For each question, circle the letter of your answer choice.
Directions: Read the following reading passage to answer questions 1 through 10.
Many of the calls to the fire department regarding life-threatening situations do not involve fires. They may relate to medical emergencies where a victim is having a heart attack or choking. Firefighters will use their first aid, CPR, and CFR-D training in conjunction with resuscitator and defibrillator equipment to stop bleeding, splint broken bones, and restore lung and heart functions.
Firefighters are also called to motor vehicle accidents where people are injured from the impact of the collision or trapped inside the vehicle unable to extricate themselves from the wreckage. Manual forcible entry tools like the axe and halligan in conjunction with reciprocating saws and the Jaws of Life are used by firefighters to enter the vehicle and free victims from the metal around them. Public transportation accidents involving airplanes and trains resulting in multiple casualties are dealt with by firefighters using an abundance of manpower that may involve mutual aid assistance from surrounding jurisdictions to supplement operational needs.
Utility emergencies are yet other situations to which fire departments respond. Occupants may be overcome by the gases of incomplete combustion, such as carbon monoxide, emitted from their heating systems and stoves. Firefighters will have to don self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) to enter the building in order to gain access to the faulty heating appliance to shut it down and ventilate. Stuck elevators cause people inside to panic and fear for their safety and timely removal. The fire service may use special keys to open stuck hoistway doors or lower portable ladders from the floor above the stuck elevator car to reach and remove trapped occupants.
Natural disasters, including tornados, earthquakes, storms, floods, and hurricanes, endanger the lives of thousands and require fire service commitment for long periods of time.
Large municipalities may form preestablished incident management teams (IMT) composed of firefighters of all ranks to help manage and coordinate the rescue effort. The fire service also conducts lifesaving efforts on our nation’s rivers, lakes, and seas utilizing both large vessels and swift-water rafts. These watercraft are used to rescue people from boats in distress as well as to save victims from drowning.
The list of non-fire-related situations where firefighters are needed to save lives is long. Firefighters must be ready to perform lifesaving acts of skill and bravery that do not involve actually extinguishing fires on a daily basis. The age of firefighters just going and operating at fires is a thing of the past. Firefighters are truly diversified first responders of the modern age.
1. Another appropriate title for this article would most likely be
(A) Multifaceted Heroes
(B) Fires and Firefighters
(C) Fire Extinguishment
(D) Medical Emergencies
2. An example of a medical emergency is
(A) a victim unable to exit a vehicle
(B) an occupied stalled elevator
(C) a choking victim
(D) a boat in distress
3. The Jaws of Life would most likely be used by firefighters in which of the following emergency situations?
(A) Motor vehicle accidents
(B) A drowning incident
(C) A stuck elevator
(D) Splinting broken bones
4. A deadly gaseous by-product of incomplete combustion is
(A) oxygen
(B) water vapor
(C) nitrogen
(D) carbon monoxide
5. A tool utilized by firefighters to free trapped occupants inside a stalled elevator is a
(A) reciprocating saw
(B) portable ladder
(C) defibrillator
(D) raft
6. Which of the following best describes the meaning of mutual aid?
(A) First aid training to stop a victim’s bleeding
(B) Specific firefighting procedures at public transportation accidents
(C) Outside assistance to supplement operational needs
(D) None of the above
7. A halligan is an example of what type of tool used in the fire service?
(A) Jaws of Life
(B) First aid tool
(C) Reciprocating tool
(D) Forcible entry tool
8. Preestablished incident management teams may be formed by large municipalities during events that require a firefighting commitment for an extensive period of time. The IMT is specifically utilized to perform what function?
(A) Extinguish a fire
(B) Coordinate the rescue effort
(C) Investigate the cause of a public transportation accident
(D) Mitigate weather conditions
9. According to the passage, SCBA is most commonly used in what type of life-threatening emergency?
(A) A utility emergency
(B) A medical emergency
(C) A drowning incident
(D) An elevator emergency
10. Which of the following would not be considered a natural disaster?
(A) Tornado
(B) Earthquake
(C) Flood
(D) Heart attack
Directions: Use the information and table given below to answer questions 11 through 18.
