5−4−10. Timed Approaches from a Holding Fix
a. TIMED APPROACHES may be conducted when the following conditions are met:
1. A control tower is in operation at the airport where the approaches are conducted.
2. Direct communications are maintained between the pilot and the center or approach controller until the pilot is instructed to contact the tower.
3. If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none require a course reversal.
4. If only one missed approach procedure is available, the following conditions are met:
(a) Course reversal is not required; and,
(b) Reported ceiling and visibility are equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.
5. When cleared for the approach, pilots must not execute a procedure turn. (14 CFR Section 91.175.)
b. Although the controller will not specifically state that “timed approaches are in use,” the assigning of a time to depart the final approach fix inbound (nonprecision approach) or the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound (precision approach) is indicative that timed approach procedures are being utilized, or in lieu of holding, the controller may use radar vectors to the Final Approach Course to establish a mileage interval between aircraft that will ensure the appropriate time sequence between the final approach fix/outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker and the airport.
c. Each pilot in an approach sequence will be given advance notice as to the time they should leave the holding point on approach to the airport. When a time to leave the holding point has been received, the pilot should adjust the flight path to leave the fix as closely as possible to the designated time. (See FIG 5−4−19.)
Timed Approaches from a Holding Fix
EXAMPLE−At 12:03 local time, in the example shown, a pilot holding, receives instructions to leave the fix inbound at 12:07. These instructions are received just as the pilot has completed turn at the outbound end of the holding pattern and is proceeding inbound towards the fix. Arriving back over the fix, the pilot notes that the time is 12:04 and that there are 3 minutes to lose in order to leave the fix at the assigned time. Since the time remaining is more than two minutes, the pilot plans to fly a race track pattern rather than a 360 degree turn, which would use up 2 minutes. The turns at the ends of the race track pattern will consume approximately 2 minutes. Three minutes to go, minus 2 minutes required for the turns, leaves 1 minute for level flight. Since two portions of level flight will be required to get back to the fix inbound, the pilot halves the 1 minute remaining and plans to fly level for 30 seconds outbound before starting the turn back to the fix on final approach. If the winds were negligible at flight altitude, this procedure would bring the pilot inbound across the fix precisely at the specified time of 12:07. However, if expecting headwind on final approach, the pilot should shorten the 30 second outbound course somewhat, knowing that the wind will carry the aircraft away from the fix faster while outbound and decrease the ground speed while returning to the fix. On the other hand, compensating for a tailwind on final approach, the pilot should lengthen the calculated 30 second outbound heading somewhat, knowing that the wind would tend to hold the aircraft closer to the fix while outbound and increase the ground speed while returning to the fix.
5−4−11. Radar Approaches
a. The only airborne radio equipment required for radar approaches is a functioning radio transmitter and receiver. The radar controller vectors the aircraft to align it with the runway centerline. The controller continues the vectors to keep the aircraft on course until the pilot can complete the approach and landing by visual reference to the surface. There are two types of radar approaches: Precision (PAR) and Surveillance (ASR).
b. A radar approach may be given to any aircraft upon request and may be offered to pilots of aircraft in distress or to expedite traffic, however, an ASR might not be approved unless there is an ATC operational requirement, or in an unusual or emergency situation. Acceptance of a PAR or ASR by a pilot does not waive the prescribed weather minimums for the airport or for the particular aircraft operator concerned. The decision to make a radar approach when the reported weather is below the established minimums rests with the pilot.
c. PAR and ASR minimums are published on separate pages in the FAA Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP).
1. Precision Approach (PAR). A PAR is one in which a controller provides highly accurate navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation to a pilot. Pilots are given headings to fly, to direct them to, and keep their aircraft aligned with the extended centerline of the landing runway. They are told to anticipate glidepath interception approximately 10 to 30 seconds before it occurs and when to start descent. The published Decision Height will be given only if the pilot requests it. If the aircraft is observed to deviate above or below the glidepath, the pilot is given the relative amount of deviation by use of terms “slightly” or “well” and is expected to adjust the aircraft’s rate of descent/ascent to return to the glidepath. Trend information is also issued with respect to the elevation of the aircraft and may be modified by the terms “rapidly” and “slowly”; e.g., “well above glidepath, coming down rapidly.” Range from touchdown is given at least once each mile. If an aircraft is observed by the controller to proceed outside of specified safety zone limits in azimuth and/or elevation and continue to operate outside these prescribed limits, the pilot will be directed to execute a missed approach or to fly a specified course unless the pilot has the runway environment (runway, approach lights, etc.) in sight. Navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation is provided the pilot until the aircraft reaches the published Decision Height (DH). Advisory course and glidepath information is furnished by the controller until the aircraft passes over the landing threshold, at which point the pilot is advised of any deviation from the runway centerline. Radar service is automatically terminated upon completion of the approach.
