Chapter 16
Practice Exam 2
If you didn’t get the starring role in “Acing the Praxis Core” when you took the practice exam in Chapter 14, you have a second chance here. Refocus, reexamine, review, and reassess the areas where you didn’t score so well!
- Refocus by redefining your goal — to ace the Praxis Core.
- Reexamine the questions you missed on the first practice exam.
- Review concepts that you weren’t clear on during the first practice test.
- Reassess — prepare to take the next practice test.
You must remember that this is a timed test. De-gadgetizing (setting aside your cellphone, the TV remote, and other such gadgets) is still a must — although you may use a calculator when you reach the math practice test. Make sure you’re aware of the amount of time allowed for each section so you don’t spend too much time on one question. Don’t leave any answers blank. Stay focused on your goal — to ace the Praxis Core.
This practice test is available online at learn.dummies.com. After you answer the questions, you can review a summary of your performance on this test and any other tests you’ve taken. (We’ve included four unique tests online that aren’t printed in the pages of this book.) This summary provides you with a snapshot of your strengths and weaknesses so you know where you need to spend more time studying.
Answer Sheet for Practice Exam 2
Part 1: Reading
People often comment on the irony of the fact that Alfred Nobel, the man who endowed the famous Nobel Prizes, spent his life inventing military explosives (including dynamite). Fewer people, however, know how directly related Nobel’s two legacies actually are: When a French newspaper believed him dead and mistakenly printed his obituary in 1888, Nobel was horrified to see himself referred to as “the merchant of death.” In an effort to make amends for the harm his inventions had caused, he changed his will, leaving nearly his entire estate to endow the famous prizes in Peace, Literature, and various natural sciences that now bear his name.
1. According to the passage, Alfred Nobel endowed the Nobel Prizes in an effort to
(A) make more money.
(B) prolong his life.
(C) conceal other things he had done.
(D) ensure that his name would live forever.
(E) change his legacy.
It’s certainly an exciting time for killer whales, or at least for the marine biologists who study them. Only in the last couple of decades has genetic testing revealed killer whales to be a large species of dolphin, much more closely related to those cute fellows than to the larger whales. We’ve also learned that at least three, and possibly as many as six, subspecies of killer whales diverged from one another around two million years ago, and all have distinct markings, diets, and systems of communication. Even the name killer whale is falling out of fashion; most scientists now prefer to use the term orca.
2. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain how killer whale subspecies diverged from one another.
(B) explore the ways in which scientists and the general public see killer whales differently.
(C) report on new and exciting discoveries about killer whales.
(D) argue that people should use the term orca instead of killer whale.
(E) humorously humanize killer whales for an audience of schoolchildren.
The archaeological excavation of Göbekli Tepe in southeastern Turkey in the 1990s revolutionized our knowledge about early human civilization. The site’s stone pillars are not only larger and heavier than those at the more famous Stonehenge in England but also have meticulous artworks carved into them that are clearly the work of specialist craftsmen. The place was obviously labored over in a highly organized fashion for many years, beginning around 10,000 BCE, and yet it contains no residences or any evidence of permanent human habitation; humans had not yet invented agriculture and were still nomadic, so Göbekli Tepe must have been a place of worship to which people returned at important times of the year. This is the first confirmation that early humans built elaborate structures for their gods before they even built permanent homes for themselves.
3. According to the passage, the theory that Göbekli Tepe was a religious site rests primarily on
(A) the fact that it is so large.
(B) the elaborate nature of its artwork.
(C) evidence that nobody actually lived there.
(D) the close resemblance it bears to Stonehenge.
(E) its role in the invention of agriculture.
Questions 4 through 6 are based on the following passage.
Often named as one of the greatest female sculptors of all time, Malvina Hoffman was born in New York City in 1887. Early in her career, she studied under the famous Auguste Rodin, as well as with Gutzon Borglum, the Danish-American who would go on to create Mount Rushmore. Hoffman’s crowning achievement was a series of bronze sculptures, commissioned by the Field Museum of Natural History in Chicago, exploring physical and cultural differences among humans. She traveled extensively in order to study her subjects in life and eventually produced 105 spectacularly detailed and lifelike pieces depicting people from all over the world. Hoffman’s sculptures were a centerpiece of the 1933 Chicago World’s Fair, and an entire hall at the Field Museum was dedicated to their subsequent display. By the 1960s, however, the notion of physical differences among various types of humans had become a touchy subject; some argued that Hoffman’s work was racist. Three years after her death in 1966, the Field Museum moved most of Hoffman’s work into basement storage. A few pieces remain displayed without fanfare in select corners of the museum, but the vast majority of the masterpiece collection of this pioneering female artistic genius has not been seen in nearly 50 years.
4. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) offer a professional and personal biography of Malvina Hoffman.
(B) argue that it was wrong of the Field Museum to move Hoffman’s work into storage.
(C) explain why some people were offended by Hoffman’s sculptures.
(D) inform readers about Hoffman and the controversy surrounding her work.
(E) raise questions about why there aren’t more famous female sculptors.
5. The author most probably uses the word pioneering in the final sentence to mean
(A) trailblazing.
(B) controversial.
(C) rebellious.
(D) perceptive.
(E) hardworking.
6. The paradox raised by the passage concerns the need to balance
(A) the cultural values of the past with those of the future.
(B) multicultural sensitivity with celebration of the achievements of women.
(C) scientific approaches to deep questions with artistic approaches to them.
(D) intentionalist artistic criticism with interpretive artistic criticism.
(E) the mission of a museum with the values of the public.
Questions 7 through 11 are based on the following passage.
7. Which of the following best describes the purpose and organization of the passage?
(A) It examines a familiar concept from an unorthodox viewpoint.
(B) It challenges a traditional explanation via a conspiracy theory.
(C) It walks a fine line between the two sides of a controversy.
(D) It compares and contrasts the art of two different periods.
(E) It scientifically analyzes the origins of an epidemic.
8. When the author says in Line 25 that the Black Death “focused their hearts and minds on the human experience,” he is likely alluding to which phenomenon mentioned in the first paragraph?
(A) “artistic brilliance”
(B) “scientific advancement”
(C) “violent political oppression”
(D) “this European golden age”
(E) “Europe’s worst nightmare”
9. As used in Line 31, “feasible” most nearly means
(A) lucrative.
(B) legal.
(C) ethical.
(D) comprehensible.
(E) coherent.
10. According to the passage, which of the following was indicated as a reason for the collapse of the feudal economic system of the Middle Ages?
(A) New philosophies led people in power to consider issues of social justice.
