form the basis of the project management audit

95. If the CPI is expected to be the same for the remainder of the project, you should calculate the project’s estimate at completion (EAC) by using the following formula:

A. AC + ETC

B. BAC / CPI

C. AC + (Remaining PV / CPI)

D. AC + BAC − EV

96. You are halfway through a 12-month project. Your BAC is $12,000. The contractor’s performance to date is PV = $8,000, EV = $7,000, and AC = $9,000. Your SPI = 0.87, and CPI = 0.77. The contractor tells you this is okay because the project still has six months to go, and they can make it up in the last half of the project. This is the first time you have worked with this contractor, so you have no history of past performance. For the contractor to get back to the original due date, the performance level must be:

A. 60%

B. 80%

C. −133%

D. 167%

97. If you feel your initial plan is no longer valid for your project, you should calculate your estimate at completion (EAC) using the following formula:

A. AC + EV

B. AC + Bottom-up ETC

C. AC + (BAC − EV)

D. AC + [(BAC − EV / (CPI * SPI)])

98. According to your schedule baseline, you should have completed $2,000 worth of work by this date. The latest status report says you have completed $1,500 worth of work. This means you are:

A. Behind schedule by $500

B. Ahead of schedule by $500

C. Behind schedule by $750

D. Ahead of schedule by $750

99. On the AISecure project, you have completed $30,000 worth of work. The value of the work scheduled is $25,000. Your schedule performance index (SPI) is:

A. 0.33

B. 1.2

C. 5,000

D. −5,000

100. As recommended by your PMO, you are using the earned value technique on your AISecure project. Your project is 25% complete, your cost performance index (CPI) is 0.75, and your schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.80. How do you interpret these results?

A. You cannot complete your project without the use of additional resources.

B. It seems that your CPI and SPI will never reach 1.0.

C. You need to control costs and improve the project progress.

D. A risk officer should be appointed immediately.

QUICK ANSWER KEY

1. B

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. B

6. C

7. D

8. A

9. B

10. C

11. D

12. A

13. A

14. B

15. C

16. D

17. A

18. A

19. D

20. B

21. C

22. B

23. C

24. A

25. D

26. B

27. C

28. D

29. D

30. A

31. A

32. B

33. B

34. A

35. A

36. D

37. D

38. A

39. B

40. C

41. C

42. D

43. A

44. B

45. D

46. C

47. A

48. D

49. A

50. B

51. C

52. D

53. C

54. D

55. A

56. C

57. A

58. B

59. B

60. C

61. D

62. A

63. D

64. C

65. A

66. B

67. A

68. A

69. D

70. B

71. C

72. B

73. D

74. B

75. A

76. B

77. D

78. A

79. C

80. D

81. C

82. A

83. C

84. A

85. B

86. A

87. B

88. B

89. A

90. D

91. A

92. D

93. D

94. C

95. B

96. D

97. B

98. A

99. B

100. C

ANSWERS

1. On your project, a configuration audit has been scheduled. Your best C++ programmer, Radhika, asks you what this process entails. Your response should indicate that:

A. Configuration audits involve reviewing deliverables with the customer or sponsor to ensure they are completed satisfactorily and obtaining formal acceptance by the customer or sponsor

B. Configuration audits ensure that the composition of a project’s configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented

Images B. Configuration audits ensure that the composition of a project’s configuration items is correct. This audit also confirms that corresponding changes are registered, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented to ensure that the functional requirements defined in the configuration document have been met.

Images A is incorrect because it refers to Validate Scope. C is the definition of Control Quality. D describes Monitor and Control Project Work.

A. PESTLE framework

B. Prompt list

C. VUCA list

D. TECOP log

Images B. A prompt list is a predetermined list of risk categories that might give rise to individual project risks and that could also act as sources of overall project risk. The prompt list can be used as a framework to aid the project team in idea generation when using risk identification techniques.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. PESTLE framework, VUCA list, and TECOP log are made-up terms. And, PESTLE, VUCA, and TECOP are common strategic frameworks for identifying sources of overall risks.

A. Quality management

B. Change management

C. Scope management

D. Configuration management

Images C. Approved project scope defines the approved work that the project delivers, and only this work should be done. Any changes are managed by reference to the project scope.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. The Quality management, change management, and configuration management processes are control processes used to implement or approve changes to the project scope.

A. Identifying, submitting, approving, tracking, and validating changes

B. Submitting, approving, tracking, measuring, and validating changes

C. Identifying, requesting, assessing, validating, and communicating changes

D. Reviewing, approving, tracking, validating, and proving changes

Images C. Configuration management is the process of identifying, requesting, assessing, validating, and communicating changes to the project management plan.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Configuration management does not include measuring and does not include proving.

A. At the start of the activity

B. Routinely and regularly

C. At the end of the task only

D. Monthly for progress reports

Images B. Work performance measurement should be done routinely and regularly as part of the execution of the project management plan.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. “At the start of the activity” does not give progress information. “At the end of the task only” does not give start or variance information. “Monthly for progress reports” is possible but not advised, and it does not allow for short activities (less than one month in duration).

6. When running a project, the project manager must manage the project work. Which of the following is part of effectively monitoring and controlling the project progress?

A. Email the team the schedule according to the plan.

B. Record the actual progress on tasks daily.

C. Compare actual activity performance against the plan.

D. Report only completed activities, schedules, and costs.

Images C. Comparing actual activity performance against the project management plan identifies deviations and problems early.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Broadcasting the plan does not measure progress. Recording progress does not refer to the plan or commitment of the project. Completed activity does not refer to the plan.

7. One of the tools you use during project management is the “earned value technique.” Which of the following best explains why you are using the earned value technique?

A. Future performance can be made to exactly meet the plan.

B. Past performance can be measured to an accuracy of less than 5%.

C. Future performance can be predicted to within 10% of the budget.

D. Future performance can be forecasted based on past performance.

Images D. The earned value technique is used to predict future performance based on past performance.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Future performance cannot be manipulated to exactly match the plan, past performance can be measured only as closely as actual data allow and earned value cannot predict absolutely to 10%.

8. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of using preventive actions in a project?

A. It reduces the probability of negative consequences related to risks.

B. It reduces the impact of negative consequences related to risks.

C. It increases the project budget to allow for some cost overruns.

D. It increases the reporting frequency on activities that are critical.

Images A. Preventive actions are documented actions that aim to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Preventive actions do not reduce the impact. Increasing the project budget to allow for some cost overrun or increasing the reporting frequency on activities that are critical could be considered preventive actions, but they are not considered an output of the Monitoring and Controlling processes.

9. You are planning a project and wish to introduce the concept of integrated change control to your team. What is the best way to describe the use of integrated change control to the team?

A. Change control applies to the inception stage to define the scope only.

B. Change control applies from the beginning of the project to the end.

C. Change control is used only when there are substantial changes to the budget.

D. Change control is used at the execution stage to control schedule creep.

Images B. In the Monitoring and Controlling process group, the Perform Integrated Change Control process applies from the beginning to the end of the project.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. The use of change control at one stage only is not recommended because many items may change and could be missed at other stages of the project.