2. Surveillance Approach (ASR). An ASR is one in which a controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only. The pilot is furnished headings to fly to align the aircraft with the extended centerline of the landing runway. Since the radar information used for a surveillance approach is considerably less precise than that used for a precision approach, the accuracy of the approach will not be as great and higher minimums will apply. Guidance in elevation is not possible but the pilot will be advised when to commence descent to the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or, if appropriate, to an intermediate step−down fix Minimum Crossing Altitude and subsequently to the prescribed MDA. In addition, the pilot will be advised of the location of the Missed Approach Point (MAP) prescribed for the procedure and the aircraft’s position each mile on final from the runway, airport or heliport or MAP, as appropriate. If requested by the pilot, recommended altitudes will be issued at each mile, based on the descent gradient established for the procedure, down to the last mile that is at or above the MDA. Normally, navigational guidance will be provided until the aircraft reaches the MAP. Controllers will terminate guidance and instruct the pilot to execute a missed approach unless at the MAP the pilot has the runway, airport or heliport in sight or, for a helicopter point−in−space approach, the prescribed visual reference with the surface is established. Also, if, at any time during the approach the controller considers that safe guidance for the remainder of the approach cannot be provided, the controller will terminate guidance and instruct the pilot to execute a missed approach. Similarly, guidance termination and missed approach will be effected upon pilot request and, for civil aircraft only, controllers may terminate guidance when the pilot reports the runway, airport/heliport or visual surface route (point−in−space approach) in sight or otherwise indicates that continued guidance is not required. Radar service is automatically terminated at the completion of a radar approach.
NOTE−
1. The published MDA for straight−in approaches will be issued to the pilot before beginning descent. When a surveillance approach will terminate in a circle−to−land maneuver, the pilot must furnish the aircraft approach category to the controller. The controller will then provide the pilot with the appropriate MDA.
2. ASR APPROACHES ARE NOT AVAILABLE WHEN AN ATC FACILITY IS USING CENRAP.
3. NO−GYRO Approach. This approach is available to a pilot under radar control who experiences circumstances wherein the directional gyro or other stabilized compass is inoperative or inaccurate. When this occurs, the pilot should so advise ATC and request a No−Gyro vector or approach. Pilots of aircraft not equipped with a directional gyro or other stabilized compass who desire radar handling may also request a No−Gyro vector or approach. The pilot should make all turns at standard rate and should execute the turn immediately upon receipt of instructions. For example, “TURN RIGHT,” “STOP TURN.” When a surveillance or precision approach is made, the pilot will be advised after the aircraft has been turned onto final approach to make turns at half standard rate.
5−4−12. Radar Monitoring of Instrument Approaches
a. PAR facilities operated by the FAA and the military services at some joint−use (civil and military) and military installations monitor aircraft on instrument approaches and issue radar advisories to the pilot when weather is below VFR minimums (1,000 and 3), at night, or when requested by a pilot. This service is provided only when the PAR Final Approach Course coincides with the final approach of the navigational aid and only during the operational hours of the PAR. The radar advisories serve only as a secondary aid since the pilot has selected the navigational aid as the primary aid for the approach.
b. Prior to starting final approach, the pilot will be advised of the frequency on which the advisories will be transmitted. If, for any reason, radar advisories cannot be furnished, the pilot will be so advised.
c. Advisory information, derived from radar observations, includes information on:
1. Passing the final approach fix inbound (nonprecision approach) or passing the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound (precision approach).
NOTE−At this point, the pilot may be requested to report sighting the approach lights or the runway.
2. Trend advisories with respect to elevation and/or azimuth radar position and movement will be provided.
NOTE−Whenever the aircraft nears the PAR safety limit, the pilot will be advised that the aircraft is well above or below the glidepath or well left or right of course. Glidepath information is given only to those aircraft executing a precision approach, such as ILS. Altitude information is not transmitted to aircraft executing other than precision approaches because the descent portions of these approaches generally do not coincide with the depicted PAR glidepath.
3. If, after repeated advisories, the aircraft proceeds outside the PAR safety limit or if a radical deviation is observed, the pilot will be advised to execute a missed approach unless the prescribed visual reference with the surface is established.
d. Radar service is automatically terminated upon completion of the approach.