(B) Scientific discoveries led to a wider range of job options for the middle class.
(C) Laborers became so scarce that they were in a better bargaining position.
(D) Trade between Asia and the Mediterranean led to increased mechanization.
(E) The Black Death prompted feudal lords to flee their castles and abandon their lands.
11. When the author suggests that the Renaissance “may simply be the term we’ve given to the aftereffects of” the Black Plague, he is suggesting that which of the following is true?
(A) The Renaissance did not actually happen.
(B) The Renaissance was the inevitable result of the vastly reduced population.
(C) The Renaissance actually started in central Asia.
(D) The Renaissance is a modern concept we have projected onto the wrong historical period.
(E) “The Renaissance” is a dishonest euphemism for a much darker idea.
Questions 12 through 14 are based on the following passage.
Perhaps no term that has entered mainstream discourse via the language of philosophy is more misunderstood than nihilism. The word conjures up images of melancholy iconoclasts dressed in black, and it is doubtlessly largely for that reason that it has become something of a byword among rebellious youngsters. Even more serious and educated people frequently seem to believe that nihilism is a philosophy built around the idea that life is meaningless and that there is therefore no such thing as morality. But in actuality, nihilism doesn’t mean that and isn’t even a term for a school of philosophy at all. All the philosophers who have used the term nihilism — even Friedrich Nietzsche, with whom it is most closely associated — have not espoused it themselves, but rather used it pejoratively to describe other philosophies with which they disagreed. Used properly, nihilistic is an insult for a philosophical viewpoint that (in the speaker’s opinion) sucks all the significance out of life due to some massive flaw or contradiction. Though certain philosophers such as Nietzsche and Kierkegaard claimed that they welcomed nihilism, they did so because they saw nihilism not as an end in itself but rather as a necessary step on the path toward creating greater significance.
12. In his passage, the author’s intention was presumably to
(A) espouse a particular philosophy.
(B) correct a widespread misconception.
(C) take sides in a philosophical debate.
(D) suggest a new take on an old idea.
(E) defend an unpopular viewpoint.
13. According to the passage, nihilism is a term that
(A) is not used by any actual philosophers.
(B) is used by different philosophers to mean different things.
(C) philosophers use to describe others’ work rather than their own.
(D) was only popular among philosophers during one specific period.
(E) young people often deliberately misuse.
14. The tone of the passage can best be described as
(A) sardonic.
(B) condescending.
(C) jovial.
(D) dispassionate.
(E) apprehensive.
ASMR, or Autonomous Sensory Meridian Response, is a pleasant, trancelike state that some people claim to experience as a result of exposure to auditory triggers such as the sounds of whispering, nail tapping, paper crinkling, or gum chewing. In the last year or so, hundreds of ASMR videos designed to help viewers fall asleep or reduce stress have popped up on YouTube; some of the more prolific and creative ASMRtists have become minor Internet celebrities. Professional psychologists have largely declined to comment on whether there is a scientific basis for the effects that ASMR enthusiasts, known as tingleheads, are purported to experience, but by the standards of pop psychology, the ASMR movement is one of the most coherent and fast-growing we’ve seen in years.
15. Certain terms in the passage are placed in italics because they are examples of
(A) irony.
(B) emphasis.
(C) proper nouns.
(D) misused terms.
(E) jargon.
The tiny dunnart of Australia is casually referred to as a “marsupial mouse,” but of course, it isn’t really a mouse at all. As a marsupial, it is necessarily more closely related to all other marsupials — to the kangaroo, for example, or to the koala or Tasmanian devil — than it is to any non-marsupial mammal, such as a mouse. So why does it look exactly like a mouse? Because of a process called convergent evolution. The fact is that there are good reasons for animals to have the forms that they have. A mammal that is the size of a mouse and fulfills a mouselike niche will likely also have a stocky body, big ears, a longish snout, and so forth. In other words, it will end up looking like a mouse even though it isn’t one.
16. The purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain the differences between marsupials and non-marsupials.
(B) define what does or doesn’t count as a mouse.
(C) use a specific animal as an example to explain a particular term.
(D) excoriate people who use a certain scientific term incorrectly.
(E) pinpoint why the dunnart is so important to evolutionary theory.
As far as the public is concerned, 1941’s Chaplinksy v. New Hampshire might well be the most misunderstood Supreme Court case of all time. While it’s true that Chaplinksy established the famous “fighting words” doctrine, it’s also true that this doctrine doesn’t mean what many people appear to think it means. The decision is often taken to mean that a citizen has the right to physically assault another citizen who gravely insults him, but anyone who tries to use that defense in court will be in for a rude awakening. All the Supreme Court actually did in that decision was uphold the right of a police officer to arrest a citizen who had verbally abused him, in accordance with a New Hampshire state law that the defendant subsequently tried to argue was unconstitutional. Ironically, in light of the fact that Chaplinksy has come to be known as “the ‘fighting words’ decision,” no fight actually took place, and no one has ever successfully used Chaplinsky as a defense for a violent response to an insult.
17. The author suggests which of the following about Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire?
(A) No one is sure what the decision actually means.
(B) It has been rendered inconsequential by subsequent Supreme Court decisions.
(C) It does not in fact provide a legal excuse for violence.
(D) The state law it upheld was probably unconstitutional.
(E) None of the above.
Questions 18 through 20 are based on the following passage.
18. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) accuse Arthur Conan Doyle of plagiarism.
(B) argue that Poe’s detective stories were better than Doyle’s.
(C) explain that a very famous character was heavily based on a lesser-known one.
(D) cast doubt on the traditional explanation of who invented the detective story.
(E) clear up confusion about the differences between Sherlock Holmes and Auguste Dupin.
19. In the concluding sentence of the passage, the author is using
(A) conjecture.
(B) foreshadowing.
(C) synecdoche.
(D) allusion.
(E) poetic license.
20. By the phrase “socially oblivious” in Line 18, the author most nearly means
(A) newfangled.
(B) gauche.
(C) egomaniacal.
(D) iconoclastic.
(E) smarmy.
Questions 21 through 24 are based on the following passage.
21. The author’s attitude toward the “rule of thumb” mentioned in the first paragraph and analyzed throughout the passage as a whole can best be described as one of
(A) intellectual disdain.
(B) shocked cynicism.
(C) melancholy regret.
(D) paranoid alarm.
(E) droll dismissiveness.
22. In Line 21, “a discrete aspect of the paper” refers to an element of the paper that is
(A) comprehensible.
(B) scientifically expressible.
(C) well done.
(D) vague or confusing.