A. Approve changes that cost less than 10% of the budget.

B. Automatically approve all changes to the schedule.

C. Review, then approve or reject project changes.

D. Reject all changes to the budget, scope, or deliverables.

Images C. An integrated change control system must have a review step that results in approval, rejection, or deferral of changes to the project.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. This is applied not only to budgets or to schedules, and it does not mean that all changes should be rejected or accepted.

A. We have a form that we always use on every project.

B. We always use change control to limit budget overspending.

C. It is required on our project because of legislation.

D. It is part of our project management methodology.

Images D. Perform Integrated Change Control is part of the project management methodology that aids the project team in managing changes to the project.

Images A is incorrect because “a form” is too generic. B is incorrect because change control is not a guaranteed way to limit budget overspending. C is incorrect because external factors (e.g., legislation) cannot mandate how a project is carried out; however, it can influence it.

A. Disagree because project management plan updates are outputs.

B. Disagree because the project management plan is not an output.

C. Agree that the project management plan is an output.

D. Disagree because the project management plan is not used in this process.

Images A. The Perform Integrated Change Control process has several outputs, among which is project management plan updates.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. The project management plan is used in Perform Integrated Change Control as an input to this process and not as an output.

A. Validate Scope

B. Define Scope

C. Control Scope

D. Plan Scope Management

Images A. Validate Scope is the process of obtaining stakeholders’ formal acceptance of the project and associated deliverables. This process is performed at project closure or termination to determine if the project has delivered the contracted scope.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Define Scope is the process of defining what the project will deliver. Control Scope is the process of managing changes to the scope. Plan Scope Management is the overall process, defined in the project management plan, of how the team will manage scope.

A. Defining change control

B. Validating configuration management

C. Developing a risk register

D. Validating scope

Images B. Defining or developing a process that ensures all scope changes go through integrated change control in a project is part of Control Scope.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. The change control process supports scope control. A risk register does not ensure all changes go through change control. Validate Scope occurs at the end of a project to confirm that deliverables cover the contracted scope.

A. Define Scope: Inputs

B. Validate Scope: Outputs

C. Validate Scope: Inspection

D. Plan Scope Management: Inputs

Images C. The process of Validate Scope uses many techniques, including inspection. Inspection is a process of measuring, examining, and verifying that the work and deliverables meet the product and acceptance criteria.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. This is not a definition of inputs for Define Scope. Validate Scope outputs are not as described, and they include accepted deliverables. Plan Scope Management inputs are documents such as a scope statement and a list of deliverables.

16. You have been working on defining the procedures by which the project scope and product scope can be changed. In which process is your team engaged?

A. Validate Scope

B. Plan Configuration Management

C. Initial Scope Definition

D. Control Scope

Images D. Defining the procedures by which the project scope and product scope can be changed is known as Control Scope.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Validate Scope is done at the end of a project or phase to confirm the deliverables are as contracted. Configuration management is the process of considering changes before they are put into change control. Initial scope definition is not about Control Scope.

A. Configuration management

B. Scope validation

C. Integrated change control

D. Project Scope Management

Images A. The procedures for ensuring that changes to product scope and project scope are considered and documented are known as configuration management.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Scope validation is related to deliverables. Integrated Change Control is a support process after the stated process. Project Scope Management is a superset of the process described.

A. Submit the changes to Perform Integrated Change Control for review.

B. Notify the project sponsor that the work on the changes will start immediately.

C. Ignore the changes to eliminate the risk to the project schedule.

D. Reschedule resources to begin the changes immediately.

Images A. Changes to project scope or requirements must be passed to Perform Integrated Change Control for review and then disposition according to the change control system.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. No work should start until it is approved by the change control board. Ignoring the change requests can lessen the probability of success for the project.

19. What does the term variance analysis mean for a project manager?

A. Recording the actual start date of critical activities in the project

B. Analyzing the calendar contract start date and finish date

C. Calculating the difference between total slack and free slack

D. Comparing activity target start date with actual start date

Images D. Variance analysis looks at the difference between the planned and actual performance; in this case, the target start date is the planned and the actual start date is the actual.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Recording dates does not compare planned to actual. Calendar contract dates do not directly give variance analysis because they do not compare to the planned dates. The difference between total and free slack is not the variance that is analyzed in variance analysis.

20. The project archives you are reviewing show that the project has had several changes to the start and finish dates of the approved baseline schedule. These changes are known as:

A. Schedule variance analysis

B. Schedule baseline updates

C. Approved change requests

D. Performance measurement

Images B. Changes to the start and finish dates of the approved baseline schedule for the project are known as schedule baseline updates.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Variance analysis compares planned to actual dates, and performance measurement implies making the same kind of comparison. The description is not of a list of approved change requests.

21. What factors are needed to calculate the ETC for a project?

A. EAC and PV

B. BAC, AC, and PV

C. BAC, EV, and AC

D. ECA and AC

Images C. Calculating the Estimate to Completion (ETC) requires the Budget at Completion (BAC), Earned Value (EV) to date, and Actual Costs (AC) to date.

Images A and B are incorrect because EAC and PV, and BAC, AC and PV are used to calculate other earned value measurements. D is incorrect because ECA is not an acronym used in the PMBOK.

A. CPI

B. SPI

C. ETC

D. EAC

Images B. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is the only indicator that would help to predict the schedule.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. They are related to costs.

23. The values for CV, SV, CPI, and SPI for the activities in a project are used to calculate:

A. Schedule estimates

B. Cost estimates

C. Earned value

D. Corrective actions

Images C. The use of the calculations for CV, SV, CPI, and SPI for the activities in the project is the basis for earned value management.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Schedule estimates and cost estimates are the results of specific calculations on only two of the given parameters. Corrective actions are not directly driven by the parameters given.

A. Control Quality

B. Manage Quality

C. Plan Quality Management

D. Quality Improvement

Images A. Monitoring and recording results of executing quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes is Control Quality.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Manage Quality is ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used. Plan Quality Management is related to establishing the requirements and/or standards for the project. Quality improvement is an organizational development process.

25. In the process of Control Quality, when is time normally allocated to do this work?

A. At every project milestone

B. At termination of the project

C. At the initiation stage only

D. Throughout the project

Images D. Managing quality should be done throughout the project.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because implementing quality control only at milestones or when a project begins, or ends is not as effective as managing quality throughout the project.

A. Variable scatter diagram

B. Cause-and-effect diagram

C. Process control chart

D. Statistical sampling matrix

Images B. A diagram that shows how numerous factors might be linked to the problem or the effects is known as a cause-and-effect diagram.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. A variable scatter diagram shows the relationship between two variables only. A process control chart is used to determine the stability of a system. Statistical sampling is related to population sampling of components.

