ANSWER SHEET
Practice Test 1
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SECTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
TIME 80 MINUTES
55 QUESTIONS
Please note that the order of the types of multiple-choice questions may be spread out on the actual test.
Section 1 is Worth 50 Percent of the Test
Questions 1–2 refer to the following graph.
Source: Pew Research Center
1. Which of the following choices represent the information provided in the chart?
(A) U.S. adults who are the oldest use more social media sites than any other age group.
(B) There was a sharp increase in the use of social media by all age groups from 2006 to 2008.
(C) Adults between 18 and 29 use social media in higher percentages than adults between 50 and 65 and older.
(D) In 2016, adults between 30 and 49 use social media in the same number as those between 18 and 29.
2. Which of the following occurred as a result of the data presented in the graph?
(A) Russian use of social media sites was aimed at adults 65 and over.
(B) Candidates for office increasingly relied on social media to get their message out.
(C) The U.S. government began to regulate social media sites.
(D) Social media sites offered free advertisements to candidates running for office.
Questions 3–4 refer to the following graph.
Source: usnews.com
3. Which of the following best explains the movement found in the results of the graph?
(A) Turnout by GOP voters in New Hampshire and South Carolina increased in each election cycle.
(B) GOP voter turnout in New Hampshire saw a greater increase than in South Carolina from 2008 to 2016.
(C) There has been a growing lack of interest in GOP primary voting in New Hampshire and South Carolina since 2008.
(D) GOP voters were not enthusiastic about their candidate choices.
4. Which of the following is an accurate statement about presidential elections in New Hampshire and South Carolina?
(A) New Hampshire and South Carolina usually vote Republican in presidential elections.
(B) New Hampshire usually votes Republican while South Carolina votes Democratic.
(C) As early primary states, South Carolina and New Hampshire usually predict the eventual Republican nominee for president.
(D) New Hampshire is the first caucus state in the nation to vote.
Questions 5–6 refer to the following pie chart.
5. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the pie chart?
(A) There is a greater percentage of mandatory spending compared to non-mandatory spending.
(B) An example of non-mandatory spending is Social Security.
(C) The percentage of discretionary spending is equal to the percentage of mandatory spending.
(D) The percentage of Defense Department mandatory spending is greater than health care spending.
6. Which of the following best describes who has the power to create the amount of federal spending found in the chart?
(A) The president
(B) Congress
(C) The bureaucracy
(D) Special-interest groups
Questions 7–8 refer to the following graph.
Source: Federal Reserve
7. Which of the following statements is accurate based on the information presented in the graph?
(A) The United States economy was facing a very low inflationary period between 1979 and 1982.
(B) The United States economy was facing a very high inflationary period between 1979 and 1982.
(C) The United States economy was facing a very low unemployment rate in 2009.
(D) The United States economy was facing a very high inflationary period between 2009 and 2012.
8. Which of the following reflects what a supporter of Keynesian economics would advocate as a response to high inflation in the United States?
(A) The Federal Reserve lowering the prime interest rate so that the economy would be stimulated
(B) The Federal Reserve raising the prime interest rate so that the economy would be stimulated
(C) Congress passing a stimulus bill that also raises the national debt
(D) The president issuing an executive order that would freeze wages and prices
Questions 9–10 refer to the following table.
Voter Exit Polls in Presidential Elections 2000–2008 |
|||
Characteristic |
2000 |
2004 |
2008 |
Percentage of all voters voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
48 48 4 |
48 51 1 |
53 45 2 |
Percentage of men voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
43 54 3 |
44 55 1 |
49 48 3 |
Percentage of women voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
54 43 3 |
51 48 1 |
56 43 1 |
Percentage of whites voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
55 42 3 |
41 58 1 |
43 55 2 |
Percentage of African Americans voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
90 9 3 |
88 11 3 |
95 4 2 |
Percentage of Hispanics voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
62 35 3 |
53 44 3 |
67 31 2 |
Percentage of 18- to 29-year-olds voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
48 47 5 |
54 45 1 |
66 32 2 |
Percentage of 65 and over voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
51 47 2 |
47 52 1 |
45 53 2 |
Percentage of voters from the East voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
56 40 4 |
56 44 – |
59 40 1 |
Percentage of voters from the Midwest voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
48 49 3 |
48 51 1 |
54 44 2 |
Percentage of voters from the South voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
43 56 1 |
42 58 – |
45 54 1 |
Percentage of voters from the West voting for Democratic candidate Republican candidate Third-party candidates |
49 47 4 |
50 49 1 |
57 40 3 |
https://www.census.gov/prod/2002pubs/p20-542.pdf
9. Based on the information in the table, which geographic area was most closely aligned with the Republican candidates for president in 2000–2008?
(A) Voters from the East
(B) Voters from the Midwest
(C) Voters from the South
(D) Voters from the West
10. Based on the information in the table, which of the following is an accurate statement about demographic trends from 2000 to 2008?
(A) Political socialization is a contributing factor in determining party identification.
(B) The African-American vote has been taken for granted by the Democratic party.
(C) Younger voters are turning more Republican.
(D) Voting coalitions stay the same from election to election.
Questions 11–14 refer to the following passage.
“It is equally evident, that the members of each department should be as little dependent as possible on those of the others, for the emoluments annexed to their offices. Were the executive magistrate, or the judges, not independent of the legislature in this particular, their independence in every other would be merely nominal. But the great security against a gradual concentration of the several powers in the same department, consists in giving to those who administer each department the necessary constitutional means and personal motives to resist encroachments of the others. The provision for defense must in this, as in all other cases, be made commensurate to the danger of attack. Ambition must be made to counteract ambition. The interest of the man must be connected with the constitutional rights of the place. It may be a reflection on human nature, that such devices should be necessary to control the abuses of government. But what is government itself, but the greatest of all reflections on human nature? If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary.”
—James Madison, Federalist No. 51
11. Which of the following best represents the point of view in Federalist No. 51?
(A) Each branch of government should be dependent on each other.
(B) Those in power get the right to govern from a higher authority.
(C) The best security against the concentration of power would be a Bill of Rights.
(D) Dividing power helps to check the power of government.
12. Which of the following constitutional provisions is reflected in Federalist No. 51?
(A) Federalism
(B) Separation of powers
(C) Supremacy clause
(D) The Senate filibuster
13. Why did Madison claim that “if men were angels, no government would be necessary”?
(A) Madison believed the goodness of people would ensure that government would make good policies.
(B) Madison believed there was no need for free elections.
(C) Madison believed religion would guide the wisdom of those who governed.
(D) Madison believed it was the nature of those who governed to need a check on their power.
14. What could have happened if the ideas expressed in Federalist No. 51 were ignored?
(A) Majorities would not have threatened the rights of minorities.
(B) There would not have been three branches of government.
(C) The legislature, executive branch, and judiciary would have been independent from each other.
(D) Minorities would have threatened the rights of the majority.
Questions 15–17 refer to the following passage.
Defense of Marriage Act (1996)
An Act to define and protect the institution of marriage. Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the “Defense of Marriage Act.”
“No State, territory, or possession of the United States, or Indian tribe, shall be required to give effect to any public act, record, or judicial proceeding of any other State, territory, possession, or tribe respecting a relationship between persons of the same sex that is treated as a marriage under the laws of such other State, territory, possession, or tribe, or a right or claim arising from such relationship.”
Definition of “marriage” and “spouse” “In determining the meaning of any Act of Congress, or of any ruling, regulation, or interpretation of the various administrative bureaus and agencies of the United States, the word ‘marriage’ means only a legal union between one man and one woman as husband and wife, and the word ‘spouse’ refers only to a person of the opposite sex who is a husband or a wife.”
15. Which of the following explains the purpose of this law?
(A) Marriages from one state must be recognized as legal in other states.
(B) Marriage is defined as any relationship between spouses.
(C) States can deny rights and benefits of same-sex couples married in another state.
(D) Gay people cannot serve in the military.
16. Opponents of this law would make which of the following arguments?
(A) Same-sex couples whose marriages are not recognized are being denied equal protection under the law.
(B) Same-sex couples can still get married in states that allow it.
(C) Congress should pass a constitutional amendment defining marriage as a relationship between a man and a woman.
(D) Same-sex couples who get married should be prohibited from receiving federal and state benefits.
17. Which constitutional provision is the basis for the Supreme Court ruling this law unconstitutional?
(A) The reserved power clause of the Tenth Amendment
(B) The Full Faith and Credit clause of Article IV Section 1
(C) The Necessary and Proper clause of Article 1 Section 8
(D) The Freedom of Association clause of the First Amendment
Questions 18–19 refer to the following map.
Source: U.S. Department of Commerce
18. The map shows the percent change in resident population for the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico 2000–2010. Which of the following explains why these changes are reported every ten years?
(A) Congress passed a law in 2000 directing the census bureau to measure the population growth of the United States.