(E) self-contained.
23. In the passage, the author suggests that the standard under discussion was put in place at the behest of
(A) lazy teachers.
(B) offended students.
(C) naïve administrators.
(D) poorly trained scientists.
(E) angry parents.
24. Based on the passage, the author would most likely suggest that college composition instructors should
(A) deliberately offend students as a test of their argumentative skills.
(B) draw the line at respecting opinions that are demonstrably untrue.
(C) be free to teach their own personal opinions without administrative interference.
(D) place more emphasis on grammar, mechanics, and eloquence than on logic.
(E) find excuses to flunk students whose general knowledge is woefully insufficient.
Questions 25 through 27 are based on the following passage.
It’s the most famous series of words ever composed in the English language. Everyone has heard of it, and most people even know a little bit of it by heart, regardless of whether they ever made a deliberate effort to commit it to memory. And virtually everyone, including many English teachers and a fair number of the actors who have delivered it on stage, is dead wrong about what it means. The plain fact is that Hamlet’s “To be or not to be” soliloquy is not about whether to commit suicide. Hamlet already flatly ruled out suicide on ethical grounds in his first soliloquy back in Act 1. The immortal showstopper from Act 3 is about something much more complex and much more deeply related to the grander themes of the play than that. When the melancholy prince asks “Whether ’tis nobler in the mind to suffer/The slings and arrow of outrageous fortune/Or to take arms against a sea of troubles,” he is not simply debating whether to cash in his chips, but instead pondering an eternal paradox of morality: Should a good person “turn the other cheek” in the face of evil, as scripture advises? Or should he attempt to make the world a better place by actively combating the wicked, running the risk not only of dying in the process, but — even more troublingly — of becoming just as bad as the people he seeks to oppose?
25. The author’s argument is that the “To be or not to be” soliloquy is actually about
(A) whether it is better to go on living or to die.
(B) whether there is really a God.
(C) whether to retreat from the world or try to improve it.
(D) whether it is wiser to fight evil openly or to use subterfuge.
(E) something so complex that it is nearly impossible to grasp.
26. According to the passage, Hamlet’s viewpoint on suicide is that it’s
(A) preferable to unethical action.
(B) an eternal paradox of morality.
(C) attractive but frightening.
(D) inevitable.
(E) unacceptable.
27. The passage is primarily concerned with the author’s goal of
(A) taking an ethical stand.
(B) simplifying a complex issue.
(C) issuing a warning about the future.
(D) correcting a misreading.
(E) apologizing for a mistake.
Founded in 1994 by philosophers Peter Singer and Paola Cavalieri, the Great Ape Project is an international organization that lobbies for a United Nations Declaration of the Rights of Great Apes. These proposed rights would include not only life but also liberty, meaning that great apes could no longer be experimented upon or even kept in zoos. The reasoning goes that, because great apes are intelligent enough to understand their status as captives in a zoo, keeping them in one is morally equivalent to imprisoning a human who has committed no crime.
28. The passage provides information for answering most fully which of the following questions?
(A) Why should great apes have rights similar to human rights?
(B) What is the difference between a great ape and a monkey?
(C) Who are the most famous supporters of the Great Ape Project?
(D) Are more great apes used in scientific research or zoo exhibitions?
(E) How is intelligence in great apes measured?
The words “rabbit” and “hare” are often used interchangeably (especially in the titles of Bugs Bunny cartoons), but the two animals are quite different. Hares live and bear their young in nests, not in underground burrows like rabbits do, and those young are born already furred and able to see, as opposed to blind and hairless like newborn rabbits. Unlike rabbits, who live in groups, hares are loners. A hare has 48 chromosomes to the rabbit’s 44, and its jointed skull is unique among mammals. Hares and rabbits really aren’t that difficult to tell apart if you know what to look for, although it doesn’t help that the animal known as a jackrabbit is actually a hare, and that the pet breed called a Belgian hare is really a rabbit.
29. According to the passage, which of the following is true of hares?
(A) They are the only animal with a jointed skull.
(B) They have fewer chromosomes than do rabbits.
(C) They are born blind and hairless.
(D) They do not make use of underground burrows.
(E) They live in groups.
Questions 30 through 32 are based on the following passage.
30. Which of the following, if true, would resolve an objection made in the passage?
(A) It’s possible to exceed the speed of light.
(B) It’s not possible to exceed the speed of light.
(C) Matter can be sent into the past, but not living beings.
(D) The past exists currently, but in another dimension.
(E) Time as it passes on Earth is not the most accurate definition of “time.”
31. The author uses the phrase “fine print” in Line 4 to most nearly mean
(A) complicated explanations.
(B) exceptions and qualifications.
(C) dangerous possibilities.
(D) missing information.
(E) unexpected tricks.
32. The passage indicates which of the following about time travel to the future?
(A) We have achieved it already without realizing that we had.
(B) It would automatically resolve whatever paradoxes it creates.
(C) It’s an illusion, but an extraordinarily convincing one.
(D) It’s a natural consequence of the relationship between speed and time.
(E) Technically, everything constitutes time travel to the future.
Questions 33 through 38 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1
Passage 2
33. Which best describes the relationship between Passage 1 and Passage 2?
(A) Passage 1 and Passage 2 present two mutually exclusive scientific theories.
(B) Passage 1 and Passage 2 examine the same theory from two different angles.
(C) Passage 2 presents a new theory that has replaced the theory in Passage 1.
(D) Passage 1 explains the origin of a theory that Passage 2 then modifies.
(E) Passage 1 presents raw data, and Passage 2 forms a theory based on those data.
34. As used in Passage 2, Line 5, the phrase “writing off” most nearly means
(A) ignoring.
(B) misrepresenting.
(C) obscuring.
(D) exaggerating.
(E) plagiarizing.
35. How do the two authors differ in their viewpoints concerning the Chicxulub asteroid?
(A) One author believes it killed the dinosaurs, and the other does not.
(B) Both authors agree that it killed the dinosaurs, but they disagree about when it hit Earth.
(C) One author believes it killed the dinosaurs, and the other believes it was one of multiple causes.
(D) Both authors believe it killed the dinosaurs, but they disagree about its chemical composition.
(E) Both authors agree that it’s a plausible extinction theory, but neither is 100 percent sure it’s correct.
36. Which of the following is an accurate statement about a difference between the two passages?
(A) Passage 1 bases its argument on chemistry, and Passage 2 bases its argument on physics.
(B) Passage 1 argues that dinosaurs lived in North America, and Passage 2 argues that they lived in Asia.