Simultaneous Approaches
(Approach Courses Parallel and Offset between 2.5 and 3.0 degrees)
5−4−13. Simultaneous Approaches to Parallel Runways
a. ATC procedures permit ILS/RNAV/GLS instrument approach operations to dual or triple parallel runway configurations. ILS/RNAV/GLS approaches to parallel runways are grouped into three classes: Simultaneous Dependent Approaches; Simultaneous Independent Approaches; and Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM Approaches. RNAV approach procedures that are approved for simultaneous operations require GPS as the sensor for position updating. VOR/DME, DME/DME and IRU RNAV updating is not authorized. The classification of a parallel runway approach procedure is dependent on adjacent parallel runway centerline separation, ATC procedures, and airport ATC final approach radar monitoring and communications capabilities. At some airports, one or more approach courses may be offset up to 3 degrees. ILS approaches with offset localizer configurations result in loss of Category II/III capabilities and an increase in decision altitude/height (50’).
b. Depending on weather conditions, traffic volume, and the specific combination of runways being utilized for arrival operations, a runway may be used for different types of simultaneous operations, including closely spaced dependent or independent approaches. Pilots should ensure that they understand the type of operation that is being conducted, and ask ATC for clarification if necessary.
c. Parallel approach operations demand heightened pilot situational awareness. A thorough Approach Procedure Chart review should be conducted with, as a minimum, emphasis on the following approach chart information: name and number of the approach, localizer frequency, inbound localizer/azimuth course, glideslope/glidepath intercept altitude, glideslope crossing altitude at the final approach fix, decision height, missed approach instructions, special notes/procedures, and the assigned runway location/proximity to adjacent runways. Pilots are informed by ATC or through the ATIS that simultaneous approaches are in use.
d. The close proximity of adjacent aircraft conducting simultaneous independent approaches, especially simultaneous close parallel PRM approaches mandates strict pilot compliance with all ATC clearances. ATC assigned airspeeds, altitudes, and headings must be complied with in a timely manner. Autopilot coupled approaches require pilot knowledge of procedures necessary to comply with ATC instructions. Simultaneous independent approaches, particularly simultaneous close parallel PRM approaches necessitate precise approach course tracking to minimize final monitor controller intervention, and unwanted No Transgression Zone (NTZ) penetration. In the unlikely event of a breakout, ATC will not assign altitudes lower than the minimum vectoring altitude. Pilots should notify ATC immediately if there is a degradation of aircraft or navigation systems.
e. Strict radio discipline is mandatory during simultaneous independent and simultaneous close parallel PRM approach operations. This includes an alert listening watch and the avoidance of lengthy, unnecessary radio transmissions. Attention must be given to proper call sign usage to prevent the inadvertent execution of clearances intended for another aircraft. Use of abbreviated call signs must be avoided to preclude confusion of aircraft with similar sounding call signs. Pilots must be alert to unusually long periods of silence or any unusual background sounds in their radio receiver. A stuck microphone may block the issuance of ATC instructions on the tower frequency by the final monitor controller during simultaneous independent and simultaneous close parallel PRM approaches. In the case of PRM approaches, the use of a second frequency by the monitor controller mitigates the “stuck mike” or other blockage on the tower frequency.
REFERENCE−AIM, Chapter 4, Section 2, Radio Communications Phraseology and Techniques, gives additional communications information.
f. Use of Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems (TCAS) provides an additional element of safety to parallel approach operations. Pilots should follow recommended TCAS operating procedures presented in approved flight manuals, original equipment manufacturer recommendations, professional newsletters, and FAA publications.
Simultaneous Approaches
(Parallel Runways and Approach Courses)
5−4−14. Simultaneous Dependent Approaches
a. Simultaneous dependent approaches are an ATC procedure permitting approaches to airports having parallel runway centerlines separated by at least 2,500 feet up to 9,000 feet. Integral parts of a total system are ILS or other system providing approach navigation, radar, communications, ATC procedures, and required airborne equipment. RNAV equipment in the aircraft or GLS equipment on the ground and in the aircraft may replace the required airborne and ground based ILS equipment. Although non−precision minimums may be published, pilots must only use those procedures specifically authorized by chart note. For example, the chart note “LNAV NA during simultaneous operations,” requires vertical guidance. When given a choice, pilots should always fly a precision approach whenever possible.