(B) The Supreme Court ruled that population changes must be reported every ten years.
(C) State legislatures requested this information from the Census Bureau.
(D) The Constitution requires a census to be taken, and Congress passed a law establishing a ten-year interval between census taking.
19. Which of the following happens after this map is released?
(A) Congress decides how many electoral votes each state has in the next presidential election.
(B) States must reapportion their legislative and congressional districts.
(C) States with population decreases lose federal funding.
(D) States with population increases pass new voter-identification laws.
Questions 20–21 refer to the following cartoon.
Source: Alamy stock photo
20. Which of the following illustrates the main idea of the cartoon?
(A) Immigrants are saluting Uncle Sam to gain admittance to the United States.
(B) Congress should pass legislation mandating educational standards for immigrants.
(C) “Build the wall” was a campaign slogan used to gain political support for anti-immigration legislation.
(D) Literacy tests should be used if immigrants want to vote.
21. When President Obama issued an executive order, Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA), exempting children of undocumented immigrants from being deported under specific conditions, which of the following statements explains why he issued the order?
(A) Obama believed presidents needed congressional authority to issue the order.
(B) Obama believed undocumented immigrants should be allowed to enter the United States with their children.
(C) Obama believed in a more expansive presidency to achieve policy goals.
(D) Obama wanted to prevent states from deporting undocumented immigrants.
Questions 22–23 refer to the following graphic.
Source: Durham County Board of Elections flyer
22. Based on the information in this graphic, what would be the impact on the 2016 presidential election?
(A) Voting would be less convenient in 2016.
(B) Voter registration would be limited without proof of a valid identification.
(C) Early voters would be more knowledgeable about the campaign than same-day voters.
(D) More voters would be encouraged to vote early.
23. Based on the information in this graphic, which of the following describes the campaign plan a presidential candidate would adopt?
(A) Candidates would reduce advertising the week before Election Day.
(B) Candidates would challenge early votes in a close election.
(C) Candidates would track who is requesting early ballots and who has voted early.
(D) Candidates would urge the debate commission to move up the dates of the 2016 presidential debates.
______________________________________
24. Which of the following describes a consequence of the 2010 Citizens United v FEC ruling that dealt with campaign-finance laws?
(A) Corporate soft money donations to political parties is banned.
(B) Corporate hard money donations to political candidates is banned.
(C) Unions were allowed to collect dues from their members for the purpose of political action.
(D) Corporate funding of independent political advertisements is protected by the First Amendment.
25. No Labels is an organization that supports “a bloc of elected officials who combine ideological independence and common sense with a willingness to reach across the aisle to get things done.” Which of the following models of democracy does this philosophy represent?
(A) Elitist
(B) Pluralism
(C) Trustee
(D) Majoritarian
26. Standing House committees such as the Ways and Means are important because they
(A) do not engage in partisan behavior.
(B) mark-up bills before they go to the entire House for debate.
(C) receive conference committee reports.
(D) are equally divided in membership between Democrats and Republicans.
27. One way Congress can respond to a Supreme Court ruling that declares a law unconstitutional is to
(A) pass new legislation that addresses the issues raised by the court.
(B) appoint new justices.
(C) pass a law limiting the terms of the justices.
(D) reargue the case in a state court.
28. The principle of presidential executive privilege was limited by the Supreme Court ruling in U.S. v Nixon (1974) and resulted in the eventual resignation of President Richard Nixon. Which of the following is an accurate statement that explains the ruling?
(A) The Supreme Court ruled that the president’s use of executive authority was unconstitutional.
(B) The Supreme Court ruled that privacy rights found in the Fourth Amendment applied to the president.
(C) The Supreme Court ruled that the separation of powers doctrine limited the president’s use of executive privilege.
(D) The Supreme Court ruled that Congress can proceed with impeachment hearings as defined in the Constitution.
29. A major difference between a freshman member and a five-term member of the House of Representatives is that the
(A) freshman was allowed to get a committee chairmanship.
(B) five-term representative could not run for reelection because of term limits.
(C) freshman representatives could not offer amendments to bills.
(D) five-term representative had greater opportunities to receive PAC money.
30. Based on precedents regarding affirmative action, in which of the following situations would the Supreme Court agree to hear oral arguments?
(A) Bakery owners refusing to make a cake for a same-sex marriage
(B) A college mandates that 10 percent of African Americans be admitted
(C) A high school refuses to fund a Bible club
(D) The president issues an executive order banning transgenders from serving in the military
31. Which interrelationship best illustrates the concept of the “iron triangle”?
(A) The president, the Congress, and bureaucracies
(B) The federal government, state, and city governments
(C) Special-interest groups, political parties, and voters
(D) Bureaucracies, interest groups, and congressional committees
32. Which of the following situations would rely on the principle of selective incorporation?
(A) A captured foreign-born terrorist is given due process rights.
(B) Federal funds are given to charter schools.
(C) The police get evidence from a search without a valid warrant.
(D) A court denies bail for a person accused of using an illegal weapon.
33. In attempting to gain public support for his policy agenda, which of the following methods does the president use?
(A) The bully pulpit
(B) Holds a private meeting with the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(C) Threatens to fire a federal civil service employee who speaks out against the policy
(D) Lobbies a Supreme Court justice to speak out about the policy
34. Which of the following actions taken by an individual or group would violate the Supreme Court ruling Schenk v United States (1919)?
(A) Creating a panic in a crowded amusement park
(B) Deciding to participate in a white supremacy march
(C) Heckling a speaker you disagree with
(D) Handing out anti-American propaganda on a street corner
35. The Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 was passed to streamline the budget process. A secondary objective of the measure was to place controls on the president’s ability to determine allocations without appropriate congressional checks. What is the constitutional basis of this law?
(A) Override a president’s veto
(B) Congressional power to borrow money
(C) Appropriations power of Congress
(D) Congress passing a continuing resolution
36. Which of the following situations would be a violation of the due process section of the Sixth Amendment?
(A) A person arrested not told he has the right to an attorney
(B) The police finding evidence without a search warrant
(C) The police tell you that unless you confess you will not have a jury trial.
(D) The police use the stop-and-frisk practice that results in an arrest.
37. The president gets a budget passed by Congress. He decides to sign it even though he disagrees with parts of the proposed law. What action can the president take without a formal veto of the bill?
(A) Ask the Supreme Court for an advisory ruling on the legality of the bill
(B) Send the bill back to Congress to change the provisions the president does not like
(C) Issue a line item veto
(D) Issue a signing statement
38. Which of the following is an example of political socialization?
(A) Parents who vote Democratic influencing their children to vote Democratic
(B) College graduates deciding to attend law school because they want to run for political office
(C) Political parties influencing voters through political ads
(D) A newspaper endorses a candidate for president
39. A special-interest group favoring equal pay for women would probably have the greatest success lobbying Congress for that law if
(A) the public was against the bill.
(B) it was supported by the president and members of the president’s party.
(C) bureaucracies were against the bill.
(D) it had previously been defeated by Congress.
40. John Jones wants to get an appointment to West Point. His representative reviews the application and recommends John. Which of the following models of congressional behavior does this represent?
(A) The Trustee model
(B) The Politico model
(C) The Constituent Service model
(D) The Delegate model
Question 41 refers to the following:
Two polls were taken asking the respondents whether they approved of the job President Trump was doing. Both polls used a random sample of 1,200 individuals.
Poll 1: Do you approve of the job President Trump is doing as President: 35 percent approval
Margin of error: 3.5 percent.
Poll 2. Do you approve of the job President Trump is doing as President: 42 percent approval
Margin of error 5.5 percent.
41. Which conclusion can you reach about the polls?
(A) Poll 2 was not accurate because it did not include cell phones.
(B) Poll 2 was more accurate than Poll 1.
(C) Poll 1 and Poll 2 had results that could be identical.
(D) Poll 1 was more scientific than Poll 2.
42. Southern states that created majority-minority districts did so because
(A) The Supreme Court ruled in Shaw v Reno (1963) that they had to create them in order to achieve a racial balance.
(B) States were attempting to follow the provisions of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
(C) States were responding to a presidential executive order.
(D) States were following the guidelines established in Baker v Carr (1962).