(C) Passage 1 is written for a scientific audience, and Passage 2 is written for a general audience.
(D) Passage 1 analyzes an older theory, whereas Passage 2 suggests an original one.
(E) Passage 1 explains the history of its theory, whereas Passage 2 does not.
37. The attitude of the author of Passage 2 toward the content of Passage 1 is that it’s
(A) false.
(B) limited.
(C) outdated.
(D) self-contradictory.
(E) elitist.
38. Both passages are primarily concerned with determining
(A) when dinosaurs lived.
(B) whether all dinosaurs went extinct at the same time.
(C) whether an asteroid struck Earth 65 million years ago.
(D) the causes of an agreed-upon event.
(E) the reasons for the popularity of a particular theory.
Ask any schoolchild (or virtually any adult) to draw a picture of a medieval knight, and the odds are that you’ll wind up with a depiction of someone encased from head to foot in a suit of armor. This is one of the most widespread misconceptions about history. The iconic “suit of armor” that we now associate so closely with the period actually didn’t develop until the tail end of the Middle Ages, and it didn’t become common on the battlefield until well into what we now call the Renaissance. European warriors of the true Medieval period, even the wealthier and more aristocratic ones such as knights, would have worn scattered pieces of plate armor over chain-mail suits, but not “suits of armor” as we now picture them.
39. The passage relies on drawing a sharp distinction between
(A) what children know and what adults know.
(B) armor and everyday clothing.
(C) the Medieval Period and the Renaissance.
(D) European warriors and non-European warriors.
(E) wealthy warriors and less wealthy warriors.
People often prickle at evolutionary or instinctual explanations for human behavior based on the idea that it’s been a long time since humans lived in a state of nature. But this depends upon a rather sizeable misapplication of the phrase “a long time.” When people speak of “human civilization” — meaning the existence of permanent settlements, agriculture, some rudimentary form of government — they’re talking about things that only appeared about 10,000 years ago. Conversely, the first humans — members of the genus Homo — reared their heads just over two million years ago. Humans were evolving for a heck of a long time before they were “civilized.”
40. The primary implication made by the passage is that
(A) human civilization arose much later than most people believe.
(B) the development of agriculture and government marked a sharp turn in human genetics.
(C) civilization hasn’t existed long enough to substantially alter human instinct.
(D) human evolution stopped when humans organized the first civilizations.
(E) experts disagree about the timescale of human evolution.
The title of “the southernmost city in the world” is valuable bait when it comes to attracting tourists, but the question of which burg — and, accordingly, which nation — can boast it is not such an easy matter to settle. It all comes down to the fact that there is no hard-and-fast definition of what counts as a “city.” Ushuaia, the southernmost city in Argentina, has a population of 64,000. Just across the Beagle Channel, however, lies Chile’s Puerto Williams. The latter is farther south, but it has a population of only about 3,000. Does that make it populous enough to count as a city? Unsurprisingly, Chile says yes, and Argentina says no.
41. The author’s primary purpose in writing the passage was most likely to call attention to the fact that
(A) geography is a more complex matter than people realize.
(B) apparently straightforward questions can be muddled by vague definitions.
(C) nations will argue over silly things when money is at stake.
(D) Chile’s claim to the southernmost city is better than Argentina’s.
(E) Argentina’s claim to the southernmost city is better than Chile’s.
Questions 42 through 46 are based on the following passage.
You don’t hear the name of William Tyndale every day, but if you speak English, he probably had a greater influence on the words that come out of your mouth than anyone besides William Shakespeare. An English Protestant reformer of the early 1500s, Tyndale was the first since the invention of the printing press to translate the Bible into English (John Wycliffe’s handwritten translations of the 1300s were quickly banned and easily destroyed by authorities because the process of producing them was so laborious). Translating the Bible was an act punishable by death, as the ability of the common man to read scripture in his own language would weaken the power of the Church, so Tyndale had to do his work in hiding on continental Europe.
He was captured in 1535 and executed the following year, but ironically, Tyndale’s Bible became the standard in England soon afterward, when Henry VIII broke with Rome. The more famous King James Bible of 1611, finalized by a committee of scholars, is largely just a revision of Tyndale’s single-handed work, which established the tone and conventions of literary Early Modern English. As the formulator of such famous idioms as “eat, drink, and be merry,” “fight the good fight,” and “salt of the earth,” Tyndale is surpassed in the coining of English expressions only by Shakespeare, who developed his own ear for literary English by reading Tyndale’s Bible as a schoolboy.
42. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two paragraphs of the passage?
(A) The first paragraph concentrates on the history of English-language Bibles in general, and the second concentrates specifically on William Tyndale’s translation.
(B) The first paragraph mainly presents details of William Tyndale’s life, and the second deals more closely with his influence.
(C) The first paragraph explains the influence of William Tyndale’s Bible, and the second concentrates on the influence of the King James Version.
(D) The first paragraph deals with William Shakespeare’s influence on the English language, and the second with William Tyndale’s influence on Shakespeare.
(E) The first paragraph discusses English translations of the Bible made before the invention of the printing press, and the second discusses those translations done after its invention.
43. The passage repeatedly invokes the name of William Shakespeare primarily in order to
(A) use him as the standard by which influence on the English language is measured.
(B) argue that the greatest influence on Shakespeare himself was William Tyndale.
(C) set up a comparison between the language of Tyndale’s Bible and Shakespeare’s plays.
(D) distinguish idioms coined by Tyndale from those coined by Shakespeare.
(E) compare the political constraints on Shakespeare’s work to those on Tyndale’s.
44. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
(A) The plays of William Shakespeare were more influenced by religion than many realize.
(B) William Tyndale’s translation of the Bible was politically superior to later translations.
(C) William Tyndale should be given more credit for Henry VIII’s break with Rome.
(D) Translations done by individuals are generally superior to those done by committees.
(E) The character of modern literary English was largely established in the 16th century.
45. The passage brings up John Wycliffe as an example of someone
(A) whose work had a considerable degree of influence on William Tyndale’s.
(B) whose politics were more extreme than Tyndale’s, but whose talent was equal.
(C) who attempted a similar project to Tyndale’s but was thwarted.
(D) whose influence on the English language is harder to measure than Tyndale’s.
(E) who was more earnestly religious but less talented than Tyndale.
46. The metaphoric use of the phrase “ear for” in the final sentence is roughly synonymous with
(A) appreciation of.
(B) interest in.
(C) consumption by.
(D) knack for.
(E) recognition of.
Questions 47 through 49 are based on the following chart.
Following is a chart showing the change in Oregon’s wolf populations between 2009 and 2012.