When trying to lose weight, one must strive to expend energy in greater amounts than caloric intake. Use the table below showing the correlation between food (calories consumed) and the exercise required to burn off the calories to answer questions 11 through 18.
11. Which exercise burns the most calories during a 30-minute workout?
(A) Swimming
(B) Rowing
(C) Yoga
(D) Jogging
12. Which of the following exercises burns the least calories during a 30-minute workout?
(A) Aerobic class
(B) Bicycling
(C) Walking
(D) Tennis
13. What food listed has the highest caloric content?
(A) Cola (6 oz)
(B) Lamb chops (2 oz)
(C) Italian bread (2 slices)
(D) Ice cream (1/4 cup)
14. Which type of workout would you have to do to burn off the equivalent caloric intake contained in three ounces of flounder and a half cup of lentils?
(A) Aerobic class (15 min) and yoga (30 min)
(B) Bicycling (30 min) and swimming (10 min)
(C) Jogging (30 min) and tennis (15 min)
(D) Rope skipping (15 min) and rowing (15 min)
15. Which exercise will burn off 600 calories in 1 hour?
(A) Bicycling
(B) Tennis
(C) Rope skipping
(D) Swimming
16. Which food grouping below provides the lowest caloric intake?
(A) Lamb chops (2 oz) and apples (1/2 cup)
(B) Flounder (3 oz) and cake (piece)
(C) Lentils (1/2 cup) and Italian bread (2 slices)
(D) Cola (12 oz) and ice cream (1/2 cup)
17. A triathlete preparing for an upcoming event swims for 20 minutes, jogs for 30 minutes, and bicycles for an additional 1 hour. How many calories did the athlete burn during the workout?
(A) 1,200
(B) 1,000
(C) 800
(D) 700
18. How many minutes would a yoga practitioner have to exercise to burn off 360 calories?
(A) 60
(B) 75
(C) 90
(D) 120
Directions: Select the correct answer for the following questions.
19. Generally, which fuel below would contain the most heat energy per pound?
(A) Hydrogen gas
(B) Paper
(C) Wood
(D) Coal
20. Which is NOT considered a thermal heat unit?
(A) BTU
(B) Calorie
(C) Fahrenheit degree
(D) Joule
21. How many whole number increments are there on the Centigrade (Celsius) scale between the freezing point of water and its boiling point?
(A) 32
(B) 100
(C) 180
(D) 212
22. The Fahrenheit degree is equal to the
(A) Celsius degree
(B) BTU
(C) Kelvin degree
(D) Rankine degree
23. Absolute zero is the hypothetical point at which
(A) water flows freely
(B) all materials explode
(C) all molecular movement ceases
(D) liquids change to gas
24. The amount and speed of heat transfer through an object is dependent on
(A) thermal conductivity
(B) shininess
(C) shape of the object
(D) color
25. Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning heat transfer via radiant waves?
(A) The darker/duller the object, the less heat it will absorb.
(B) The lighter/shinier the object, the more heat it will absorb.
(C) Radiant waves can pass through air, water, and glass.
(D) Radiant waves are limited to a distance of about 20 feet or less.
26. The fire process is divided into three phases. The initial phase is known as the
(A) decay phase
(B) cold phase
(C) free-burning phase
(D) growth phase
27. The graph that aids in the visualization of the heat energy and temperature attained during the three phases of fire is called the
(A) Flame spread index
(B) Standard time/temperature curve
(C) Anatomy of fire
(D) Fire phase scale
28. How many classes of fire are firefighters challenged to extinguish daily?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
29. Rubber products are listed under what classification of fire?
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class D
(D) Class K
30. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a Class D material?
(A) Zirconium
(B) Uranium
(C) Sodium
(D) Iron
31. An ABC multipurpose dry chemical portable fire extinguisher is designed to put out fires in all of the choices listed below except
(A) vegetable cooking oils
(B) energized electrical equipment
(C) textiles
(D) diesel oil
32. When responding to fire alarms, officers are permitted to talk to chauffeurs driving the apparatus only under exceptional circumstances. What is most likely the reason for this?