43. What is an accurate comparison between the Articles of Confederation and the U.S. Constitution?
|
Articles of Confederation |
United States Constitution |
(A) |
Government able to borrow money |
Congress can declare war |
(B) |
Bicameral legislature |
Elected president |
(C) |
National currency |
Congress coins money |
(D) |
Laws passed by a simple majority |
Two-thirds vote to override veto |
44. What is an accurate comparison between Schenck v United States (1919) and Tinker v Des Moines (1969)?
|
Schenk v United States (1919) |
Tinker v Des Moines (1969) |
(A) |
Decided that fighting words violated First Amendment |
Decided symbolic speech protected by First Amendment |
(B) |
Decided that during times of war, speech can be restricted |
Allowed students to protest the Vietnam War by wearing black armbands |
(C) |
Gave Schenck an honorable discharge from army |
Suspended students for wearing armbands |
(D) |
Ruled that draft was illegal |
Ruled that students had rights even in school |
45. What is an accurate comparison between the formal and informal powers of the president?
|
Formal Powers |
Informal Powers |
(A) |
Power to declare war |
Power to appoint ambassadors |
(B) |
Veto power |
Head of political party |
(C) |
Issue executive orders |
Issue signing statement |
(D) |
Commander in chief |
Make treaties |
46. What is an accurate comparison between characteristics of special-interest groups and political parties?
|
Special-Interest Groups |
Political Parties |
(A) |
Form Political Action Committees |
Membership fee to join |
(B) |
Membership votes on platform |
Single issue advocacy |
(C) |
Nominate Candidates for office |
Endorse candidates for office |
(D) |
Testify before Congress |
Run campaigns for elected office |
47. What is an accurate comparison of the constitutional powers of the president and the constitutional powers of the Senate?
|
Presidential Powers |
Senate Powers |
(A) |
Commander in chief |
Overrides an executive order |
(B) |
Fires Supreme Court justices |
Appoints Supreme Court justices |
(C) |
Pardons |
Initiates appropriation legislation |
(D) |
Vetoes legislation |
Approves treaties |
48. When Green Party candidate Ralph Nader ran for president in 2000, some said we should have a third major political party in the country in addition to the Democrats and Republicans.
Which of the following most accurately describes why someone would support a third political party over the two major parties?
(A) The media’s coverage of the parties has resulted in an increase in third party registration.
(B) Voters do not seem to detect major differences between the Democratic and Republican parties.
(C) Third political parties will have a better chance to elect their candidates.
(D) Voter registration has been on the decline.
49. Which of the following actions would the Federal Reserve take if the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) was negative for two consecutive quarters?
(A) Raise the discount rate
(B) Lower the discount rate
(C) Raise the reserve requirements of banks
(D) Sell government bonds increasing the money supply
50. Which of the following would a person who believes in free enterprise believe in compared to a person who believes in equality of opportunity? A person believing in free enterprise favors
(A) supply-side economics.
(B) the government redistributing economic wealth.
(C) taxing the wealthy.
(D) affirmative action programs.
51. Which of the following principles in the First Amendment was found in the New York Times Company v United States (1971)?
(A) The guarantee that a reporter can protect the anonymity of sources used in a story
(B) The principle that prior review of a story is allowed by the government
(C) The principle that a newspaper cannot be censored even if there are national security concerns
(D) The principle that if there is a clear and present danger the government can prevent a newspaper from printing a story
52. The president is most likely to use executive privilege to
(A) protect the president from standing trial while in office.
(B) keep secret who is meeting with the president.
(C) prevent sensitive presidential materials from being handed over to Congress.
(D) rally public opinion over an action taken by the president.
53. An advantage bureaucrats in the federal government have over the president in the policy-making process is that bureaucrats
(A) usually have a continuity of service in the executive branch that the president lacks.
(B) find it easier to gain public support than the president.
(C) control the budgetary process.
(D) have oversight responsibility for bureaucratic policy.
54. Which of the following best explains why presidential appointments can be held up?
(A) Presidential appointments must be confirmed by the majority of the Senate.
(B) Presidential staff appointments are more controversial than judicial appointments.
(C) Presidential appointments outside of the White House staff must be approved by a senate committee before the full Senate can vote.
(D) Presidential appointments must also be reviewed by the House of Representatives.
55. Liberal activists would probably support which of the following cases heard by the Supreme Court?
(A) An abortion case ruling there should be a 24-hour waiting period before a woman could get an abortion
(B) A search-and-seizure case limiting the Miranda restrictions placed on the police
(C) A free-press case giving school officials greater latitude in censoring school newspapers
(D) A free-speech case concerning a provision of a congressional act restricting access to obscene sites on the Internet declared unconstitutional
SECTION 2: FREE-RESPONSE QUESTIONS
TIME: 100 MINUTES
Section 2 is Worth 50 Percent of the Test
Question 1 (20 minutes)
“House Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence Chairman Devin Nunes and Committee on Oversight and Government Reform Chairman Trey Gowdy today are announcing a joint inquiry into Obama administration regulatory approvals related to the U.S. uranium industry, foreign donations seeking to curry favor and influence with U.S. officials, whether a federal nuclear bribery probe developed evidence of wrongdoing connected to the Uranium One mining company, and Department of Justice criminal and counterintelligence investigations into bribery, extortion, and other related matters connected to Russian acquisition of U.S. uranium.”
—Press Release from The House Intelligence Committee (October 24, 2017)
After reading the scenario, answer Parts A, B, and C.
A. Describe where Congress acquires the authority to address the issues raised in the passage.
B. Based on your answer to Part A, explain how this congressional authority can be affected by the minority members on the committee.
C. Based on the passage, explain what actions can be taken based on the findings of the congressional inquiry.
Question 2 (20 minutes)
On January 24, 2002, students and staff at Juneau-Douglas High School in Alaska were permitted to leave classes to watch the Olympic Torch pass by. Joseph Frederick, who was late for school that day, joined some friends on the sidewalk across from the high school, off school grounds. Frederick and his friends waited for the television cameras so they could unfurl a banner reading “BONG HITS 4 JESUS.” Frederick was quoted as saying he had first seen the phrase on a snowboard sticker. When they displayed the banner, then-principal Deborah Morse ran across the street and seized it. Morse initially suspended Frederick for five days for violating the school district’s anti-drug policy, but increased the suspension to ten days after Frederick argued with the principal. Frederick then appealed to the Juneau School Board, which upheld the suspension on March 19, 2002.
Fredrick brought the school district to the state courts, which upheld the school district. On appeal to the United States Supreme Court, Chief Justice Roberts, writing for the majority, concluded that the school officials did not violate the First Amendment. To do so, he made three legal determinations: first, that “school speech” doctrine should apply because Frederick’s speech occurred “at a school event”; second, that the speech was “reasonably viewed as promoting illegal drug use”; and, third, that a principal may legally restrict that speech—based on the three existing First Amendment school-speech precedents, other constitutional principles relating to schools, and a school’s “important, indeed, perhaps compelling interest” in deterring drug use by students.
A. Identify the constitutional clause that was used by the Supreme Court in this case and Tinker v Des Moines (1969).
B. Based on the constitutional issue identified in (A), explain why the facts and decision of Tinker v Des Moines (1969) was different than the decision reached in Morse v Frederick (2007).
C. Describe the judicial consequences of the decision reached in Morse v Frederick (2007).
Question 3 (20 Minutes)
A. Describe how the 2000 census had an impact on the apportionment of states in the Rust Belt and Northeast.
B. Identify a similarity or difference found in the 2000 census vs. the 2010 census by state or region as illustrated by the maps and explain the reason for that similarity or difference.
C. Explain how apportionment of the U.S. House of Representatives creates an increase in partisanship.
Question 4 (40 minutes)
Supreme Court justices may have different judicial philosophies. The philosophy that a justice follows can impact the way that a case is decided. Describe an argument that explains which judicial philosophy, judicial activism, or judicial restraint Supreme Court justices should adopt in carrying out their duties as prescribed by the U.S. Constitution and Supreme Court precedent. Students could also make the argument that justices should not follow either philosophy.
In your essay, you must do the following:
■ Make a valid argument or thesis that addresses the question and makes a sound basis of reasoning.
■ Support your argument with at least TWO examples of accurate and relevant information. One piece of evidence must be from one of the following foundational documents:
—Federalist No. 78
—the U.S. Constitution
—Marbury v Madison (1803)
The second piece must be from another foundational document from the list above or your study of Supreme Court cases.
■ Use logical arguments to explain why your proof supports your argument/thesis.
■ Respond to an opposing point of view or alternative argument refuting, conceding, or rebutting that point of view.
Practice Test 1
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. D
23. C
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. D
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. C
36. A
37. D
38. A
39. B
40. C
41. C
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. B
46 D
47. D
48. B
49. B
50. A
51. C
52. C
53. A
54. C
55. D
Section 1: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. (C) The chart refers to the percentage of U.S. adults who use at least one social media site by age. Those adults between 18 and 29 use social media sites more than any other group. In evaluating the information in the chart, it is clear that the use of social media by that age group increased more than the other groups between 2006 and 2016. Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because those adults 50–65 had hardly any increase in their use of social media between 2006 and 2008. Choice (D) is incorrect because those adults 18–29 used social media more than any other age group, followed by those 30–49.
2. (B) One of the consequences of the increased use of social media by all age groups was the realization by political candidates that they could communicate directly with the subscribers of social media sites. For example, President Donald Trump has around 43 million followers on Twitter. He has maintained that, and as a result of the high number of followers, he could get his message out unfiltered and directly to them. Choice (A) is incorrect because even though Russia used social media sites, it was apparent that they aimed their message at those who used it the most, young people between 18 and 29. Choice (C) is incorrect because social media sites are not regulated by the government. Choice (D) is incorrect because social media sites also charged candidates if they chose to advertise on their sites.