27. Your mentor suggests that you use a chart that shows, by frequency of occurrence, events and defects in the project. The common name for this chart is:

A. Scatter diagram

B. Flowchart

C. Pareto chart

D. Control chart

Images C. A chart that shows, by frequency of occurrence, events and defects in the project is known as a Pareto chart.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. A scatter diagram shows the relationship between two variables only. A flowchart is a graphical representation of a process. A control chart relates to stability of processes.

28. A common tool used in analyzing problems on a project is a diagram that shows the relationship between two variables. This is called a:

A. Control chart

B. Pareto chart

C. Run chart

D. Scatter diagram

Images D. A scatter diagram shows the relationship between two variables in a process.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. A control chart relates to stability of processes. A Pareto chart shows, by frequency of occurrence, events and defects in the project. A run chart shows the history of the occurrence of a variation in a process.

29. Your team has proposed that a resource optimization strategy should be adopted for the project schedule from this point on. Which of the following best describes what they are suggesting?

A. No change to the resources and reducing the project schedule

B. Adding resources and reducing the project schedule

C. Reducing resources but not changing the project schedule

D. Adding more resources or modifying the project schedule

Images D. Adding more resources or modifying the project schedule is a commonly used resource optimization strategy.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. None of the other strategies listed is a resource optimization strategy in and of itself.

30. The document that covers the topics of identifying project successes and failures, and making recommendations on how to improve future performance on other projects, is referred to as the:

A. Lessons learned documentation

B. Project management plan

C. Issue log

D. Change log

Images A. Identifying project successes and failures, and making recommendations on how to improve future performance on other projects, is part of the lessons learned documentation.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. The other choices are all inputs to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process.

A. Performance reports

B. Corrective actions

C. Change requests

D. Variance analysis

Images A. Performance reports are issued periodically and may range from simple status reports to more elaborate reports. More elaborate reports may contain analysis of past performance, forecasted project completion, status of risks and issues, and results of variance analysis, among other information.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Variance analysis, corrective actions, and change requests are not related to impact to the project in the future.

32. One of the tools a project manager uses to help document and monitor the resolution of issues in the project is a(n):

A. Risk register

B. Issue log

C. Change requests

D. Corrective actions

Images B. One of the tools used to help document and monitor the resolution of issues in a project is known as the issue log.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. The risk register contains all issues identified as risks. Change requests are actions required because of issues or risks identified. Corrective actions refer to changes made when executing the project.

33. Sally is reviewing the risk management plan for the current project. How often should she monitor the project work for new and changing risks?

A. At the beginning of project planning

B. Continuously throughout the project life cycle

C. At the beginning of each project phase

D. At the end of each project phase

Images B. The project team should monitor the project work for new and changing risks continuously throughout the project life cycle.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. The Monitoring and Controlling process should be defined in the risk management plan, and it should specify continuous monitoring for new and changing risks.

A. Recommended preventive actions

B. Risk register updates

C. Recommended corrective actions

D. Project management plan updates

Images A. Actions that are required to bring the project into compliance with the project management plan are known as recommended preventive actions.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Recommended corrective actions include contingency plans and work-around plans. Risk register updates and project management plan updates are also outputs of the Monitor Risks process, but do not fit the question posed.

A. Control Procurements

B. Plan Procurement Management

C. Conduct Procurements

D. Selected Sellers

Images A. The activity of ensuring that the seller’s performance meets the contractual requirements and that the buying organization performs according to the contract is called Control Procurements.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Plan Procurement Management and Conduct Procurements are steps prior to Control Procurements. Selected sellers is an output of Conduct Procurements.

A. Never; the contract cannot be modified at any time

B. At any time, regardless of the response from the seller

C. At any time prior to the contract being awarded to the seller

D. At any time prior to contract closure by mutual consent

Images D. The contract with a seller can be modified at any time, in accordance with the change control terms of the contract and project.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Contracts usually are varied or modified during a project for practical reasons. The contract is not in place until it has been awarded.

A. Short-listing the qualified sellers

B. Change control system

C. Procurement management plan

D. Contract change control system

Images D. A contract change control system includes contract documentation, tracking systems, dispute resolution procedures, and approved levels of authority for changes.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. This is a subset of the change control system. The short list of qualified sellers is part of the general procurement process. The procurement management plan refers to how the procurement processes will be managed.

A. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

B. Compromising technique

C. Integrated change control

D. Economic price adjustment

Images A. If the parties cannot resolve a claim by themselves, it may need to be handled in accordance with alternative dispute resolution (ADR), usually following procedures established in the contract.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect. Compromising is a technique for conflict resolution within project teams; integrated change control is the process for handling changes, not claims; and economic price adjustment is a form of contract.

39. A document produced by the contract manager that rates how well each seller is performing the project work is called a:

A. Seller selection criteria

B. Seller performance evaluation

C. Procurement management plan

D. Work performance information

Images B. A document that rates how well each seller is performing the project work is known as a seller performance evaluation.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect. Seller selection criteria is an input to contract documentation. The procurement management plan refers to how the procurement processes will be managed. Work performance management is raw data to the seller performance evaluation.

40. In a project, the seller is performing below the contracted level of work consistently. What is the most appropriate procedure to follow?

A. Continue until the seller provides an explanation.

B. Add time to the project schedule.

C. Terminate the seller’s contract early.

D. Increase the budget allocated to the contract.

Images C. Although all the solutions are possible, the consistent underperformance can help to indicate early termination of the seller contract.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Although all the solutions are possible, the consistent underperformance can help to indicate early termination of the seller contract.

A. Performance reporting

B. Contract management

C. Procurement audit

D. Claims administration

Images C. A structured review of the procurement process from planning, through acquiring, then to contract administration is called a procurement audit.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect. Contract management is the generic term for the overall process. Performance reporting and claims administration are other subsets of contract management.

42. What is the objective of the use of a procurement audit on a project when conducted in the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Identify when legal action should be started.

B. Terminate the nonperforming suppliers’ contracts.

C. Identify who signed the nonperforming contracts.

D. Identify success and failure for use in future contracts.

Images D. The objective of the use of the procurement audit process is to identify success and failure for use in future contracts on this or other projects. This is performed as part of the project closure process.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect. Identifying when legal action should be started, terminating the nonperforming suppliers’ contracts, and identifying who signed the nonperforming contracts are part of contract administration.

43. What is the most common logical relationship in a PDM?

A. Finish-to-start (FS)

B. Start-to-finish (SF)

C. Finish-to-finish (FF)

D. Start-to-start (SS)

Images A. The most commonly used dependency in a precedence diagramming method (PDM) is finish-to-start (FS). The predecessor must finish before the successor can start. Land must be purchased before road building can start.

Images B is incorrect because start-to-finish (SF) means the predecessor must start before the successor can finish. Road excavating must start before line painting can be completed. C is incorrect because finish-to-finish (FF) means the predecessor must finish before the successor can finish. Laying asphalt must be complete before line painting can be completed. D is incorrect because start-to-start (SS) means the predecessor must start before the successor can start. Road excavating must start before asphalt can be laid.