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
47. In which year was there the greatest disparity between the populations of the Imnaha and Wenaha wolf packs? Write your answer in the space provided.
_________
48. Besides the Imnaha and Wenaha packs, when were there apparently other wolf packs in the state of Oregon?
Select all that apply.
(A) 2009
(B) 2010
(C) 2011
(D) 2012
49. The year in which the wolves of the Imnaha pack comprised the greatest percentage of the total number of wolves in the state of Oregon was
(A) 2009.
(B) 2010.
(C) 2011.
(D) 2012.
(E) The graph does not reveal this information.
Questions 50 through 53 are based on the following passage.
50. You can infer from the passage that the majority of psychological and neurological professionals agree about which of the following statements?
(A) Both psychopathy and sociopathy are observable via brain autopsy.
(B) Both psychopathy and sociopathy are synonymous with antisocial personality disorder.
(C) Psychopathy and sociopathy are two different things.
(D) Neither psychopaths nor sociopaths know the difference between right and wrong.
(E) Neither psychopathy nor sociopathy is detectable via psychological examination.
51. The author’s argument developed in the passage most likely results from the desire to
(A) criticize the psychological community.
(B) voice a personal opinion about psychopaths.
(C) diagnose a particular person as either a psychopath or a sociopath.
(D) warn professionals about means used by psychopaths to evade detection.
(E) clear up confusion on the parts of general readers.
52. As used in Line 3, forgivable most nearly means
(A) morally excusable.
(B) initially confusing.
(C) logically expectable.
(D) disturbingly amusing.
(E) only mildly annoying.
53. The closing sentences suggest that sociopaths have a definition of right and wrong that is
(A) ineffable.
(B) idiosyncratic.
(C) inextricable.
(D) remunerative.
(E) eleemosynary.
The poetry of William Butler Yeats, who in 1923 became the first Irishman to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature, went through so many distinct phases during his long career that to read him is almost to read several different poets. The mystical and deliberately archaic-sounding verse of his early books borders on psychedelic; the strident political poems he produced at the time of World War I are awe-inspiring in their scope and confidence; and the lonely reflections on old age he published in his last years are as different from the first two phases as they are from each other.
54. The passage suggests that the poetry of William Butler Yeats can accurately be described as
(A) exclusionary.
(B) impudent.
(C) indeterminate.
(D) multifaceted.
(E) lugubrious.
Popular tradition holds that celebrities die in groups, but all superstition aside, the truth is that sometimes one famous individual is too lightly mourned solely because of having passed away in too close proximity to another celebrity. Perhaps no great American ever received a more insufficient send-off than show-business legend Groucho Marx, who happened to leave us on August 19, 1977, only three days after the death of Elvis Presley. Granted, Presley’s death was both untimely and mysterious, whereas Groucho was an elderly man; still, the fact that the national hysteria over the King of Rock-and-Roll should have prevented the King of Comedy from getting his due is lamentable.
55. The relationship of the first sentence to the rest of the passage is that of
(A) the general to the specific.
(B) superstition to fact.
(C) the rhetorical to the logical.
(D) data to interpretation.
(E) cause to effect.
The etymology of vulgar or profane words is a subject of both frustration and amusement for linguists. Because “dirty” words tend to be used in speech for a considerable length of time before they are ever used in print, their origins are often a subject of controversy. Often, urban legend will hold that a particular four-letter word originated as an acronym, but such after-the-fact explanations — jokingly dubbed “backronyms” — are inevitably spurious.
56. The passage suggests that the etymology of “dirty” words is often in doubt because
(A) linguists are reluctant to study them.
(B) deliberate disinformation is spread about them.
(C) they are absent from preserved records.
(D) their meanings change so rapidly.
(E) they frequently originate as acronyms.
Part 2: Writing
20. Students may not enjoy learning grammar, but a teacher who doesn’t teach grammar is not doing their job.
(A) is not doing their job
(B) is not doing their jobs
(C) are not doing their jobs
(D) is not doing his or her job
(E) are not doing his or her job
21. There are actually six different species of giraffe, all with distinctive spot patterns.
(A) all with
(B) in which all have
(C) all of whom having
(D) they all have
(E) each one has
22. Although he is widely considered the greatest novelist of the 20th century, but James Joyce never won the Nobel Prize for Literature.
(A) century, but James Joyce
(B) century, seeing that
(C) century, James Joyce
(D) century; James Joyce
(E) century, however, James Joyce
23. The late Christopher Hitchens had the capacity both to delight with the force of his learning and wit, but was also shocking in his iconoclasm and bluntness.
(A) wit, but was also shocking in
(B) wit, while also being shocking by
(C) wit, he also shocked with
(D) wit but also to shock with
(E) wit and to shock with
24. Having spotted the skyline in the distance, an attempt was made to reach town without making any more stops.
(A) Having spotted the skyline in the distance, an attempt was made to
(B) Having spotted the skyline in the distance, and we attempted to
(C) Having spotted the skyline in the distance, we decided to try to
(D) We spotted the skyline in the distance, therefore we attempted to
(E) Spotting the skyline in the distance and trying to
25. Nineteenth-century Hungarian composer Franz Liszt was the first artist who female fans showed their appreciation for throwing their undergarments onto the stage.
(A) who female fans showed their appreciation for throwing
(B) who female fans were showing their appreciation for and throwing
(C) to whom female fans to show their appreciation by throwing
(D) for whom female fans showed their appreciation by throwing
(E) to whom female fans showed their appreciation to throw
26. In about 6 billion years, the Sun will exhaust its supply of hydrogen and expand into a red giant, and consume all the planets of our solar system, then collapse into a white dwarf.
(A) and consume all the planets of our solar system, then collapse
(B) it will consume all the planets of our solar system and then collapse
(C) and it will consume all the planets of our solar system; then collapse
(D) consuming all the planets of our solar system and then it will collapse
(E) consuming all the planets of our solar system before collapsing
27. Madagascar, an island off the western coast of Africa, a biodiversity hotspot, and over 90 percent of its wildlife is found nowhere else on the planet.
(A) Africa, a biodiversity hotspot, and over 90 percent of its wildlife is found
(B) Africa, is a biodiversity hotspot, with over 90 percent of its wildlife being found
(C) Africa, being a biodiversity hotspot, over 90 percent of its wildlife found
(D) Africa and a biodiversity hotspot, with over 90 percent of its wildlife found
(E) Africa, it is a biodiversity hotspot, and over 90 percent of its wildlife is found
28. I have decided that I’m ready to take the test now, however the rest of you may delay for as long as you like.
(A) now, however the rest of you may
(B) now, however, the rest of you may
(C) now; the rest of you, however, may
(D) now; the rest of you however may
(E) now, the rest of you, however, may
29. Though he was unappreciated in his time, today the works of Vincent van Gogh are more celebrated than are those of any other Post-Impressionist painter.