3. (A) Tracking the turnout of Republican voters in New Hampshire and South Carolina is important because those states can be good barometers of which candidate will go on to win the Republican nomination for president. An election cycle is defined as every four years, and it was significant that Republican turnout increased in each cycle. Choice (B) is incorrect because there was a greater turnout of GOP voters in South Carolina than New Hampshire from 2008 to 2016. Choice (C) is incorrect because the increased turnout of GOP voters in New Hampshire and South Carolina reflects a greater interest in the candidates running in those primaries. Choice (D) is incorrect because the increase also reflects an increase in the enthusiasm of GOP voters in New Hampshire and South Carolina.
4. (C) Because New Hampshire and South Carolina are early primary states, a surge of Republican voter turnout shows enthusiasm for the winner of those primaries. New Hampshire voted for the eventual Republican nominee in 2008, 2012, and 2016. South Carolina voted for the eventual nominee in 2008 and 2016. Choice (A) is incorrect because, historically, New Hampshire is more of a swing state than South Carolina, and in the 2008, 2012, and 2016 elections New Hampshire voted Democratic. Choice (B) is incorrect because South Carolina is a reliable Republican state in presidential elections and it voted Republican in 2008, 2012, and 2016. Choice (D) is incorrect because Iowa holds the first caucus in the nation, while New Hampshire is a primary state.
5. (A) The 2015 federal budget fiscal year goes from September 30, 2015 to September 30, 2016. The budget funds the government and its largest percentage is mandatory spending that includes Social Security, Medicare, Medicaid, and appropriations for the military. Choice (B) is incorrect because Social Security is an example of mandatory spending. Choice (C) is incorrect because even without health care (part of which is discretionary), 59 percent of the spending is mandatory. Choice (D) is incorrect because the Defense Department budget represents 16 percent of spending while health care represents 25 percent of the spending budget.
6. (B) The Congress is ultimately responsible for passing the Federal Budget. A budget resolution is passed by both houses of Congress and then each house submits the resolution to the committee that is in charge of the specific area of the budget it represents. Once the committees vote on the appropriations, each house votes on separate budgets for the various government departments. A final bill is then sent to the president for signature. Choice (A) is incorrect because even though the president submits a budget proposal to Congress, it is often dead on arrival. The president then lobbies Congress for the priorities that are most important. Choices (C) and (D) are incorrect because even though the bureaucracy and special-interest groups play roles in the budgetary process, they are not constitutionally responsible for passing the budget.
7. (B) During an inflationary period the Federal Reserve uses its monetary power authority to raise the interest rates that are charged to banks and ultimately passed on the public. From 1979 to 1982 the United States was facing one of its highest inflationary periods. In January 1980, inflation was 13.91 percent and unemployment was 6.3 percent. Inflation peaked in April 1980 at 14.76 percent. That is also the reason why choice (A) is incorrect. Choice (C) is incorrect because the United States unemployment rate peaked at 10 percent in 2010 after the recession of 2008. Choice (D) is incorrect because the United States had a very low inflationary period between 2009 and 2012. The inflation rate in the United States was 1.5 percent in 2010.
8. (A) A person who supports Keynesian economics believes in supply-side economics and would advocate the Federal Reserve to follow a monetary policy that would stimulate the free-market economy. Lowering the prime interest rate has a stimulating effect because it is cheaper to borrow money from the banks. Choice (B) is incorrect because the Federal Reserve would not raise the interest rates to stimulate the economy. Choice (C) is incorrect because a supporter of Keynesian economics would not favor a bill that would raise the national debt even if it stimulated the economy. Choice (D) is incorrect because a supporter of Keynesian economics would be against an executive order that would freeze wage and price controls. President Nixon did this in 1971 for 90 days in order to bring down the inflation rate, and people who believed in Keynesian philosophy were against it.
9. (C) Exit polls are taken after voters have completed voting. The voters represent a scientific sample that includes demographic information as well as geographic information. The results are very helpful in understanding why the candidate who won got support. The conclusions from exit polls help future candidates determine campaign strategy. The exit polls in presidential elections from 2000 to 2012 illustrate that there are consistent patterns for the Republican and Democratic candidates. Republicans have consistently won in the South. Choice (A) is incorrect because the East is a Democratic stronghold. Choice (B) is incorrect because the Midwest is a battleground and there is no consistency from election to election. Choice (D) is incorrect because the West is a Democratic stronghold.
10. (A) Political socialization is defined as those factors that help form a person’s political and ultimately party identification. These factors include family, school, church, socioeconomic status, and ethnicity. The table illustrates that political socialization is the key factor in the way a person votes. Choice (B) is incorrect because even though African Americans are reliable Democratic voters, being taken for granted is a matter of opinion rather than fact, and the charge is usually made by critics of the Democratic Party. Choice (C) is incorrect because 18–29-year-old voters are becoming an increasingly Democratic vote. Choice (D) is incorrect because voting coalitions can change from election to election. For example, senior citizens moved from Democratic to Republican between 2000 and 2008.
11. (D) Federalist No. 51, written by James Madison, makes the argument that checks and balances should be included in the Constitution and that dividing power among the branches of government is the best means of achieving that goal. Choice (A) is incorrect because Madison makes the argument that each branch of government should be independent from each other. Choice (B) is incorrect because The Federalist Papers argue against government officials having the right to govern from a “higher authority.” The Declaration of Independence says “all men are created equal and endowed by their Creator.” Choice (C) is incorrect because The Federalist Papers argued that a bill of rights was not necessary in the new Constitution, but could later be approved as the first ten amendments.
12. (B) Federalist No. 51, “The Structure of the Government Must Furnish the Proper Checks and Balances Between the Different Departments,” proposes the principle of Separation of Powers. Each branch of government would have powers that can check the other. In the paper, Madison makes the argument that giving the necessary power to each branch would give the “necessary means and personal motives to resist encroachments of the others.” Choice (A) is incorrect because federalism refers to the division of power between the states and federal government. Choice (C) is incorrect because the Supremacy clause states that if a power of the state government comes into conflict with a power or law of the federal government, then the law or power of the federal government prevails. Choice (D) is incorrect because the filibuster is a rule of the Senate that enables senators to hold the floor until the Senate votes by a 60-vote margin to cut off debate.
13. (D) The highlighted quote from Federalist No. 51, “If men were angels, no government would be necessary,” is one of the most famous quotes of any of the Federalist papers. It refers to the philosophy that because the people are not perfect, those they would elect would also not be perfect and would need a check on their powers. Choice (A) is incorrect because the quote makes the point that since people are not angels, government is necessary, and those elected would not be perfect either. Choice (B) is incorrect because free elections are essential to our representative democracy. Choice (C) is incorrect because even though religion may be important, it is not the guiding principle of those who govern.
14. (B) Madison argues in Federalist No. 51 that there should be three independent branches of government that have checks on each other so that one branch does not become too powerful. Choice (A) is incorrect because checks and balances prevent majorities from threatening the rights of minorities. Choice (C) is incorrect because the three branches of government are independent of each other. Choice (D) is incorrect because minorities do not threaten the rights of the majority. Minority rights would be protected.
15. (C) The Defense of Marriage Act signed in 1996 by President Bill Clinton was passed by the Republican Congress in response to the possibility that states would begin to legalize same-sex marriage, forcing states that did not have that law to recognize such a marriage if a same-sex couple legally married in one state and moved into one of their states. The law defined marriage as a relationship between a man and a woman and gave states the right to deny rights and benefits of same-sex couples legally married in another state. Choice (A) is incorrect because even though the Full Faith and Credit clause of the Constitution requires states to recognize laws of other states, this law made an exception for same-sex marriage. Choice (B) is incorrect because a legal spousal union was defined as one between a man and a woman. Choice (D) is incorrect because under the “Don’t ask, don’t tell” policy, gays could serve in the military, and this policy is not addressed in this law.
16. (A) Opponents of the Defense of Marriage Act would make the legal argument that they are being denied equal protection under the law found in the Fourteenth Amendment. They would make the argument that all marriages should be treated the same way and it would be discriminatory to make same-sex marriage an exception. Choice (B) is incorrect because even though same-sex couples can marry in states that allow it, once that couple moves out of that state, the marriage and benefits would not be legal if the next state does not have same-sex marriage. Choice (C) is incorrect because opponents of the Defense of Marriage Act would also be against a constitutional amendment defining marriage as only between a man and a woman. Choice (D) is incorrect because opponents of the law would be in favor of same-sex married couples receiving federal benefits.