44. The ADM is visually the opposite of __________:

A. MDA

B. PDM

C. AON

D. AOA

Images B. The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is visually the opposite of the PDM.

Images A is incorrect because it is a distracter. C is incorrect because the activity-on-node (AON) method is a type of PDM. Activity-on-node uses boxes to denote schedule activities. These various boxes, or “nodes,” are connected from beginning to end, with arrows to depict a logical progression of the dependencies between the schedule activities. Each node is coded with a letter or number that correlates to an activity on the project schedule. D is incorrect because AOA is a type of ADM. The ADM refers to a schedule network diagramming technique in which the schedule activities within a given project are represented using arrows.

A. Control Schedule

B. Control Costs

C. Manage Quality

D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Images D. The process of coordinating changes in the project—including changes to cost, quality, schedule, and scope—is the Perform Integrated Change Control process. This process controls the approval and refusal of requests for change and makes sure those changes are beneficial and agreed upon. Measures in integrated change control would help ensure this replacement was made more capably.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because controlling the schedule and costs and managing quality are processes that can initiate change requests.

A. Perform quality audit

B. Evaluate additional training and resourcing needs

C. Apply earned value techniques

D. Apply change management tools and techniques

Images C. This is the exception. A common technique to assess cost variance is called the earned value technique (EVT), also called earned value management (EVM). Applying earned value techniques is part of the Control Costs process and is not directly related to change control.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because you are responsible for analyzing variances of cost, schedules, quality, and risk by comparing actual values to planned values from the project plan, trends, and extrapolation to identify corrective actions necessary.

A. Starting the project, organizing and preparing, carrying out the work, and ending the project

B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

C. Feasibility study, requirements, analysis, design, coding, and testing

D. Goal, plan, status

Images A. Integrated change control is performed throughout the entire project life cycle, from starting the project, organizing and planning, carrying out the work, to closing the project.

Images B is incorrect because these are names of process groups. C is incorrect because these are names of phases in a project life cycle. D is incorrect because goal, plan, status is a distracter.

A. Control Staffing

B. Control Team

C. Control Scope

D. Control Resources

Images D. Control Resources is the process of measuring and monitoring all project resources, and their associated costs, according to the project management plan. It is the process of managing resources to ensure the committed resources are made available to the project consistent with the commitments, resources are allocated within the project according to the plan, and resources are released from the project as dictated by the plan.

Images A and B are incorrect because Control Staffing and Control Team are made-up terms. C is incorrect because Control Scope monitors project and product status and maps changes to the scope baseline.

A. Ensuring a project manager is assigned to the CCB

B. Evaluating each requested change

C. Deciding the disposition of each change

D. Archiving change requests and the supporting detail for them

Images A. This is the least useful task. Ensuring the project manager is assigned to the change control board (CCB) is a part of Control Resources and is least applicable to controlling scope.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because Control Scope is a process for controlling changes to the project scope. This is a formal process for accomplishing the following tasks: capturing requested changes, evaluating each requested change, deciding the disposition of each requested change, communicating a decision to affected stakeholders, archiving the change request and its supporting detail, and, when a request is accepted, initiating the activities required to have the change incorporated into the project management plan.

A. Control Scope

B. Control Schedule

C. Monitor Communications

D. Monitor Risks

Images B. Control Schedule is the process of ensuring that the project will produce its required deliverables and solutions on time. The activities in this process include tracking the actual start and finish of activities and milestones against the planned timeline and updating the plan so that the comparison to the plan is always current.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because Control Scope, Monitor Communications, and Monitor Risks include other activities to support their respective processes.

51. From your experience with other projects, you know that the Control Schedule process results in people focusing on slippage and many times forgetting to look for:

A. Lag

B. Slack

C. Opportunities

D. Critical tasks

Images C. Control Schedule is the process of ensuring that the project will produce its required deliverables and solutions on time. The activities in this process include tracking the actual start and finish of activities and milestones against the planned timeline and updating the plan so that the comparison to the plan is always current.

Images A, B, and D are incorrect because Control Schedule works closely with the other project control processes. It involves identifying not only slippages, but also opportunities.

52. Which of the following documents is least useful in managing your program scope?

A. Scope management plan

B. Scope baseline

C. Change management plan

D. Procurement management plan

Images D. This is the exception. Control Scope is a process for controlling changes to the project scope. This is a formal process for accomplishing the following tasks: capturing requested changes, evaluating each requested change, deciding the disposition of each requested change, communicating a decision to affected stakeholders, archiving the change request and its supporting detail, and, when a request is accepted, initiating the activities required to have the changes incorporated into the project management plan.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because key inputs to the Control Scope process include three scope-related project documents: scope management plan, scope baseline, and change management plan.

A. Scatter diagrams

B. Pareto diagrams

C. Control chart

D. Failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)

Images C. The control chart monitors repetitive activities, where activities are in control if they are operating within three standard deviations of the mean.

Images A is incorrect because the possible relationships between two variables are identified using scatter diagrams. To understand data, it is important to understand the relationships among data elements. B is incorrect because a Pareto diagram is a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. D is incorrect because FMEA helps to identify potential failure modes and the consequences of those failures and to formulate improvement solutions.

A. Mean time between failure (MTBF)

B. Pareto diagrams

C. Control chart

D. Failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)

Images D. Failure mode effects analysis is a procedure for testing the ways in which a component may fail and determining the effect of each failure on product reliability.

Images A is incorrect because mean time between failures (MTBF) is a measure of how reliable a hardware product or component is. B is incorrect because a Pareto diagram is a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. C is incorrect because the control chart monitors repetitive activities, where activities are in control if they are operating within three standard deviations of the mean.

A. Contracting outsource services vs. using capable in-house staff

B. Holding down costs so the project remains on budget

C. Bringing the project back on budget when an overrun occurs

D. Identifying opportunities to return project funding to the enterprise

Images A. This is least helpful, given the importance of staff in any effort to add value to an organization; however, project managers should keep the focus on long-term impact, not short-term costs.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect; these are the most helpful because there are three facets to controlling costs: holding down costs so the project remains on budget, bringing the project back on budget when an overrun occurs, and identifying opportunities to return project funding to the organization.

A. Control Project Work

B. Risk Monitoring and Control

C. Control Quality

D. Schedule Control

Images C. Control Quality is the process of monitoring specific program deliverables and results to determine if they fulfill quality requirements. This process identifies faulty outcomes and allows the elimination of causes of unsatisfactory performance at all stages of the quality loop, from the identification of needs to the assessment of whether the identified needs have been satisfied.

Images A is incorrect because the proper name is Monitor and Control Project Work. Control Project Work is a distracter. B is incorrect because Risk Monitoring and Control is not the name of a process. D is incorrect because the proper name is Control Schedule not Schedule Control.