(A) than are those of
(B) than
(C) compared to
(D) compared with
(E) compared than
30. It may look cool when people do it in the movies, but the truth of it is firing two guns at the same time is a very effective way of not hitting anything.
(A) the truth of it is firing
(B) the truth is that firing
(C) the truth is, if one is firing
(D) truly, if one is to fire
(E) truly to fire
31. In context, what is the best way to combine Sentences 2 and 3 (reproduced here)?
A certain type of person is likely to tell you that poetry is read by hardly anyone. He will add that the few people who do read it comprise an insular cadre of specialists, which is ignored by the culture at large.
(A) A certain type of person is likely to tell you that poetry is read by hardly anyone except a few people who do read it and comprise an insular cadre of specialists, and that these people are ignored by the culture at large.
(B) A certain type of person is likely to tell you that poetry is read by hardly anyone, and that the few people who do read it comprise an insular cadre of specialists ignored by the culture at large.
(C) A certain type of person is likely to tell you that poetry is read by hardly anyone, only an insular cadre of specialists that is also ignored by the culture at large.
(D) A certain type of person is likely to tell you that poetry is read by hardly anyone who does not comprise an insular cadre of specialists ignored by the culture at large.
(E) A certain type of person is likely to tell you that poetry is read by hardly anyone, adding that the few people who do read it comprise an insular cadre of specialists, and specifying that they are ignored by the culture at large.
32. In context, what is best to do with Sentence 5 (reproduced here)?
The explanation is that these two respondents are talking about two very different things when they say “poetry.”
(A) Leave it as it is.
(B) Take the word poetry out of quotation marks and put the word very in italics.
(C) Begin the sentence with “On the other hand.”
(D) Make it the second sentence of the subsequent paragraph.
(E) Insert the word “however” between respondents and are.
33. In context, what is the best revision of the underlined portion of Sentence 7 (reproduced here)?
In recent decades, however, a populist subgenre of poetry called “slam” has been challenging that definition, just as definitions are often challenged.
(A) just as definitions are often challenged
(B) and you’re about to find out how and why.
(C) with varying degrees of success.
(D) to the delight of some and the consternation of others.
(E) with methods as devious as they were unexpected.
34. In context, which is the best way to modify the underlined portion of Sentence 9 (reproduced here)?
Unlike more traditional poets, many of whom have advanced degrees in poetry, slammers memorize their poems and act them out with gestures, impressions, and even sound effects, moving all about the stage in an effort to keep the crowd’s attention.
(A) many of whom have advanced degrees in poetry
(B) who come from just as wide a range of backgrounds as do slammers
(C) who are not necessarily any older than the slammers are
(D) who are often more shy than slammers are, despite being more well-read
(E) who typically stand at lecterns and read from notes or a published book during recitals
35. Which version of Sentence 10 (reproduced here) would make the best conclusion to the second paragraph?
This is a difficult task with any crowd.
(A) This is a difficult task with any crowd.
(B) Some of them even burst into song, though usually not very skillfully.
(C) Their work is designed to be seen in performance rather than read.
(D) Can the use of props among slammers be far behind?
(E) The venues that host slams can’t complain, because they always make money.
36. In context, which is the best transitional phrase to add at the beginning of Sentence 13 (reproduced here)?
Each camp sincerely believes that it is being “oppressed” by the other: Slammers think that page poets are privileged, closed-minded, and exclusionary, whereas page poets see slammers as the “cool kids” trying to turn poetry into a popularity contest.
(A) Ironically
(B) Therefore
(C) Undeniably
(D) On the other hand
(E) In conclusion
37. Downing, Thomas. (2012, April). “The Standardized-Test Conundrum.” Education, 76, 93–99.
In the citation shown, which of the following is cited?
(A) a book
(B) a magazine article
(C) a newspaper article
(D) a blog entry
(E) a speech
38. In terms of research, the technical distinction between a primary source and a secondary source is that
(A) a secondary source yields less important information than a primary source.
(B) a primary source is quoted from directly, whereas a secondary source is not.
(C) a primary source represents original research, whereas a secondary source contains information already compiled by someone else.
(D) a primary source is a published work with an ISBN, whereas a secondary source might not have been published or even copyrighted.
(E) a primary source is the text or texts that the paper is about, and a secondary source is anything else.
39. When an author includes a quotation (from a poem, for example) below the title of the essay and above the text, the quotation is called an
(A) epigram.
(B) epigraph.
(C) epistle.
(D) epithelium.
(E) epitaxy.
40. The difference between a Works Cited page and a bibliography is that
(A) Bibliography is the term used in high school, and Works Cited page is the term used in college.
(B) a Works Cited page lists only cited sources, whereas a bibliography lists every source consulted.
(C) a bibliography lists only books, whereas a Works Cited page lists all types of sources.
(D) Bibliography is the term used in an unpublished paper, whereas Works Cited page is the term used in a published paper.
(E) Works Cited page is the preferred term in APA style, whereas bibliography is the preferred term in MLA style.
Argumentative Essay
Source-Based Essay
Source 1
Adapted from: Wisnewski, Jeremy J. “Mutant Phenomenology.” X-Men and Philosophy: Astonishing Insight and Uncanny Argument in the Mutant X-verse. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 2009. Print.
Phenomenology is a philosophical movement that has its roots in late-nineteenth- and early-twentieth-century thought, in thinkers such as Edmund Husserl (1859–1938) and Martin Heidegger (1889–1976). It is a systematic investigation into phenomena — that is, into the way things present themselves to us in experience. Both Husserl and Heidegger thought that things present themselves as they really are in our experiences, but that we often distort the truth that experience presents. We impose particular theories onto phenomena and insist that they conform to our preconceived notions about how the world is. To do phenomenology is to try and set aside our preconceptions and to uncover the actual being of things as they reveal themselves to us. In a way, it is to see past our preconceptions into the heart of things.
Source 2
Adapted from: Tschner, George. “High-Tech Mythology in X-Men.” X-Men and Philosophy: Astonishing Insight and Uncanny Argument in the Mutant X-verse. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 2009. Print.