17. (B) The Full Faith and Credit clause of the United States Constitution guarantees that the United States has a legal responsibility to fulfill credit responsibilities. The clause also requires states to legally recognize laws of other states. Even though the main constitutional argument made to challenge the Defense of Marriage Act was equal protection under the Fourteenth Amendment, there was a valid argument that the Full Faith and Credit provision was also being violated because states could selectively not recognize legal marriages and deny benefits to same-sex couples. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because those provisions were not used by the Supreme Court when they declared the law unconstitutional.
18. (D) The U.S. Constitution empowers the Congress to carry out the census in “such manner as they shall by Law direct” (Article I, Section 2). Congress passed a law in 1954 requiring the census to be taken every ten years. Choice (A) is incorrect because the law was already in place. Choice (B) is incorrect because it is a constitutional provision and congressional act that mandates census every ten years. Choice (C) is incorrect because state legislatures receive the information from the Census Bureau and then make decisions regarding future elections based on population changes shown on the map.
19. (B) The map shows population increases and decreases from 2000 to 2010. State legislatures must create new legislative districts based on the population changes in the state. This process is called reapportionment. It affects state and congressional districts. Choice (A) is incorrect because the Census Bureau, not Congress, determines the number of congressional districts per state after each census is completed. States that gain or lose people can gain or lose Electoral College votes in the next presidential election because the number of Electoral College votes is determined by the number of congressional districts (435) plus two for every State’s senators (100) plus three for the District of Columbia, totaling 538. Choice (C) is incorrect because population changes do not necessarily mean the state will automatically lose federal funding. Choice (D) is incorrect because states pass voter-ID laws regardless of whether they have population increases or decreases.
20. (B) This 1916 political cartoon titled “The ‘Americanese’ Wall—As Congressman Burnett would build it” represented the anti-Chinese immigrant movement. It advocated a congressional law requiring Chinese immigrants to pass a literacy test that measures a minimum degree of education. Choice (A) is incorrect because immigrants were against this law and though the cartoon depicts an immigrant saluting Uncle Sam, it was not because the immigrant agreed that a literacy test should be a condition for admittance. Choice (C) is incorrect because the “build the wall” slogan was one used by Donald Trump in the 2016 presidential election. Choice (D) is incorrect because even though literacy tests were used as a requirement for voting, this cartoon illustrated that the purpose of the test would be a requirement for Chinese immigration even if they did not vote.
21. (C) President Obama issued the executive order allowing children of undocumented immigrants to remain in the country legally and pursue jobs or their education. Congress refused to pass this into law, so the order was challenged. A federal appeals court ruled in 2013 that Obama’s action was unconstitutional, but the ruling never resulted in the revocation of the order. That was done by the Trump administration in 2017. Trump’s executive order was a good example of increased use of presidential authority. Choice (A) is incorrect because Obama wanted Congress to pass a law protecting children of undocumented immigrants. Congress never did. When President Trump rescinded the order, he gave Congress six months to pass the law which they never did because a federal court delayed the implementation of Trump’s executive order. Choice (B) is incorrect because undocumented immigrants were already in the United States, and President Obama was opposed to additional undocumented immigrants. Choice (D) is incorrect because states do not have deportation power.
22. (D) There has been a significant increase in the number of states allowing early voting and in number of people voting early in presidential elections. This is because states like North Carolina allow early voting by mail or in person. The graphic outlines the 2016 voter registration dates that include the early-voting schedule. Because of the ease of early voting, there was a significant increase of early voters in North Carolina. Choice (A) is incorrect because voting by mail, an early-voting provision, is designed to make voting more convenient. Choice (B) is incorrect because whatever rules applied to same-day voting on Election Day also applied to early voting. Choice (C) is incorrect because if you vote early and then something significant occurs, you cannot take your vote back.
23. (C) Campaign strategy has had to adapt to the increased number of states that have adopted early voting and the increased number of voters who take advantage of early voting. When candidates track the number of people who have voted early (based on records from local boards of elections), candidates can get a sense of which party has more voters voting early. This will prompt candidates to adjust their strategy so that any deficit could be made up on Election Day. Choice (A) is incorrect because political advertising would increase the week before Election Day regardless of early voting trends. Choice (B) is incorrect because more ballots are usually challenged on Election Day. Choice (D) is incorrect because the debate commission sets up the schedule of presidential debates prior to when states set up their early voting schedule, and presidential debates take place after many states start early voting.
24. (D) Prior to the decision made by the Supreme Court in the Citizens United case, corporations were prohibited from using money for independent political advertisements. Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because corporations are allowed to give soft money to political parties and hard money through their political action committees to candidates. Choice (C) is incorrect because unions are not allowed to collect dues from their members for political action. Unions are, however, able to set up political action committees to which union members can voluntarily contribute.
25. (B) No Labels aims to foster bipartisanship and political compromise, key features of pluralism. Pluralism is characterized by groups striving to achieve a centrist position and, although no one group is totally happy, a number of groups, as a result of the bargaining that goes on, agree on mutually acceptable positions. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because elitist, trustee, and majoritarian models of democracy all have components that would go against the No Labels philosophy.
26. (B) A standing committee of the House of Representatives is a permanent committee of the House. Each standing committee has specific responsibilities in the legislative process. One aspect these committees have in common is that they meet and “mark up” bills before the proposed legislation goes to the floor. The mark-up process includes the addition of amendments, which are debated by the committee. Choice (A) is incorrect because the standing committee is made up of representatives from the Democratic and Republican parties. The majority party in a house of Congress has a majority on that house’s committees. Partisan bickering has become the norm at committee meetings. Choice (C) is incorrect because when the House and Senate pass legislation that needs to be reconciled, a new joint committee, called the conference committee, is formed. Choice (D) is incorrect because the majority is determined by which party has the majority of seats in the House of Representatives.
27. (A) There are a number of methods Congress can use to respond to a ruling that declares a law unconstitutional. One is rewriting the entire law. More often, the Supreme Court will rule parts of a law invalid and in that case Congress has to change only those parts. Another option Congress has is passing a constitutional amendment by a two-thirds majority in each house and then send it to the states where it would need approval from three-quarters of the state legislatures to pass it. Choice (B) is incorrect because only the president has the power to appoint Supreme Court justices, with Senate approval. Choice (C) is incorrect because according to the Constitution Supreme Court justices do not have term limits. Choice (D) is incorrect because laws that are passed by states are argued in state courts.
28. (C) Executive privilege is the doctrine that allows the president’s private conversations to remain confidential. When President Nixon argued that he had executive privilege when he was discussing sensitive matters that he recorded, the Supreme Court, using the separation of powers doctrine, ruled unanimously that Nixon had to release those tapes. Choice (A) is incorrect because the court also ruled that there was a limited right of executive privilege, and the president has to protect national security and other sensitive areas. Choice (B) is incorrect because even though the president wanted these tapes to remain private, there was no Fourth Amendment argument. Choice (D) is incorrect because Congress had already begun impeachment hearings before the case was heard.
29. (D) A five-term representative would have more opportunity to get political action committee money (PAC) money than would a first-term representative because a five-term representative would have built up a fundraising base in the years he or she had been in Congress. Choice (A) is incorrect because committee chairs are usually given to more senior members. Choice (B) is incorrect because there are no congressional term limits. Choice (C) is incorrect because any representative can offer amendments to legislation.
30. (B) The Supreme Court has ruled consistently that race should be taken into consideration when looking at affirmative action but it has also established that quotas to achieve affirmative action would be unconstitutional. This would apply to college admissions as well as majority-minority legislative districts. A college that mandates that 10 percent of African-Americans be admitted is clearly a quota. Choice (A) is incorrect because bakery owners have made a religious liberty argument. Choice (C) is incorrect because a high school refusing to fund a bible club would be violating the First Amendment free exercise clause. Choice (D) is incorrect because there was no affirmative action issue when President Trump ordered the military to ban transgenders from serving. There was an equal protection issue.
31. (D) The iron-triangle network is a pattern of relationships between an agency in the executive branch, Congress, and special-interest groups lobbying that agency. If you review how the Department of Health and Human Services operates, you can visualize the iron-triangle concept. Its budget is reviewed; various congressional committees and interest groups such as insurance groups, senior citizen groups, and the medical community lobby for their groups; legislation is passed incorporating ideas and proposals from these groups. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because they illustrate other relationships that do not describe the iron triangle.
32. (C) A key concept of the Advanced Placement U.S. Government and Politics curriculum is Selective Incorporation and Nationalization of the Bill of Rights through the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, which guarantees citizens of states protection from abuses by the state or federal governments. Therefore, if the police acquire evidence from a search without a valid warrant, that would be a violation of the Fourth Amendment. The Supreme Court cases Wolff v Colorado (1949) and Mapp v Ohio (1961) were Fourth Amendment search warrant evidence cases that established the incorporation of the Fourth Amendment through the Due Process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. Choice (A) is incorrect because a captured foreign-born terrorist has due process rights if he is tried in the United States. Choice (B) is incorrect because if federal funds are given to charter schools that is a federal issue, not a state issue. Choice (D) is incorrect because a court can deny bail for accused repeat offenders.