A. Monitor Risks

B. Plan Risk Management

C. Validate Scope

D. Manage Risk

Images A. Monitor Risks is the process of tracking identified project risk, identifying new risk to the project, executing risk response plans, and evaluating their effectiveness in reducing risk throughout the project life cycle. Monitor Risks involves tracking risk currently identified in the risk response plan and identifying new risk that emerged during the execution of the project.

Images B is incorrect because Plan Risk Management is the process of identifying, analyzing, and responding to risk factors throughout the life of a project and in the best interests of its objectives. C is incorrect because Validate Scope is a project management process that is used to formally accept completed project deliverables. D is incorrect because Manage Risk is a distracter.

58. Which process group or process provides the most primary interface with the project governance structure?

A. Executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

C. Direct and Manage Project Work

D. Monitor and Control Project Work

Images B. The Monitoring and Controlling process group is where the project manager obtains and consolidates status and progress data from project work packages, interfaces with the project governance structure, and reports on project performance.

Images A is incorrect because project governance is most prevalent in the Monitoring and Controlling process group. C is incorrect because Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project’s objectives. D is incorrect because the proper name is Monitor and Control Project Work.

A. Plan Stakeholder Management

B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

C. Develop Project Life Cycle

D. Maintain Project Management Plan

Images B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement is the process of monitoring stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for keeping them engaged.

Images A is incorrect because stakeholder management includes considering interesting concerns of stakeholders relative to your project’s success. This spans the entire project life cycle. New stakeholders will be identified and need to be added to your project, and some may go away. It’s important to identify stakeholders as early as possible, manage their expectations as they change, and ensure stakeholders have necessary support. C and D are incorrect because a project life cycle is already in place, and maintaining the project management plan, while required, is not the focus of stakeholder interactions.

A. Historical information

B. Supporting details

C. Lessons learned

D. Risk log

Images C. Lessons learned are documented in the lessons learned register; it is updated as an output in many processes throughout the project. They may document such things as causes of variance from the project management plan; corrective actions taken; and their outcomes, risk mitigations, and other information. They are identified and documented throughout the project management processes and ultimately flow to the Close Project or Phase process for analysis and archiving.

Images A is incorrect because historical information includes documents and data on prior projects. B is incorrect because the term “supporting details” can be defined as additional information that explains, defines, or proves an idea. D is incorrect because lessons learned are transferred to the lessons learned repository at the end of a project or phase, not the risk log.

A. Walkthrough

B. Performance review

C. Root cause analysis

D. Expert judgment

Images D. Expert judgment is a common project management tool and technique that includes functional and technical area specialists, external consultants, professional and technical organizations, and government or industry bodies. These people may be internal or external to the project. Examples of expert judgment in the Control Costs process include financial analysis.

Images A and B are incorrect because they are tools and techniques of Control Quality. C is incorrect because root cost analysis is a technique used to determine underlying causes for an occurring problem and is used in the control processes.

A. Control Procurements

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Identify Stakeholders

D. Develop Team

Images A. The Control Procurements process manages procurement relationships (the relationship with sellers and buyers).

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because the question relates to relationships between sellers and buyers, not risks, stakeholders, or teams.

A. Control Quality

B. Control Costs

C. Control Resources

D. Monitor Risks

Images D. Monitor Risks is the process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk responses throughout the project life cycle. Risk monitoring involves tracking risks currently identified in the risk response plan and identifying new risks that emerge during the execution of the project.

Images A is incorrect because the Control Quality process is performed to measure the completeness of a product, service, or result prior to user acceptance. B is incorrect because Control Costs is performed to maintain the cost baseline throughout the project. C in incorrect because the Control Resources process is performed to ensure that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring the planned versus actual use of resources, and performing corrective action as necessary.

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Integrated Change Control

C. Control Resources

D. Monitor Human Resources

Images C. Ensuring that the assigned resources are available to the project at the right time and in the right place is a key benefit of the Control Resources process.

Images A is incorrect because the Monitor and Control Project Work process is concerned with comparing actual project performance against the project management plan. B is incorrect because the process of coordinating changes across the entire project, including changes to cost, quality, schedule, and scope, is the Perform Integrated Change Control process. D is incorrect because there is no process called Monitor Human Resources in the PMBOK.

A. Control chart

B. Scatter diagram

C. Mind mapping

D. Failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)

Images A. The control chart monitors repetitive activities where activities are in control if they are operating within three standard deviations of the mean.

Images B is incorrect because a scatter diagram is used in the Manage Quality process to show the relationship between two variables. C is incorrect because mind mapping is a diagrammatic method used to visually organize information. D is incorrect because failure mode effects analysis (FMEA) is a step-by-step approach for identifying all possible failures in a design, a manufacturing or assembly process, or a product or service.

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Control Resources

C. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

D. Develop Staff Release Plan

Images B. The process of managing and measuring all project resources and their associated costs according to the project management plan is the Control Resources process.

Images A is incorrect because the process of coordinating changes across the entire project, including changes to cost, quality, schedule, and scope, is the Perform Integrated Change Control process. C is incorrect because Monitor Stakeholder Engagement is the process of monitoring stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for keeping them engaged. D is incorrect because the Develop Staff Release Plan process is not a task in the PMBOK.

A. Scope

B. Budget

C. Schedule

D. Quality

Images A. Based on the triad of constraints—scope, budget, and schedule—the most probable option would be modifying the scope; your budget is tight and you now have to deliver early with no additional costs.

Images B is incorrect because the question clearly states that you have no additional funding currently. C is incorrect because your schedule has been moved up by “at least three weeks earlier than planned.” D is incorrect because quality matters most; ignore quality, and you shorten the life of your product, not to mention its usefulness.

A. Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

B. Controlling the work performance data, information, and reports

C. Updating the cost management plan using earned value analysis

D. Preventing approved change requests from being included in the reported cost or resource usage

Images A. Much of the effort of cost control involves analyzing the relationship between the consumption of project funds and the work being accomplished for such expenditures.

Images B is incorrect because throughout the project data is collected, analyzed, and transformed to become project information. The information is communicated verbally or stored and distributed in various formats as reports. You would not want to control the data, information, or reports. C is incorrect because the cost management plan is an output of the Control Costs process and is updated when control thresholds and levels of accuracy required in managing the project’s costs change. Earned value analysis information is documented in work performance reports. D is incorrect because you want to prevent “unapproved” change requests from being included in the reported cost or resource usage. Caution, read carefully.

A. Communicating results of project performance

B. Managing stakeholder expectations

C. Organizing cost, resource, and schedule data

D. Rebudgeting and financial modeling

Images D. Rebudgeting and financial modeling can be used in monitoring and controlling the project. It is a skill used in analyzing variances in costs, schedules, quality, and risks.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because communicating results of project performance; managing stakeholder expectations; and organizing cost, resource, and schedule data cover some of the key aspects of the role of the project manager in monitoring and controlling the project.