(A) It allows the chauffeur to concentrate on driving the apparatus.
(B) It permits the officer to critique the chauffeur’s driving ability.
(C) It maintains the rank structure between officer and firefighter.
(D) It enables the firefighters in the crew cab to hear urgent radio transmissions.
33. Fire prevention inspections ideally should be carried out at irregular hours and intervals. The best justification for this practice is that
(A) it permits firefighters to inconvenience business owners
(B) it enables firefighters to issue more violations and summonses
(C) it allows firefighters to beef up their inspection statistics
(D) it lets firefighters observe occupancies in their normal condition
34. A firefighter operating a hose line inside a large mazelike, one-story warehouse discovers the hose line has been cut and is no longer delivering water on the fire. Large amounts of smoke fill the area, and it is now time to leave the building. The best way for the firefighter to find the way to the outside of the building is
(A) find a wall and follow it to a side exit
(B) find a window and climb through it
(C) follow the hose line back to the entrance door
(D) move forward in the direction of the hose stream
35. A firefighter on the way to work is confronted by a civilian complaining of blocked aisles in a department store a few blocks away. Of the following, the most appropriate action the firefighter should take in this situation is
(A) go with the civilian to the store to investigate the complaint
(B) assure the civilian that the violation is not serious and continue on your way
(C) obtain the address of the store and tell the civilian you will relay the nature of the complaint to your supervisor
(D) tell the civilian to return to the store and take pictures of the violation to substantiate the complaint and deliver the photographs to the firehouse
36. You are a firefighter with a new idea on how to force entry through entrance doors in commercial occupancies that you think will aid fellow firefighters. Your new method, however, is not sanctioned by the fire department where you work. Your best action to take concerning your new procedure is
(A) dismiss the idea since your department probably will not accept it
(B) train others in your new method on an unofficial basis
(C) use your new procedure at fire operations to allow others to witness its effectiveness
(D) talk to your supervisor concerning your new idea
37. Firefighters should answer the official department telephone on the first ring. What is the main reason for this?
(A) It demonstrates professionalism.
(B) It shows firefighters are quick with their hands.
(C) It gives the appearance that firefighters are waiting to be called to a fire.
(D) It will impress the caller, especially if it is a superior officer.
38. A firefighter on the way to work is standing at a bus stop when suddenly a pedestrian is seen choking on a hot dog. The civilian is having difficulty breathing and is unable to talk. In this instance the firefighter’s action should be to
(A) run to his or her firehouse and seek assistance
(B) administer first aid if necessary to help restore normal breathing
(C) call for an ambulance via cell phone and board the arriving bus
(D) tell the choking victim to continue walking to the closest emergency room approximately four blocks away
39. At the start of day tour, your superior officer gives you, a firefighter, an order that you do not fully understand. The assignment is not too complex and you don’t want to make it seem that you were inattentive when the order was given. In this scenario you should most likely
(A) perform the task to the best of your ability
(B) ask a senior firefighter to help explain the order given
(C) ask the officer to please repeat the order
(D) wait till lunch to ask the officer to repeat the order
40. Standpipe system hose outlets are strategically placed inside large-area buildings allowing firefighters to connect to them and conduct hose line operations. The primary reason why such outlets are advantageous in fighting fires is
(A) different diameter hose lines can be connected to them
(B) they have male threads
(C) they may or may not have pressure reducer devices installed within their orifice
(D) they allow firefighters to stretch less hose line to reach the fire
41. What is the main reason why water is not recommended as an initial extinguishing agent for fires inside U.S. mailboxes?
(A) It generally is not successful in putting out the fire.
(B) The mail usually reacts with water causing a violent chemical reaction.
(C) Water is not used on fires located within confined spaces.
(D) The water may cause unburned mail to be undeliverable.