33. (A) The president uses different techniques to further the policy agenda to various constituencies that include lawmakers, special-interest groups, and the public. The bully pulpit is used by the president when he is making a key statement pushing that agenda. It could be a press conference, a speech, Twitter, Facebook, and all the other media available to the president. Choice (B) is incorrect because the president uses a private meeting with the Joint Chiefs of Staff to either ask for advice or give a direct order. Choice (C) is incorrect because the president cannot fire a federal civil service employee for speaking out against a policy. Choice (D) is incorrect because the president does not lobby Supreme Court justices.
34. (A) Schenck v United States (1919), a required Supreme Court case, established the precedent that in times of a national emergency such as war, if there is a clear and present danger, a person’s First Amendment speech rights could be limited. It uses the example of yelling “fire” in a movie theater as an example. Therefore, creating a panic in an amusement park would be a similar situation, thus violating that ruling. Choice (B) is incorrect because courts have found there is a constitutional right of assembly to march even in groups that are considered racist. Choice (C) is incorrect because courts have ruled people have the right to heckle a speech. Choice (D) is incorrect because a person has the right to distribute anti-American propaganda unless that material directly jeopardizes the ability of the United States to conduct its foreign policy.
35. (C) The 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Act set limits on the practice of the president making budgetary decisions without the appropriate congressional checks, and the act also set up the independent Congressional Budget Office. The constitutional basis of the law is the appropriations power of Congress. Choice (A) is incorrect because even though Congress could override a budget veto, that power was not the basis of the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Act. Choice (B) is incorrect because the congressional power to borrow money was not the money the president was interfering with. Choice (D) is not correct because a continuing resolution extends the federal budget beyond a budgetary deadline which, if not extended, would result in a government shutdown.
36. (A) The Sixth Amendment guarantees the rights of criminal defendants, including the right to a public trial without unnecessary delay, the right to a lawyer, the right to an impartial jury, and the right to know who your accusers are and the nature of the charges and evidence against you. The required court case Gideon v Wainright (1963) established that even if you cannot afford an attorney, you will be provided one. Part of the Miranda warnings is that a person has the right to an attorney while being questioned. Choice (B) is incorrect because finding evidence without a search warrant is a violation of the Fourth Amendment. Choice (C) is incorrect because a jury trial is guaranteed by the Seventh Amendment. Choice (D) is incorrect because it is legal in many cases (even though there is a right to privacy) according to the Fourth Amendment for police to use stop-and-frisk.
37. (D) The president issues a signing statement after signing a bill that has aspects the president wants to clarify, disagree with, or explain. Even though James Monroe issued the first signing statement, George W. Bush and Barack Obama used this tool on bills when they wanted to clarify the reason for their signing. Choice (A) is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not give advisory rulings on signed laws. Choice (B) is incorrect because once the bill is passed, the only way to send it back to Congress is if the president vetoes the bill. Choice (C) is incorrect because the Supreme Court ruled unconstitutional the line item that gave the president authority to veto parts of budget bills.
38. (A) By definition, political socialization is the process whereby people obtain their political values. These values, such as party identification, views on abortion, and attitudes toward affirmative action, come from a variety of sources—primarily from parents, but also schools, peer groups, and churches. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because they do not fit the definition.
39. (B) The definition of an interest group is a linkage group that is a public or private organization, affiliation, or committee with as its goal the dissemination of its membership’s viewpoint. The result will be persuading public policy makers to respond to the group’s perspective. The special-interest group’s goals are carried out in the form of lobbyists and political action committees. The lobbyists who work for these groups have the greatest success if the president and members of the president’s party support the bill. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because lobbyists would have a more difficult job getting the legislation passed if the public was against it, if bureaucratic agencies were against it, or it had previously been defeated by Congress.
40. (C) When a representative recommends an appointment to a military school, that Congressman is providing constituent service. Another example of constituent service is how the representative’s office handles and responds to voters’ concerns. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because those models refer to voters’ trust in their representatives to make decisions that the representatives feel are in the best interests of their constituents (Trustee model, choice (A)), representatives are the most political in this model utilizing both the trustee model and delegate model to make decisions (Politico model, choice (B)) and voters electing their representatives as their delegates and expecting the representatives to vote on the basis of what their constituents believe (Delegate model, choice (D)).
41. (C) When looking at political polls, we should evaluate them by these factors: who conducts the poll—there is a real difference between a candidate who reports polling results and a neutral organization that conducts a poll; the sample size—make sure that a random sample was obtained, if a clear distinction is made regarding the population sample; when the poll was conducted, the poll methodology, the sampling error, which gives the poll statistical validity (plus or minus 3 percent is usually an acceptable standard); and how clearly the polling questions were worded. In this question, the polling sample was the same for both polls, and both polls asked the same question. The only difference was the margin of error. Even though plus or minus 3.5 percent gives a more accurate result than plus or minus 5.5 percent, in this case because of the results both polls could show the same job approval if you add or subtract the margin of error. Choice (A) is incorrect because there is no evidence cell phones were not used. Choices (B) and (D) are incorrect because the polls do not reflect those choices.
42. (B) Majority–minority congressional districts were created by primarily southern states in order to satisfy the requirements of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, which mandated the U.S. attorney general to monitor how the states conducted their elections, making sure minorities were able to register and vote without obstacles. In addition, states had to create equitable voting districts that fairly represented their population. Some districts were so gerrymandered, resulting in such an imbalance of African-American residents, that the other districts ensured the election of primarily white candidates. The Supreme Court in Shaw v Reno found this to be unacceptable (choice (A)). Choices (C)and (D) had nothing to do with the issue raised by the question.
43. (A) The Articles of Confederation contained a provision for the government to borrow money and the Constitution had the provision that Congress could declare war. Choice (B) is incorrect because the Articles of Confederation was for a one-house legislature. Choice (C) is incorrect because the Articles of Confederation allowed states to coin their own money. Choice (D) is wrong because the Articles of Confederation had a provision that required laws to be passed by a two-thirds majority.
44. (B) Both required First Amendment cases had different outcomes. Schenck established that if there is a clear and present danger in a time of war, speech can be restricted. Tinker established that during a time of war, students would still be able to protest by wearing black armbands because it represented a form of symbolic speech. Choice (A) is incorrect because the fighting-words doctrine was a different case. Choice (C) is incorrect because Schenck was never in the army, and the Tinker case did not allow students to be suspended for wearing armbands. Choice (D) is incorrect because the draft remained in place. The three choices in the Tinker decision were all results of that case.
45. (B) The formal powers of the president are described in Article 2 of the Constitution. They are also referred to as expressed powers. The informal powers of the president are duties or actions that are not listed in the Constitution. A formal power of the president is the veto power, and an informal power is being head of the president’s political party. Choice (A) is incorrect because Congress has the power to declare war, and the power to appoint ambassadors is a formal power. Choice (C) is wrong because both executive orders and issuing signing statements are informal powers. Choice (D) is incorrect because both commander in chief and making treaties are formal powers.
46. (D) Special-interest groups and political parties are both linkage organizations. Even though they both have a significant impact on the policy process, their goals and manner in which they affect policy differ. Special-interest groups provide Congress important information by either lobbying Congress or testifying before congressional committees. Political parties run campaigns for candidates running for office who ultimately vote on legislation. Choice (A) is incorrect because there is no membership fee to join a political party. Choice (B) is wrong because there is no formal vote that most special-interest groups take on their platforms and political parties have many issues that they advocate. Choice (C) is incorrect because political parties nominate candidates for office and special-interest groups endorse candidates.
47. (D) The presidential powers listed in the Constitution are (choice (A)) commander in chief, the pardon power (Choice C), and the power to veto legislation (choice (D)). Senate powers are approving, by a two-thirds vote, treaties a president makes. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not Senate powers. The Senate cannot directly override an executive order. A senator can introduce legislation that addresses an issue raised in a presidential executive order. The Senate approves Supreme Court nominees, the president appoints them. The House of Representatives initiates appropriation legislation.
48. (B) Third-party candidates often act as spoilers, especially in presidential elections. This happened in the 2000 election when Ralph Nader ran on the Green Party ticket, and Al Gore won the popular vote, but lost the vote in the Electoral College. Supporters of third-party candidates believe there are no real differences between the two major parties, so many want to register a protest vote. Choice (A) is incorrect because there has not been an increase in third-party registration. There has been an increase in people registering as independents. Choice (C) is incorrect because third-party candidates do not have the resources to win presidential elections. Choice (D) is incorrect because voter registration has increased since the Motor Voter Act was passed.
49. (B) The definition of a recession is when the Gross Domestic Product goes negative for two consecutive quarters. The Federal Reserve, through its monetary policies, has a number of options to combat inflation or to try to bring the country out of a recession. Lowering the discount rate also lowers the interest rate. Therefore, people would find it easier to borrow money and then spend it on goods and services. This would help the country get out of a recession. Choices (A), (C), and (D) would result in tighter money which is used to combat inflation but not recessions.