A. Schedule a meeting with your PMO.

B. Receive governance approval to proceed.

C. Set up a change control board to see if the change should be implemented.

D. Use your project management information system.

Images B. Governance is the framework within which authority is exercised in organizations. This framework includes policies, procedures, and approval levels.

Images A is incorrect because the PMO standardizes the project-related governance processes. C is incorrect because the change control board is responsible for deciding what to do with change requests. D is incorrect because the PMIS is used for the outputs of project management processes.

A. Forecast completion because you are using earned value management (EVM)

B. Describe each task/activity benefit and when it is scheduled for completion

C. Provide stakeholders with metrics to show the benefits realized

D. Provide stakeholders with overall customer and sponsor feedback

Images C. The benefits management plan describes when the benefits of the project will be delivered. Metrics are the direct and indirect measurements used to show the benefits realized.

Images A is incorrect because EVM uses scope and schedule measurements to assess project progress, not forecast completion. B is incorrect because project benefits are an outcome of actions and behaviors that provide value to the sponsoring organization. Describing the benefit of each task/activity and when it is scheduled for completion is too much detail. D is incorrect because providing stakeholders with overall customer and sponsor feedback is part of trends in project quality management.

A. Tell the steering committee you have analyzed the work performance data, and the work performance reports are wrong

B. Start with general and background information about the project’s performance

C. The problems from lack of resources have been noted in variance and trend analysis reports, which you are bringing to the project steering committee to justify more resources

D. You now need to rebaseline the project’s schedule because of the resource shortage

Images B. Presenting a chart of the project’s performance over time will show how the performance is deteriorating because of scarce resources.

Images A is incorrect because work performance data are the raw measurements of start and finish dates of schedule activities. Work performance information—for example, status of deliverables—is represented in work performance reports. You may use the documents to raise awareness of the resource problem—after you show the impact, over time, of the resource problem. C is incorrect because the responsibilities of a project steering committee (PSC) in a project management setting include project priority setting and resource allocation, which is usually done after the PSC understands the resource allocation situation. D is incorrect because you have rebaselined the project’s schedule and identified the corrective or preventive action required each time a due date is missed.

73. Finally, on your drug project, you have a meeting with your project management team tomorrow. While you will discuss the resource problem, you also should include in your meeting:

A. Your scope management plan

B. A discussion of the schedule management plan

C. An analysis of the BAC, VAC, and ETC

D. Feedback from customers

Images D. Customer satisfaction is measured by meeting customer expectations. If the products are not conforming to requirements and being delivered on time, customers are dissatisfied; then, every aspect of your project should be marked with a red light.

Images A is incorrect because your scope management plan describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated. B is incorrect because the schedule management plan establishes the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule. C is incorrect because BAC, VAC, and ETC are EVM computations for performance measurement.

A. Assign a member of your team to meet individually with each stakeholder.

B. Use the information management system to distribute information between the project team and the stakeholders.

C. Submit a change request to the CCB.

D. Rebaseline your schedule so your stakeholders have a collective understanding of when deliverables will be due.

Images B. Providing accurate, timely, and relevant information is essential to the decision-making process of a project. Relying on an inadequate information system puts a project at risk. Information is a valuable resource for project managers. The information management system can deliver the types of information needed to ensure project success.

Images A is incorrect because assigning a member of your team to meet individually with each stakeholder is time consuming and costly. C is incorrect because the CCB is a committee that makes decisions regarding whether proposed changes to a project should be implemented. D is incorrect because a best practice is to rebaseline the project if you have missed over half your scheduled targets in the last six months.

A. Should be adept at keeping costs under control

B. Need to regularly meet with the financial auditors and other stakeholders and show them your progress in cost-controlling techniques

C. Need to redefine your budget because of the size of the project

D. Will not need regular status reviews of the cost status of your project’s activities

Images A. Cost is one of the key performance indicators for projects. Involved in controlling costs are processes centered around planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, and managing costs so that the project can be completed within the approved budget.

Images B is incorrect because financial audits evaluate financial statements and provide third-party opinions on the truthfulness of these statements. Project audits examine the true status of project cost, schedule, scope, and quality. C is incorrect because the concerns about cost control may or may not involve changes in the cost of materials and labor and resource availability—which can alter the budget. D is incorrect because regular status reviews of the cost status of your project’s activities are described in the cost management plan. Specifically, the cost management plan identifies how to measure project costs, the cost reporting format, and cost variance response processes.

76. Your program manager says you should use earned value management (EVM) on your drug project. You decide to implement the milestone method of tracking project progress. This means that:

A. You can also use other methods such as CCM and CPM

B. Stakeholders must be kept fully informed to establish realistic expectations

C. You will not need to use EAC, ETC, or BAC

D. You will need to consider dependency types and integration

Images B. Project milestones provide actionable goalposts to manage by. When stakeholders are fully informed, you can obtain important feedback to solve problems and/or renegotiate previously established priorities.

Images A is incorrect because CCM and CPM are tools and techniques of the Develop Schedule process. C is incorrect because EAC, ETC, and BAC are data analysis techniques that can be used to control costs. D is incorrect because dependency types are tools and techniques used in the Sequence Activities process.

77. The PMO has suggested that you use the EAC as your principal means of forecasting costs for your drug project. You should:

A. Also calculate the CV, SV, SPI, and CPI

B. Communicate the cost forecasts to the key stakeholders according to the cost forecast plan

C. Follow the cost forecast strategy in the stakeholder management plan

D. Know that you can use three common methods to calculate EAC values

Images D. Three common methods to calculate EAC values are 1) EAC = BAC/Cumulative CPI; 2) EAC = AC + (BAC − EV); and 3) EAC = AC + [BAC − EV / (Cumulative CPI × Cumulative SPI)].

Images A is incorrect because CV, SV, SPI, and CPI are types of variance analysis used in the Control Costs process. B is incorrect because the cost forecast plan is a distracter. C is incorrect because the stakeholder management plan does not include a cost forecast strategy.

A. Schedule a contract performance review

B. Ask the procurement department to conduct an audit of Contractor 1

C. Update the seller-developed technical documentation

D. Ask the contracts department to begin alternative dispute resolution (ADR) procedures

Images A. Performance reviews for contracts measure schedule performance against the contract.

Images B is incorrect because an audit is performed to confirm the rights and obligations as described in the procurement contract. C is incorrect because updating the seller-developed technical documentation is part of procurement documentation updates and would be done after the performance review. D is incorrect because if there is a claim after the performance review and the procurement documentation is updated, any claims administration would be handled in accordance with ADR.

79. You recognize the importance of monitoring contract performance and closing out contracts in your drug project. As the project manager, it is important to focus on:

A. Including contractors in the project governance process

B. Ensuring contractors understand the benefits management plan

C. Prequalified seller lists updates

D. Setting up a lessons learned repository for ease of archiving

Images C. Sellers could be disqualified and removed from the lists based on deficient performance.