42. You are a probationary firefighter responding to your first fire. While on the apparatus, you turn on your self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) only to find that it is defective and will not allow air into the face piece. As you arrive on the scene of the fire, your initial action should be to
(A) tell the officer that your SCBA is defective and seek a replacement
(B) team up with a fellow firefighter in case you need to use a SCBA
(C) avoid the officer so as to not miss a chance at fighting the fire
(D) stay outside the building and notify your officer at the completion of his or her duties
43. You are a newly assigned firefighter. You answer the department phone and the caller asks you for the address and phone number of a firefighter also assigned to the firehouse but who is not presently working. The caller states that it is important and that she is a relative of the firefighter she wishes to contact. In this situation, your best action is most likely
(A) to give the caller the information she seeks
(B) to tell the caller you cannot give out any personal information over the phone and instruct her to try a telephone operator
(C) to refer the caller to your superior
(D) to take down the caller’s telephone number and give it to the firefighter she wishes to contact upon his or her return to work
Directions: The pie chart above shows the distribution of firefighters in Columbia County. Use this information to answer questions 44 through 49.
44. Which two fire departments combined have more than 50% of the firefighters in the entire county?
(A) Wyatt and Stanley
(B) Jerome and Young
(C) Cumberland and Wyatt
(D) Stanley and Cumberland
45. Which two fire departments have the same number of firefighters as Cumberland Township?
(A) Jerome and Wyatt
(B) Stanley and Jerome
(C) Wyatt and Stanley
(D) Young and Wyatt
46. Compared to the county, approximately what percentage of firefighters does the Stanley Township fire department have?
(A) 13.3%
(B) 16.6%
(C) 21.2%
(D) 26.1%
47. Together Jerome and Wyatt Townships have approximately what percentage of firefighters in the county?
(A) 20%
(B) 26.6%
(C) 33.3%
(D) 38.7%
48. Jerome Township, with the lowest number of firefighters, has approximately what percentage of firefighters in the county?
(A) 6.6%
(B) 13.3%
(C) 16.6%
(D) 20%
49. The total number of firefighters from Wyatt, Young, and Cumberland Townships is
(A) 190
(B) 200
(C) 210
(D) 220
50. How much 3% foam concentrate solution should be added to 100 gallons of 6% foam concentrate solution to obtain a 4% foam concentrate solution?
(A) 50 gallons
(B) 100 gallons
(C) 150 gallons
(D) 200 gallons
51. The sum of two consecutive integers is 23. If x is the first integer and x + 1 is the second integer, what are the numbers?
(A) 11 and 12
(B) 9 and 14
(C) 7 and 16
(D) 5 and 18
52. The sum of two numbers is 38. If one number is six more than the other number, what is the smaller number of the two?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 22
53. What is the average of the following set of numbers: 8, 40, 61, 14, 7.
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 26
(D) 29
54. The total sum of a set of numbers is 84. The average of the numbers is 21. How many numbers are there in the set?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
55. A student gets a 75, 82, and 90 on three 100-point exams in English class during the semester. What grade will be needed on the final 100-point exam to obtain an 85 average?
(A) 86
(B) 88
(C) 90
(D) 93
56. Paul is three times older than his grandson Bill. Bill is 10 years older than his sister, Sharon. The sum of Paul’s, Bill’s, and Sharon’s ages is 140. What is Paul’s age?
(A) 90
(B) 88
(C) 80
(D) 77
57. In question 56 above, what is Sharon’s age?
(A) 30
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 20
58. Larry can complete apparatus quarterly maintenance by himself in 2 hours. Keith can perform this task in 3 hours. If they work together, how long will it take?
(A) 1 hour
(B) 1 hour and 12 minutes
(C) 1 hour and 20 minutes
(D) 1 hour and 30 minutes
59. What does the W represent in the formula: W = r · t ?
(A) Weight
(B) Whole
(C) Work
(D) Wedge
60. On a given Saturday, Thomas mows a lawn by himself in 80 minutes. On the following Saturday, Thomas and his friend Sam use two mowers to mow the lawn, and the job is completed in an hour. How long would it take for Sam to mow the lawn by himself?
(A) 2 hours
(B) 3 hours and 30 minutes
(C) 3 hours and 50 minutes
(D) 4 hours
61. Carol drove from her home to Apex, a distance of approximately 265 miles, at a rate of 53 mph. On her return trip she drove at a rate of 44 mph. About how many hours did it take her to complete the round trip?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 15
62. An athlete can run at 5 mph when there is no wind. With the wind at her back, she can run 21 miles in 3 hours. What is the wind speed?