50. (A) The definition of free enterprise, is a belief in a system that encourages competition. The definition of equality of opportunity is that government should provide opportunities for people to succeed either through assistance programs or affirmative action programs. Supply-side economics is a component of the free-enterprise system because it favors those who produce goods and services. Choices (B), (C), and (D) would all be favored by people who believe in equality of opportunity.
51. (C) The required Supreme Court case New York Times Company v U.S. (1971) arose when the New York Times printed The Pentagon Papers, a classified study of the Vietnam War that contradicted what past administrations claimed were the reasons the United States escalated the war. President Nixon ordered the attorney general to get an injunction for the Times to cease publication based on national security concerns. The Supreme Court ruled against the United States saying that First Amendment rights gave the newspaper the right to print this story. Choice (A) is incorrect because the guarantee a reporter can protect the anonymity of sources is based on state laws and other judicial decisions. Choice (B) is incorrect because it is a false statement, prior review being a form of censorship that violates the First Amendment. Choice (D) is incorrect because the clear and present danger doctrine did not apply to the case.
52. (C) Executive privilege is a doctrine that allows the president to protect private conversations and other materials generated from the president that the president feels are confidential and should not be given to the Congress, courts, or the public. In most cases, executive privilege is protected, and courts have been reluctant to direct the president or advisors to the president to reveal these conversations or hand over materials. This doctrine was challenged when President Nixon refused to hand over Watergate-related tapes, and the Supreme Court said executive privilege did not apply. Choice (A) is incorrect because the president can be tried while in office, either through the impeachment process or civilly. Choice (B) is incorrect because the president does not have to reveal who he meets with and would not have to claim executive privilege. Choice (D) is incorrect because a president does not use executive privilege as means to win over public opinion.
53. (A) Because many bureaucrats are appointed for longer terms than the president or are civil service employees, they have a continuity of service that the president lacks. That gives the bureaucrat an advantage in the policy-making process. Choice (B) is incorrect because the public has little direct connection to bureaucrats. Choice (C) is incorrect because the president controls the budgetary process. Choice (D) is incorrect because Congress has oversight of bureaucracies.
54. (C) Presidential appointment of ambassadors, cabinet-level personnel, and federal justices is a power granted by the Constitution. The Senate must approve those appointments after the appropriate committee holds hearings. This process is called “advise and consent.” As a result of this process it becomes more difficult for a president to make appointments. During the first hundred days of the Trump administration, the Democrats were able to delay many of Trump’s cabinet appointments. Choice (A) is incorrect because the process is held up in committee hearings. Choice (B) is incorrect because staff appointments do not have to be confirmed by the senate. Choice (D) is incorrect because the House does not review presidential appointments.
55. (D) Judicial activism is defined as a court ruling congressional legislation unconstitutional or expanding the rights of individuals through court decisions. Liberal activists support this philosophy if the decision expands rights. A court that declares a law unconstitutional that restricts access to obscene sites on the Internet is an example of this type of activism. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are all cases that restrict rights.
Section 2: Free-Response Questions
Explanation and Discussion of Question 1: Concept Application Scenario Question
This question is based on a press release from the House Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence chairman, Representative Devin Nunes, and Committee on Oversight and Government Reform chairman Trey Gowdy, announcing a joint inquiry into the Obama administration regulatory approvals related to the U.S. uranium industry and possible wrongdoing related to those approvals.
Part A asks you to describe from where Congress gets its authority to address the issues raised in the passage. Congress, through its oversight power, is able to call witnesses, subpoena material, and draw conclusions regarding the issue of whether there was any wrongdoing connected to the Uranium One mining company deal with Russia and any other related matters connected to Russian acquisition of U.S. uranium. Article 1 of the United States Constitution gives Congress lawmaking authority and the authority to make its own rules. Over the years, both the House and Senate have organized their legislative processes through a system made up of permanent standing committees, joint committees, and select committees. Congressional oversight is a key responsibility of these committees.
Part B asks you to use the information provided in Part A and explain how congressional authority can be affected by the minority members on the committee. Every committee in the House has representation from both the Republican and Democratic parties. Since the Republican party now has the majority in the House, they have a majority on these committees and can call witnesses and subpoena material by a majority vote. The Democratic minority has a ranking member who is supposed to work in a bipartisan manner with the chairperson of the committee. The minority could affect the workings of the committee by getting the public to support their positions. This is accomplished by votes and statements made during committee hearings and appearances on political talk shows speaking out against the positions taken by the majority. The minority can also call on special-interest groups sympathetic to their position to apply pressure on the majority to stop its investigation. In this case Democrats strongly oppose the Uranium One inquiry because they believe the Republicans have called for the investigation based on false and misleading information.
Part C asks you to evaluate the possible outcomes of the committee investigation. One outcome would be that the witnesses and the evidence obtained by the committee show there were illegal actions by members of the Obama administration in the Russian acquisition of U.S. uranium. If that was the outcome, then the committee can submit its findings to the Department of Justice for further actions that include arrests of officials involved in illegalities and then trials of those individuals. The other outcome could be no conclusive evidence of any wrongdoing by Obama administration officials. In that case, the committee would end its inquiry with no further action.
Scoring Rubric
This question is 3 points.
Part A |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Units |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Describe a power that gives Congress the authority to address the issues raised in the passage. |
Foundations of American Democracy (The Constitution), Interactions Among the Branches of Government (Congress, the Executive Branch, Judicial) |
Examples must include the Article in the Constitution that states that Congress passes laws and can establish rules for how they operate. One of those rules is the working of the committee system. Congressional oversight is one aspect of the committee system. (1 pt.) |
Part B |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Explain how the congressional inquiry can be affected by the minority members on the committee. |
Interactions Among the Branches of Government (congressional oversight), Political Participation (special-interest groups and the media) |
The answer must explain what the minority of the members on the committee can do to affect the outcome of the investigation. Through statements made at committee hearings, questioning of witnesses, and giving interviews on political talk shows, the minority can raise objections to what they feel is an unfair inquiry. (1 pt.) |
Part C |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Explain what the possible outcomes of the committee inquiry of the Uranium One sales could be. |
Political Participation |
Depending on the findings of the committee, the committee could take action against those individuals who may have committed a crime by giving the results to the Department of Justice. If there are no conclusive results or the committee does not find wrongdoing, no further action would be taken. (1 pt.) |
Explanation and Discussion of Question 2: Supreme Court Comparison Question
This question is based on an understanding of one of the required Supreme Court cases (Tinker v Des Moines, 1969) in the newly redesigned curriculum. The issue of free speech guaranteed in the First Amendment applies to both the Tinker case and the Morse v Frederick (2007) case. The text in the question summarizes the facts and issues raised by the Frederick case.
Part A asks you to identify the constitutional clause that both the Morse and Tinker cases have in common. The First Amendment to the United States Constitution guarantees free speech, but the Supreme Court has ruled there can be restrictions based on national security issues (Schenck) while the Tinker case said that students’ rights are not shed at the schoolhouse gate, but if there is a substantial disruption of the educational environment, school authorities can restrict First Amendment rights. In the Morse case, Joseph Frederick claimed his First Amendment free-speech rights were violated because he was suspended for holding up the “Bong Hits 4 Jesus” sign at the Olympic torch ceremony, which was held off the school grounds.
Part B directs you to show that, even though the constitutional issue in Part A was used in both cases, why the decision of Tinker was different than the one reached in Morse v Frederick. The Supreme Court ruled that, even though students have free-speech rights protected by the First Amendment when it comes to political issues, the controversial banner was advocating drug use and, therefore, went against the school’s mission of teaching students that drugs should not be used.
Part C wants you to describe what happened as a result of the Supreme Court decision. Since the court ruled that the actions of Joseph Frederick violated school rules and was not protected by the First Amendment or precedent established in Tinker v Des Moines, the case gave a clear signal to school administrators that they had a right to protect the mission of schools, especially when it comes to drug-related issues. The case did not completely reverse the precedent established in the Tinker case.
Scoring Rubric
Part A |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Units |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Identify the constitutional issues that the majority opinion uses in both cases. |
Constitutional Democracy (Judicial Review), Civil Rights and Civil Liberties (Civil Liberties, the First Amendment of the Bill of Rights) |
Explanation of what the First Amendment free speech provision means and how it applies to the Morse and Tinker cases. (1 pt.) |
Part B |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Explain why the decision reached in Morse v Frederick was different than the one reached in Tinker, even though they were both First Amendment cases. |
Constitutional Democracy (Judicial review), Civil Liberties (First Amendment free speech) |
Even though the First Amendment free-speech guarantee was argued in both the Morse and Tinker cases, because Morse used speech to promote drugs, his actions were not protected by the First Amendment. In Tinker black armbands were used by students in a silent symbolic protest against the Vietnam War. (2 pts.) |
Part C |
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Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Describe what happened as a result of the decision made by the Supreme Court in the Morse v Frederick case. |
Constitutional Democracy (Judicial review), Civil Liberties (First Amendment free speech) |
Because the court ruled in favor of the school, the precedent established in Tinker was weakened. The court decision also signaled to administrators they had greater authority in restricting student speech if it came into conflict with the school’s mission. (1 pt.) |
Explanation and Discussion Question 3: Quantitative Analysis Question Using a Map
This question presents two maps of the apportionment of the U.S. House of Representatives, one from the 2000 census and the other from the 2010 census. Each map shows states that had no change, states gaining congressional seats, and states losing congressional seats.