Creating and believing in mythical heroes and heroic deeds are ways that human consciousness conceptualizes major forces and conflicts. The ancient Greeks satisfied the need to understand the how, the why, the origin of things, and the destiny of human beings beyond social and biological life through an elaborate polytheism that invested divinities with powers and personalities beyond the human. Mythology is a figurative and metaphorical way the human intellect grasps its world and answers and resolves some of the most fundamental questions. Unlike ancient Greece, today’s society faces one of its most pressing issues in the relationship between humanity and technology. Contemporary technology has created the machine, which has dwarfed the natural abilities of the human body. The native capacities of the human mind are slow and meager compared to the speed and processing power of the computer. The major events of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries have been shaped by the use and development of the machine in manufacturing, war, transportation, and scientific research.
Part 3: Mathematics
1. A pair of u and w values is written on a card. The pair works as a solution to the equation 
. Paul begins to write another pair of u and w values on a different card. He increases the value of w by 10 from the first card. What type of change must the value of u have from the first card in order for the new pair to also work as a solution to the equation?
(A) decrease of 6
(B) increase of 3
(C) decrease of 10
(D) increase of 6
(E) increase of 10
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
2. If the preceding rectangle has a perimeter of 46 units, what is the area of the rectangle?
(A) 2
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 26
(E) 76
3. The following numbers are equal to each other, except for one. Which of the five numbers is NOT equal to the other four?
(A) 4.7
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 4.700
4. Based on the preceding chart, if David’s test scores for the current term are 83, 72, 94, 100, and 68, what will he need to make on his next test to have an average test score of 85?
(A) 93
(B) 85
(C) 83.4
(D) 70
(E) 94
5. Brady is trying to solve the equation 
. For his first step, he subtracted 7 from both sides of the equation. Which of the following should be his next step?
(A) Subtract 5 from both sides of the equation.
(B) Divide both sides of the equation by 5.
(C) Multiply both sides of the equation by 49.
(D) Add 5 to both sides of the equation.
(E) Divide both sides of the equation by 35.
10 8 12 5 3 15
6. Which of the following statements is true about the preceding set of data?
(A) The median is greater than the mean.
(B) The mean is greater than the median.
(C) The median and the mean are equal.
(D) The data set does not have a mean.
(E) The data set does not have a median.
7. In the preceding figure, cars are the preferred method of transportation.
Approximately what percentage of the total people preferred vans?
(A) 20%
(B) 48%
(C) 55%
(D) 80%
(E) 149%
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
8. The preceding diagram represents areas of expertise of executives at a business. According to the diagram, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Not all of the marketing experts are business management experts.
(B) None of the sales experts are computer technology experts.
(C) None of the marketing experts are computer technology experts.
(D) None of the sales experts are marketing experts.
(E) All of the marketing experts are computer technology experts.
9. Which of the following is equivalent to 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
10. Which of the following numbers is a counterexample to the preceding statement?
(A) 5
(B) 17
(C) 37
(D) 65
(E) 101
11. What is the sum of 
and 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
12. What is the greatest common factor (GCF) of the first 28 prime numbers?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
(E) 28
13. Which of the following is the least common multiple of 8 and 14?
(A) 2
(B) 28
(C) 48
(D) 56
(E) 96
14. The preceding graph shows the car sales for one week at Bobby’s dealership. Last year, the weekly average was 18 cars. How do the sales from this week so far compare to last year’s average?
(A) This week’s sales are lower by 9 cars.
(B) This week’s sales are lower by 15 cars.
(C) This week’s sales are higher by 9 cars.
(D) This week’s sales are higher by 19 cars
(E) This week’s sales are about the same as last year’s average.
15. Which statement about the preceding data set is false?
(A) The mean is greater than the median.
(B) The median is greater than the mean.
(C) The mean is greater than the mode.
(D) The mode is less than the median.
(E) The mean and the median are greater than the mode.
16. Martin wrote the first seven prime numbers on a piece of paper in order from least to greatest. What is the quotient of the last number he wrote divided by the first number?
(A) 
(B) 6.5
(C) 7
(D) 8.5
(E) 17
17. In the preceding figure, solve for y.
(A) 15.00
(B) 26.25
(C) 36.00
(D) 51.75
(E) 210.00
18. Sharon drove from her home to the gym at a rate of 55 miles per hour. She returned home along the same route at the same speed. If she spent 45 minutes at the gym and was gone from home for a total of 1.5 hours, approximately how many total miles did Sharon travel?
(A) 10 miles
(B) 21 miles
(C) 41 miles
(D) 83 miles
(E) 100 miles
19. Which of the following is 245% in simplest improper fraction form?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
20. Al played 27 games of golf in a period of two weeks. The number of games he played in that period is 75 percent of the number he played in the previous two weeks. How many games of golf did Al play in the first two-week period?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 20
(D) 36
(E) 277
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
21. If the preceding quadrilateral is translated 7 units up and 4 units left, what will be the coordinates of the new vertices?
(A) (4, –3), (5, 3), (–6, –4), and (–6, 5)
(B) (–10, 1), (–12, 7), (–1, 0), (–1, 9)
(C) (7, 4), (9, 10), (–2, 3), and (–2, 12)
(D) (–7, 4), (–9, 10), (2, 3), and (2, 12)
(E) (4, –7), (10, –9), (3, 2), and (12, 2)
22. If Adam’s hourly wages increase from $16.50 to $19.60, what is his percent increase rounded to the nearest tenth?
(A) 3.1%
(B) 18.8%
(C) 20.0%
(D) 31.0%
(E) 36.1%
23. The number of humans living on Earth is approximately 7.53 billion. What is that number in scientific notation?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
24. Erik, Kristi, and Brecken own a plot of land. Erik owns 
of the land, and Kristi owns 
of it. What fraction of the land does Brecken own?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
25. 
Evaluate the preceding expression for 
, 
, and 
.
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 51
(D) 68
(E) 74
26. A polling company plans to poll workers of a large corporation on an issue not concerning the corporation. Which of the following methods would most likely involve polling an unbiased sample?
(A) asking the president of the company questions and using his answers to represent the company
(B) asking questions of every tenth worker who walks through the main entrance for work
(C) polling every third cafeteria worker who enters the cafeteria for work
(D) asking people questions as they stand in the lobby awaiting an executive meeting
(E) conducting interviews of people who work in the mailroom
27. The distance from Mike’s house to his office building is 4.72 km. The distance from Cindy’s house to the same office building is 5,358 meters. How much greater is the distance from Cindy’s house to the office building than the distance from Mike’s house to the office building?
Select all such measurements.