Images A is incorrect because the project governance process provides a way for directors and senior management to exercise effective oversight and ensure their strategies are implemented and their benefits realized. Project governance sits above and outside of the project management domain. B is incorrect because the responsibility for delivering benefits lies primarily with the project manager. The sponsor has overall responsibility for achieving the benefits in the business case. D is incorrect because setting up a lessons learned repository for ease of archiving is an output of Close Project or Phase.

A. Ensure the process improvement plan is being followed

B. Decrease the payback period as described in the business case

C. Avoid the need for walkthroughs, reviews, and audits

D. Promote fitness for use

Images D. According to Joseph Juran, fitness for use is “effectiveness of a design, manufacturing method, and support process employed in delivering a good, system, or service that fits a customer’s defined purpose, under anticipated or specified operational conditions.” An inspection determines if the product, process, and project meet the requirements and the result is used and useful.

Images A is incorrect because the process improvement plan frames a project for improving such PM issues as metrics, quality, issue management, change control, project tracking, and status reporting. B is incorrect because when making a decision regarding an initiative, companies can compute the payback period to find out how long it will take to recover their initial investment. Decreasing the payback period as described in the business case will not promote value and quality. C is incorrect because walkthroughs, reviews, and audits are types of inspections.

81. You are conducting these inspections on your project so you can focus on:

A. Taking corrective actions

B. The need for issue resolution

C. Inspecting the correctness of deliverables resulting in verified deliverables

D. Overall project deliverable validity

Images C. Inspections can be used to meet the goal of control quality, which is to determine the correctness of deliverables that become an input to the Validate Scope process.

Images A is incorrect because corrective action refers to any type of action that is instituted, the point of which is to alter the course of a specific task or project that may have lost focus or somehow deviated from the prespecified direction it was intended to take. B is incorrect because issues are any request, complaint, or unexpected condition that leads to unplanned, but in scope, work that must be accomplished on a project. They normally result in the need to implement a workaround to resolve them. D is incorrect because the purpose of the Validate Scope process is to formally accept completed project deliverables. Its main advantage is that it provides objectivity to the acceptance process, as well as improve the finished product, service, or result by validating the deliverables.

82. A senior project manager recommends that you use checklists in the Control Quality process on your project. A best practice is to:

A. Ensure completed checklists are documented and archived

B. Rely on the senior project manager’s judgment in determining whether a checklist fits your project

C. Use them as part of walkthroughs for works in progress

D. Use a corporate-approved template

Images A. A project quality checklist is a tool used to aid the project team in ensuring they consider all aspects of project and/or process quality. To help achieve consistency, completed checklists can be documented and archived as part of lessons learned.

Images B is incorrect because quality will mean different things to different stakeholders. For every project the quality targets will be different. It is more effective to work through each quality aspect of a checklist to select your own quality indicators. C is incorrect because walkthroughs are informal reviews conducted on works in progress. D is incorrect because it is more effective to start with a customized template rather than a standard template.

83. Many quality control measurements can be used, but given the nature of this drug project, the most effective is:

A. Root cause analysis (RCA) versus design for X (DfX)

B. Planned versus actual project performance reviews

C. Customer satisfaction surveys

D. Retrospectives/lessons learned

Images C. An effective customer satisfaction survey has 5 to 10 questions that relate to the service delivery, customer experience, and overall satisfaction. The purpose of this type of survey is to gauge how satisfied your customers are.

Images A is incorrect because RCA and DfX are tools and techniques of Manage Quality. B is incorrect because project performance reviews are a technique that is used to measure actual work in progress against the baseline. D is incorrect because retrospectives/lessons learned are types of meetings held as part of the Control Quality process.

A. Carefully monitor and control the scarce resources

B. Request a preassigned contractor for needed resources

C. Suggest that a contractor officer representative (COR) be used for all project procurements

D. Use MoSCoW to reprioritize the work in your project

Images A. Projects need resources, and in this question resources are scarce. The task therefore lies with the project manager to determine the proper timing of those resources within the project schedule.

Images B is incorrect because pre-assignment allows you to select team members in advance, before the project starts. Team members may be assigned in the Develop Project Charter process. C is incorrect because not every project has a COR. D is incorrect because the MoSCoW method is not the only technique for prioritizing work in a project. MoSCoW = Must-have, Should-have, Could-have, and Won’t have.

A. Prepare a RACI chart to show an overall picture of project resource requirements

B. Release resources back to their functional managers when they are not required

C. Work with other project managers to share scarce resources

D. Update your resource management plan and present it to the sponsor to determine alternative approaches

Images B. Whenever two project managers are competing for resources, there is potential for conflict. In project work conflict is inevitable; releasing resources back to their functional managers when they are not required can keep conflict constructive and help overcome problems in matrix management.

Images A is incorrect because a RACI chart is an example of a responsibility assignment matrix. It shows the expense at the lowest level of work for managing cost and duration. With a RACI chart, you map out who is Responsible, Accountable, must be Consulted with, and shall stay Informed. C is incorrect because in a matrix organization the major disadvantage is that project team members are working for two bosses. In a scarce resource situation, the functional manager, not other project managers, determines work assignments. D is incorrect because one of the PMO’s primary functions is to facilitate the sharing of resources.

A. Meet with the project sponsor to show the impact on benefit delivery if you cannot keep the three SMEs

B. Meet with the change control board and plead your case that your project deserves the necessary resources to meet the strategic goals

C. Reprioritize each work package in your WBS and the milestone due dates and present this information to your steering committee

D. Use resource leveling in your schedule to show overallocation

Images A. The project sponsor is generally accountable for the maintenance of the business case document that establishes the validity of the benefits of the project.

Images B is incorrect because the CCB is a committee that makes decisions regarding whether proposed changes to a project should be implemented. C is incorrect because meeting with the CCB is for analyzing change requests, not working with SMEs. D is incorrect because resource allocation, also called resource loading, commits certain resources to project plan activities. After using the resource allocation process to define project resource needs, resource leveling is used to relate the needs to available resources.

A. Unresolved project risks that require resolution by the risk management department

B. Identifying and analyzing new risks at the work package level

C. Time and cost contingency reserves allocated to each work package in the project

D. Fallback plans in the risk register

Images B. Identifying and analyzing new risks at the work package level is the definition of the Monitor Risks process.

Images A is incorrect because unresolved risks are assigned to a risk owner, who may or may not be in the risk management department. C is incorrect because time and cost contingency reserves are allocated to known risks—they are not allocated to each work package in the project. D is incorrect because a contingency plan is associated with risk management in a project; in case a risk occurs, these actions must be taken to control/mitigate the risk. A fallback plan is an alternative in case a certain approach fails. Fallback plans are not in the risk register.

A. Use communication as a risk mitigation strategy

B. Focus on maximizing business value delivery

C. Make sure the right team members are chosen for the project team

D. Decompose and progressively elaborate project risks

Images B. For IT investments to deliver business value in today’s complex landscape, IT must 1) be more tightly aligned with business objectives than ever before and 2) carefully control risks, both strategic and operational.