(A) 1 mph
(B) 2 mph
(C) 3 mph
(D) 4 mph
63. A car travels past a road sign at 40 mph. Fifteen minutes later, a second vehicle, traveling in the same direction, passes the same road sign at 55 mph. How long will it take for the second vehicle to overtake the first?
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 40 minutes
(D) 50 minutes
64. Two tour buses pass each other going in opposite directions. One bus is going at 50 mph while the other bus is traveling at 40 mph. In how much time will the buses be 180 miles apart?
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2 hours and 30 minutes
(C) 3 hours
(D) 3 hours and 20 minutes
65. Carl has $20 in quarters and dimes and a total of 104 coins. How many quarters does he have?
(A) 32
(B) 40
(C) 58
(D) 64
66. In question 65 above, how many dimes does Carl have?
(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 42
(D) 45
67. Morris earns three times more money per hour than Jones. Jones, however, makes $5 more per hour than Porter. Together they earn $80 per hour. How much money does Porter earn per hour?
(A) $51
(B) $47
(C) $17
(D) $12
68. What is the probability that a king will be selected at random from a deck of 52 playing cards?
(Use formula: P = event/possible outcomes)
(A) 1:52
(B) 1:26
(C) 1:13
(D) 1:4
69. An iron column weighs 600 pounds and is 16 feet long. What is the weight of a similar column that is 10 feet long?
(A) 515 pounds
(B) 476 pounds
(C) 375 pounds
(D) 355 pounds
Directions: Use the standard time/temperature curve to answer questions 70 through 78.
70. During which phase does temperature rise at the most rapid rate?
(A) Incipient
(B) Free burning
(C) Smoldering
(D) Temperature rate is equal in all phases
71. During which phase(s) are the highest temperatures attained?
(A) Incipient
(B) Free burning
(C) Smoldering
(D) Both incipient and smoldering
72. What is the approximate highest temperature reached during the three phases of fire?
(A) 1,400°F
(B) 1,800°F
(C) 2,200°F
(D) 2,600°F
73. How long does a fire take to reach the smoldering phase?
(A) 50 minutes
(B) 70 minutes
(C) 90 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
74. During which phase does temperature remain fairly constant?
(A) Incipient
(B) Free burning
(C) Smoldering
(D) The temperature remains fairly constant during all phases
75. What is the approximate temperature 15 minutes into a fire?
(A) 1,000°F
(B) 1,400°F
(C) 1,800°F
(D) 2,600°F
76. During which phase(s) does flashover occur?
(A) Incipient only
(B) Incipient and smoldering
(C) Free burning only
(D) Free burning and smoldering
77. During which phase(s) of a fire does backdraft occur?
(A) Incipient only
(B) Free burning and smoldering
(C) Smoldering only
(D) Incipient and smoldering
78. The most significant aspect of the standard time/temperature curve is
(A) slow buildup of temperature during the early phases of fire
(B) rapid buildup of temperature during the smoldering phase
(C) erratic changes in temperature during the free-burning phase
(D) rapid buildup of temperature during the incipient phase
Directions: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Some of the questions have illustrations.
79. Driver gear A has 60 teeth, while driven gear B has 12 teeth. What is the gear ratio of gear A to gear B?
(A) 1:5
(B) 1:4
(C) 5:1
(D) 4:1
80. When using simple machines, the trading of effort (force) for distance is called
(A) mechanical advantage
(B) momentum
(C) torque
(D) power
81. In what class lever system does the load move in the direction opposite to the effort (force)?
(A) Third class
(B) Second class
(C) First class
(D) None of the above
82. Driver gear A has 30 teeth and revolves at 70 rpm. What is the rpm for the driven gear B that has 10 teeth?
(A) 70
(B) 120
(C) 140
(D) 210
83. A 600-pound weight is placed on the end of a plank 2 feet from a fulcrum. To obtain equilibrium, how much effort (force) would a firefighter have to exert on the opposite end of the plank that is 10 feet from the fulcrum?