(A) 4.886 kilometers
(B) 6,380 decimeters
(C) 4,886 meters
(D) 5,310.8 decameters
(E) 638 meters
28. The preceding line graph shows the total numbers of miles flown by a hot-air balloon team in each of six years. In which of the six years did the team experience the second-biggest drop in number of miles flown from the previous year?
(A) 2014
(B) 2015
(C) 2016
(D) 2017
(E) 2018
29. Natasha is nine times Eric’s age. In ten years, the sum of their ages will be 60. What is Natasha’s age now?
(A) 4
(B) 14
(C) 36
(D) 46
(E) 60
30. A hat contains four red marbles, two blue marbles, seven green marbles, and one orange marble. If a marble is randomly taken out of the hat and put back and then a marble is randomly taken out again, what is the probability that the first marble will be blue and the second marble will be orange?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
31. Peter has 20 quarters and dimes totaling $3.65.
If he has two more quarters than he has dimes, how many quarters does he have?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
(E) 12
32. A triangle has a side with a measure of 3 m. It also has a side with a measure of 8 m. Which of the following could be a measure of a side of the triangle?
Indicate all such values.
(A) 5 m
(B) 7 m
(C) 9 m
(D) 11 m
(E) 13 m
33. Linda flipped a quarter into the air four times, and it landed on heads all four times. If Linda flips the same quarter into the air again, what is the probability that it will land on tails? Write your answer in the space provided.
____________________________
34. Which of the following numbers is between 
and –3.71?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
437 12 54 37 858 7 902 600 218 519
35. The set of data above represents the scores achieved by a group of students in a school video-game competition. What is the median of the set of scores?
(A) 37
(B) 218.5
(C) 219
(D) 327.5
(E) 364
36. At the Jackson Gymnastics and Fishing Tournament, every participant competed in both a fishing contest and a gymnastics competition. Each ordered pair represented on the preceding scatter plot shows a participant’s results. The goal in the fishing competition was to catch the biggest fish possible. None of the fish in the lake where the fishing contest was held weighed more than 12 pounds. Which of the following is indicated by the scatter plot?
Select all such statements.
(A) As fish weight increases, gymnastics score tends to increase.
(B) As fish weight increases, gymnastics score tends to decrease.
(C) As gymnastics score increases, fish weight tends to increase.
(D) As gymnastics score increases, fish weight tends to decrease.
(E) No correlation between fish weight and gymnastics score is apparent.
37. Kat is making a batch of brownies. The recipe requires 
cups of flour. Kat’s glass container can hold 
of a cup of flour. If she fills the container with flour multiple times and pours the flour into her cooking dish, how many times must she fill the glass container to pour the necessary amount of flour for the recipe?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
38. The greatest common divisor of 45 and 12 is squared. The result is added to the square of itself. What is the final number reached?
(A) 90
(B) 98
(C) 100
(D) 102
(E) 122
39. Which of the following are coordinates of points that are in the shaded interval on the preceding number line?
Indicate all such coordinates.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
40. Triangle ABC is a right triangle in which BC is the hypotenuse and has a measure of 13 km. AB has a measure of 5 km. What is the measure of AC?
(A) 6 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 11 km
(D) 12 km
(E) 16 km
41. During the 2013–2014 baseball season, Mark hit the ball 48 out of 60 times he was up at bat. What percentage of the times Mark was up at bat did he NOT hit the ball?
(A) 20 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 50 percent
(D) 60 percent
(E) 80 percent
42. Tim is twice as old as Sarah.
Rachel is 
Tim’s age.
If Rachel is 18, how old are Tim and Sarah?
(A) Tim is 36, and Sarah is 54.
(B) Tim is 27, and Sarah is 54.
(C) Tim is 81, and Sarah is 36.
(D) Tim is 54, and Sarah is 27.
(E) Tim is 72, and Sarah is 36.
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
43. In the preceding diagram, what is the value of w?
(A) 40
(B) 46
(C) 84
(D) 94
(E) 100
44. The previous table shows the numbers of books read in one summer by the kids in a reading club. What is the range of the set of data?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5.57
(D) 11
(E) 12
45. 22 is p less than a third of r. Which of the following equations indicates the relationship between p and r?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
46. The preceding graph shows a trend in the use of dating sites. If this trend continues, how many people would be expected to date online in 2020?
(A) 15%
(B) 16%
(C) 18%
(D) 20%
(E) 21%
47. Twenty-four bees of a certain species formed a colony. Their population triples over a time period of exactly 1 week. If all bees remain in the colony, how many will be living in it precisely 8 weeks after the colony was formed?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
48. What is the solution to the preceding system of equations?
(A) (0, 0)
(B) (4, 7)
(C) (11, 15.5)
(D) (7, 4)
(E) (0, 11)
49. The preceding stem-and-leaf plot reflects the ages of males who signed up for a volunteer golf tournament. How many males signed up?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 19
(D) 50
(E) 53
50. Molly cut out 
of a full pizza and ate 
of that portion. Wes cut off and took 
of the rest of the portion and ate 
of what he took. What fraction of the full pizza did Wes eat?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
51. When a certain number wheel is spun, it has a 
probability of stopping on a red number. If it lands on a red number, the probability of that red number also being prime is 
. If the wheel is spun, what is the probability that it will land on a red prime number?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
52. The preceding graph displays the height of an exotic plant after the presented numbers of days of growth of the plant. If the plant continues to grow at the same rate, which of the following will be the height of the plant, in millimeters, when it has reached 12 days of growth?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 12
(E) 22
53. What can be done to the above expression to change it to scientific notation?
(A) Move the decimal three places to the left and make the exponent three higher.
(B) Move the decimal three places to the left and make the exponent three lower.
(C) Move the decimal two places to the left and make the exponent two higher.
(D) Move the decimal two places to the left and make the exponent two higher.
(E) Move the decimal four places to the left and make the exponent one higher.
54. The following data regarding 5 members of a basketball team is placed on a scatterplot diagram. What type of line of best fit does this data support?
|
Height (in) |
Weight (lb) |
|
71 |
172 |
|
70 |
168 |
|
68 |
160 |
|
74 |
185 |
|
76 |
190 |
(A) a positive slope line
(B) a negative slope line
(C) a horizontal line
(D) a vertical line
(E) no line of best fit
55. Olivia wants to convert 65 feet per minute to a unit rate consisting of a number of inches per second. By which of the following can she multiply 
to make the conversion? Indicate all such factors.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
56. Between what two numbers is the interquartile range of the set of data represented by the previous box-and-whisker plot?
(A) 5 and 10
(B) 15 and 25
(C) 30 and 50
(D) 65 and 90
(E) 75 and 80