Part A asks you how the 2000 census had an impact on the apportionment of states in the Rust Belt and the Northeast. Both these geographic areas lost seats in the 2000 census. It is essential that students understand that the Rust Belt states include the key swing states of Michigan and Wisconsin.
Part B asks you for a similarity or difference found in the 2000 census vs. the 2010 census by state or region. Similarities include a loss of seats in both 2000 and 2010 in New York, Pennsylvania, and Ohio and gains in Georgia, Florida, Texas, Arizona, and Nevada.
Part C asks you to explain how apportionment of the U.S. House of Representatives creates an increase in partisanship. Once the census is completed the Census Bureau informs the states whether they will be gaining seats, losing seats, or whether there will be no change in the next congressional election based on the new population figures. States that gain or lose seats must reapportion their congressional districts to reflect the change. States that have no change have the option of whether to reapportion their districts. This is a very political process because it is up to the state legislatures to draw the new congressional districts. For example, if a state is considered a “blue state” and votes for the Democratic candidate in presidential elections but has a Republican legislature, the new seats that are drawn can favor Republican congressional candidates. If the district is so politicized because it is gerrymandered, the voters can challenge the redistricting in court. In states in the South, majority–minority districts have been drawn, which also is a partisan attempt to make these districts favor one political party over the other.
Scoring Rubric
This question is 4 points.
Part A |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Units |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Describe how the 2000 Census affected the apportionment of states in the Rust Belt and Northeast |
Foundations of American Democracy (U.S. Constitution—size of congressional districts, census), Political Participation (election of House members) |
Accurately describes the census trend in the Rust Belt and Northeast—that is, both the Rust Belt and Northeast lost seats (a correct answer is needed for both regions). (1 pt.) |
Part B |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Identify a similarity or difference between the 2000 census by state or region. |
Foundations of American Democracy (U.S. Constitution—size of congressional districts, Census), Political Participation (election of House members) |
Give specific examples of either states that both gained or lost seats in 2000 and 2010 or remained the same (i.e., similarities include a loss of seats in both 2000 and 2010 in New York, Pennsylvania, and Ohio) and states that gained seats in 2000 and 2010 (i.e., Georgia, Florida, Texas, Arizona, and Nevada). Or states that neither gained nor lost seats in 2000 but gained seats in 2010, such as Utah and South Carolina. (1 pt.) |
Part C |
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Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Explain why partisanship increases after the Census releases its figures to the states |
Civil Liberties and Civil Rights (Shaw v Reno), Political Participation (gerrymandering) |
Give an explanation of how reapportionment causes an increase in partisanship—that is, state legislatures must redraw districts, and if the majority of the legislature is one party that does not represent the majority party registration in that state, the legislature can gerrymander the districts. (2 pts. for a correct answer with an example to support the answer) |
Free-Response Question 4: Argument Essay (6 pts.)
This question asks you to develop an argument that explains which judicial philosophy, judicial activism, or judicial restraint Supreme Court justices should adopt in carrying out their duties as prescribed by the U.S. Constitution and by Supreme Court precedent. Students could also make the argument that justices should not follow either philosophy.
The essay asks you to take a position or develop a thesis. You can take the position that Supreme Court justices should follow judicial activism, judicial restraint, or neither philosophy to achieve what the founders set up as the purpose and practice of the judiciary. A good thesis would be that Supreme Court justices should follow a philosophy of judicial activism to come to court decisions. The same thesis could be used for judicial restraint. And the third possible thesis could be that Supreme Court justices should not follow either philosophy. The strongest thesis is probably the last one. Regardless of which argument you pick, you must be able to explain judicial activism and judicial restraint and how they relate to the role of the judiciary and impact the outcome of cases. Judicial activism is characterized by a justice who believes that precedent can be overturned and congressional legislation can be ruled unconstitutional. Judicial restraint respects stare decisis (precedent) and the original intent of the Constitution and looks to find ways of letting Congress do its job without court interference. If the argument is that neither philosophy should be adopted, the point should be made that each case is different and that a single philosophy can impede the working of the court.
The question also asks for a piece of accurate and relevant information from one required document and another piece of accurate and relevant information from a second required document or any relevant optional Supreme Court case you studied that relates to the question. Federalist No. 78 was written by Hamilton to explain and justify the structure of the judiciary under the proposed U.S., arguing the need for an independent judiciary, for the judicial power to declare laws unconstitutional, and for justices to be appointed for life. A life tenure would free justices from political pressures and enable them to act independently. Thus, you can use these criteria to support all three positions. The Constitution describes the qualifications and powers of the Supreme Court, life tenure, and the ability of justices to make decisions regarding the constitutionality of laws. Again, the constitutional basis of the judiciary can be used for all three arguments. The court case Marbury v Madison (1803) established the principle of judicial review, which is the basis of either philosophy. Another foundational document you can use could be Federalist No. 51, which talks about checks and balances. If you take the activist position, you can use a case like Miranda v Arizona, which established new procedures for police when they question a suspect. If you take the judicial restraint position, you can use Plessy v Ferguson, which upheld the separate but equal doctrine.
The final part of the essay asks you to summarize your argument by offering reasons why your proof supports your position. If you take the position that judicial activism is the best philosophy for a Supreme Court justice to adopt, you can point to the foundational documents and Constitution as proof that the founders wanted a court that would be independent and take the initiative if the case called for overturning a congressional law. If you are taking the position that judicial restraint is the best philosophy for a justice to adopt, you can look at how the founders wanted the court to go slowly and to use the Constitution as the basis for making decisions. If you are taking the position that neither philosophy should be the sole philosophy to adopt, you should make the point a justice should be flexible in deciding cases, and that each case should be decided based on the facts of the case. The final part of the essay should use one of the arguments described to counter the argument that is central to your position.
Scoring Rubric
This question is 6 points.
Part A |
||
Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Units |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Develop an argument by choosing a position or thesis (2 pts.) |
Foundations of American Democracy (the Constitution, Federalist No. 51), Interaction Among the Branches of Government (judicial branch) |
A good thesis would be that a Supreme Court justice should follow a judicial philosophy of judicial activism to best reach court decisions. The same thesis could be used for judicial restraint. And the third possible thesis could be that Supreme Court justices should not follow either philosophy. The strongest thesis is probably the last one. Regardless of which argument you pick, you must be able to define judicial activism and judicial restraint and explain how they relate to the role of the judiciary and how they impact the outcome of cases. |
Part B |
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Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Support your position with TWO pieces of accurate and relevant information (2 pts.) |
Foundations of American Democracy (the Constitution, Federalist No. 51), Interaction Among the Branches of Government (judicial branch exercising its power of judicial review), Civil Liberties and Civil Rights (optional Supreme Court cases that support judicial activism and judicial restraint) |
Federalist No. 78 was written by Hamilton to explain and justify the structure of the judiciary under the proposed Constitution of the United States arguing the need for an independent judiciary, justices appointed for life, and the judicial power to declare laws unconstitutional. The court case Marbury v Madison (1803) established the principle of judicial review which is the basis of either philosophy. Another foundational document you can use could be Federalist No. 51, which talks about checks and balances. The United States Constitution describes the qualifications and powers of the Supreme Court, life tenure, and the ability of justices to make decisions regarding the constitutionality of laws. |
Part C |
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Scoring Criteria |
Applicable Unit |
Scoring Guidelines and Examples of Correct Answers |
Summarize your argument by offering reasons why your proof supports your position (1 pt.); and respond to the opposing point of view by refuting, conceding, or rebutting that point of view (1 pt.). |
Foundations of American Democracy (the Constitution, Federalist No. 51), Interaction Among the Branches of Government (judicial branch), Civil Rights and Civil Liberties |
Depending on the position you took, you would use the arguments made by the other philosophies to conclude that your position is the strongest one. |
Since every test will be scored utilizing specific criteria for each question, there will be a different weighted score applied to every test. Please note that the multiple choice section is worth 50% of the test and the free response section is also worth 50% of the exam with each free response question worth 12.5%.
In the 2019 test students achieving a minimum multiple-choice score of 37.4 out of 55 and a total free response score of 9.1 out of 17 points received a 3. Students achieving a minimum multiple-choice score of 47.1 out of 55 points and a free response score of 13.6 out of 17 points received a 5.