(A) 100 pounds
(B) 120 pounds
(C) 150 pounds
(D) 200 pounds
84. A lever system as shown above has a mechanical advantage of 4. If an effort (force) is applied at a distance 1 foot from the fulcrum, what is the resistance force (load) distance?
(A) 4 feet
(B) 1 foot
(C) 4 inches
(D) 3 inches
85. The transfer of energy through motion is called
(A) mass
(B) weight
(C) work
(D) length
86. A hose reel has a handle attached to a 1-inch radius axle. The turning circumference of the crank is 12-inches. How much force is required to lift three lengths of hose that together weigh 100 pounds?
(A) 43 pounds
(B) 52 pounds
(C) 68 pounds
(D) 74 pounds
87. A pulley system is used to lift a 1,500-pound load. The system applies an effort (force) of 500 pounds. The mechanical advantage of the pulley system is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
88. If the resistance force (load) of an object is 2,400 pounds, what would be the effort (force) required by a wedge with a mechanical advantage of 6 to lift it?
(A) 1,400 pounds
(B) 1,200 pounds
(C) 800 pounds
(D) 400 pounds
89. The circumference of a screw multiplied by the number of times it is turned is equal to its effort (force). A screw with a circumference of 7 mm is turned six times, causing it to move through a piece of gypsum board a distance of 3 mm. What is the mechanical advantage of the screw?
(A) 14
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 3
90. In the gear drive system shown in the figure above, how does gear E compare to driver gear A?
(A) It rotates faster in the opposite direction.
(B) It rotates faster in the same direction.
(C) It rotates more slowly in the opposite direction.
(D) It rotates more slowly in the same direction.
91. The inclined plane in the figure above has a mechanical advantage of
(A) 8 to 1
(B) 7 to 1
(C) 6 to 1
(D) 5 to 1
92. In the block and tackle pulley system in the figure above, a pull equal to 30 pounds applied to line #1 will be able to lift how much weight?
(A) 90 pounds
(B) 180 pounds
(C) 270 pounds
(D) 360 pounds
93. The mechanical advantage of a fixed pulley system is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
94. In a fixed pulley system, if the effort (force) is applied in a downward direction, the load being lifted will travel
(A) in the same direction
(B) in the opposite direction
(C) in either the same or opposite direction
(D) perpendicular to the effort (force) being applied
95. A wheelbarrow holds a load weighing 40 pounds. The load is 18 inches from the wheels. How much effort (force) is required to lift the load if the handles of the wheelbarrow are 36 inches from the load?
(A) 40 pounds
(B) 30 pounds
(C) 20 pounds
(D) 10 pounds
96. In question 95 above, what is the mechanical advantage of the wheelbarrow?
(A) 4 to 1
(B) 3 to 1
(C) 2 to 1
(D) 1 to 1
97. An example of a third-class lever is a
(A) broom
(B) bottle opener
(C) bellows
(D) nutcracker
98. A pulley system lifts 160 pounds with an effort (force) of 40 pounds. The pulley rope where the effort (force) is being applied moves 4 inches. How many inches does the load move?
(A) 1 inch
(B) 4 inches
(C) 8 inches
(D) 16 inches
99. A pulley system has a mechanical advantage of 4:1. What is the efficiency of the system if the rope end where effort (force) is being applied moves 10 inches while the load is lifted 2 inches?
(A) 50%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
100. How much force is required to roll a 250-N barrel up an inclined plane that is 5 meters in length to a platform 2 meters in height?
(A) 125 N
(B) 100 N
(C) 80 N
(D) 75 N
For answer explanations to the questions on this exam, refer to this book’s companion website.
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. D
50. D
51. A
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. D
56. A
57. D
58. B
59. C
60. D
61. B
62. B
63. C
64. A
65. D
66. B
67. D
68. C
69. C
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. B
74. B
75. C
76. A
77. D
78. D
79. A
80. A
81. C
82. D
83. B
84. D
85. C
86. B
87. A
88. D
89. A
90. D
91. C
92. B
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. C
97. A
98. A
99. D
100. B