Images A is incorrect because communication as a risk mitigation strategy is one of the greatest tools that you have to reduce conflict in your organization. Reducing conflict does not necessarily maximize the delivery of business benefits. C is incorrect because you don’t get to choose the right mix of skills and personalities to ensure the project gets done with the minimum friction and the maximum effectiveness. D is incorrect because decomposition and progressive elaboration are tools and techniques of Define Activities.

89. The measure used to forecast the final project completion estimates is:

A. CPI

B. ETC

C. EAC

D. BAC

Images A. CPI along with SPI is sometimes used to forecast the final project completion estimates.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because ETC is estimate to complete, which is the amount of money required to complete the remaining work from a given date. EAC is estimate at completion, which is the total cost of the project at the end. BAC is budget at completion, which is the total budget allocated to the project.

90. A project was estimated to cost $1.5 million and scheduled to last six months. Halfway through the project, the earned value analysis shows the following:

EV = $650,000

PV = $750,000

AC = $800,000

What are the schedule and cost variances?

A. SV= +$100,000 / CV= +$150,000

B. SV= +$150,000 / CV= −$100,000

C. SV= −$50,000 / CV= +$150,000

D. SV= −$100,000 / CV= −$150,000

Images D. SV = EV – PV; SV= −$100,000. CV = EV – AC; CV= −$150,000

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because these answers do not come from using the formulas SV = EV – PV and CV = EV – AC.

91. Configuration management is a technique for:

A. Overall change control

B. Project plan execution

C. Project scope

D. Perform qualitative risk analysis

Images A. Configuration management is a process for establishing and maintaining consistency of a product’s performance, functional, and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life.

Images B is incorrect because the Executing process group is the place where all the project work takes place. It involves carrying out all the work that was planned during the Planning process group. C is incorrect because project scope is the part of project planning that involves determining and documenting a list of specific project goals, deliverables, tasks, costs, and deadlines. D is incorrect because the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is used in risk management.

A. Manage Quality

B. Validate Scope

C. Control Scope

D. Control Quality

Images D is correct because this is the benefit of Control Quality.

Images A is incorrect because the Manage Quality process increases the probability of meeting the quality objectives as wells as identifying ineffective processes and causes of inferior quality. B is incorrect because the Validate Scope process brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the probability of final product, service, or result acceptance by validating (proving) each deliverable. C is incorrect because the key benefit of the Control Scope process is that the scope baseline is maintained throughout the project.

93. Reviewing work products and results to ensure that all were completed satisfactorily and formally accepted is part of:

A. Plan Risk Acceptance

B. Control Quality

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Validate Scope

Images D. Validate Scope is the process in which validated deliverables are compared against scope baseline to decide whether the team has produced what was planned and documented. This is a process of formal acceptance of completed delivery by the customer.

Images A is incorrect because it is a made-up term. B is incorrect because the Control Quality process determines if the project outputs do what they were intended to do. C is incorrect because Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating their disposition.

94. Through no fault of your own, your project has been canceled. The Validate Scope process:

A. Will be delayed until the project is continued

B. Should determine the correctness of the work results

C. Should establish and document the level and extent of completion

D. Will form the basis of the project management audit

Images C. When a project is terminated, you should establish and document the level and extent of completion. It is vital to run the regular project closure procedures for a project that is canceled. Adequate project termination marks successful project management.

Images A is incorrect because when a project is terminated, it may never be started up again. B is incorrect because the correctness of the work results is performed in the Control Quality process. D is incorrect because a project management audit is an examination designed to determine the true status of work performed on a project and its conformance with the project statement of work, including schedule and budget constraints.

95. If the CPI is expected to be the same for the remainder of the project, you should calculate the project’s estimate at completion (EAC) by using the following formula:

A. AC + ETC

B. BAC / CPI

C. AC + (Remaining PV / CPI)

D. AC + BAC − EV

Images B. When variances are typical of future variances, you should calculate the project’s estimate at completion (EAC) by using BAC / CPI.

Images A is incorrect because AC (Actual Cost) + ETC (Estimate to Complete) is a made-up formula. C is incorrect because it is a made-up formula. D is incorrect because it is the formula for calculating EAC if the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate.

A. 60%

B. 80%

C. −133%

D. 167%

Images D. Using the formula TCPI = (BAC − EV)/(BAC − AC). The To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the estimate of the future cost performance that you may need to complete the project within the approved budget.

Images A, B, and C are incorrect because the formula TCPI = (BAC − EV)/(BAC − AC) is used to calculate the efficiency that must be maintained to complete the plan.

97. If you feel your initial plan is no longer valid for your project, you should calculate your estimate at completion (EAC) using the following formula:

A. AC + EV

B. AC + Bottom-up ETC

C. AC + (BAC − EV)

D. AC + [(BAC − EV / (CPI * SPI)])

Images B. If you feel your original estimating assumptions are no longer appropriate for your project, you calculate your estimate at completion (EAC) using the formula EAC = AC + Bottom-up ETC.

Images A is incorrect because the calculation for EAC should not use EV at this point. C is incorrect because it is the formula for calculating EAC when the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate. D is incorrect because it is the formula for EAC if both the CPI and SPI influence the remaining work.

98. According to your schedule baseline, you should have completed $2,000 worth of work by this date. The latest status report says you have completed $1,500 worth of work. This means you are:

A. Behind schedule by $500

B. Ahead of schedule by $500

C. Behind schedule by $750

D. Ahead of schedule by $750

Images A. SV = EV – PV. In this example, EV = $1,500 and PV = $2,000. So, SV = $1,500 − $2,000 = −$500. A negative SV indicates a behind-schedule situation.

Images B, C, and D are incorrect because these answers do not come from using the formula SV = EV – PV.

99. On the AISecure project, you have completed $30,000 worth of work. The value of the work scheduled is $25,000. Your schedule performance index (SPI) is:

A. 0.33

B. 1.2

C. 5,000

D. −5,000

Images B. SPI = EV / PV. Given the amounts of EV = $30,000 and PV = $25,000, then SPI = $30,000 / $25,000 = 1.2.

Images A, C, and D are incorrect because these answers do not come from using the formula SPI = EV / PV.

A. You cannot complete your project without the use of additional resources.

B. It seems that your CPI and SPI will never reach 1.0.

C. You need to control costs and improve the project progress.

D. A risk officer should be appointed immediately.

Images C. When the CPI is less than 1.0, you are over planned cost. An SPI of 0.80 means you are behind schedule. You need to control costs and improve the project progress.

Images A is incorrect because you may use overtime or additional resources to improve your CPI and SPI numbers. B is incorrect because you can calculate TCPI to calculate the work that must be achieved with the remaining resources to meet the management goal. D is incorrect because the project manager holds responsibility for keeping the project on schedule and on budget. Appointing a separate team member as risk officer can improve interpersonal relations while avoiding groupthink. In this question, we do not know that a risk officer can lead to schedule and cost improvements.