b. A simultaneous dependent approach differs from a simultaneous independent approach in that, the minimum distance between parallel runway centerlines may be reduced; there is no requirement for radar monitoring or advisories; and a staggered separation of aircraft on the adjacent final course is required.
c. A minimum of 1.0 NM radar separation (diagonal) is required between successive aircraft on the adjacent final approach course when runway centerlines are at least 2,500 feet but no more than 3,600 feet apart. A minimum of 1.5 NM radar separation (diagonal) is required between successive aircraft on the adjacent final approach course when runway centerlines are more than 3,600 feet but no more than 8,300 feet apart. When runway centerlines are more than 8,300 feet but no more than 9,000 feet apart a minimum of 2 NM diagonal radar separation is provided. Aircraft on the same final approach course within 10 NM of the runway end are provided a minimum of 3 NM radar separation, reduced to 2.5 NM in certain circumstances. In addition, a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical or a minimum of three miles radar separation is provided between aircraft during turn on to the parallel final approach course.
d. Whenever parallel approaches are in use, pilots are informed by ATC or via the ATIS that approaches to both runways are in use. The charted IAP also notes which runways may be used simultaneously. In addition, the radar controller will have the interphone capability of communicating with the tower controller where separation responsibility has not been delegated to the tower.
NOTE−ATC will not specifically identify these operations as being dependent when advertised on the ATIS.
EXAMPLE−Simultaneous ILS Runway 19 right and ILS Runway 19 left in use.
e. At certain airports, simultaneous dependent approaches are permitted to runways spaced less than 2,500 feet apart. In this case, ATC will provide no less than the minimum authorized diagonal separation with the leader always arriving on the same runway. The trailing aircraft is permitted reduced diagonal separation, instead of the single runway separation normally utilized for runways spaced less than 2,500 feet apart. For wake turbulence mitigation reasons:
1. Reduced diagonal spacing is only permitted when certain aircraft wake category pairings exist; typically when the leader is either in the large or small wake turbulence category, and
2. All aircraft must descend on the glideslope from the altitude at which they were cleared for the approach during these operations.
When reduced separation is authorized, the IAP briefing strip indicates that simultaneous operations require the use of vertical guidance and that the pilot should maintain last assigned altitude until intercepting the glideslope. No special pilot training is required to participate in these operations.
NOTE−Either simultaneous dependent approaches with reduced separation or SOIA PRM approaches may be conducted to Runways 28R and 28L at KSFO spaced 750 feet apart, depending on weather conditions and traffic volume. Pilots should use caution so as not to confuse these operations. Plan for SOIA procedures only when ATC assigns a PRM approach or the ATIS advertises PRM approaches are in use. KSFO is the only airport where both procedures are presently conducted.
REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 5−4−16, Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM Approaches and Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA)
Simultaneous Independent ILS/RNAV/GLS Approaches
5−4−15. Simultaneous Independent ILS/RNAV/GLS Approaches
a. System. An approach system permitting simultaneous approaches to parallel runways with centerlines separated by at least 4,300 feet. Separation between 4,300 and 9,000 feet (9,200’ for airports above 5,000’) utilizing NTZ final monitor controllers. Simultaneous independent approaches require NTZ radar monitoring to ensure separation between aircraft on the adjacent parallel approach course. Aircraft position is tracked by final monitor controllers who will issue instructions to aircraft observed deviating from the assigned final approach course. Staggered radar separation procedures are not utilized. Integral parts of a total system are radar, communications, ATC procedures, and ILS or other required airborne equipment. A chart note identifies that the approach is authorized for simultaneous use.
When simultaneous operations are in use, it will be advertised on the ATIS. When advised that simultaneous approaches are in use, pilots must advise approach control immediately of malfunctioning or inoperative receivers, or if a simultaneous approach is not desired. Although non−precision minimums may be published, pilots must only use those procedures specifically authorized by chart note. For example, the chart note “LNAV NA during simultaneous operations,” requires vertical guidance. When given a choice, pilots should always fly a precision approach whenever possible.
NOTE−ATC does not use the word independent or parallel when advertising these operations on the ATIS.
EXAMPLE−Simultaneous ILS Runway 24 left and ILS Runway 24 right approaches in use.
b. Radar Services. These services are provided for each simultaneous independent approach.
1. During turn on to parallel final approach, aircraft are normally provided 3 miles radar separation or a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical separation. The assigned altitude must be maintained until intercepting the glidepath, unless cleared otherwise by ATC. Aircraft will not be vectored to intercept the final approach course at an angle greater than thirty degrees.
NOTE−Some simultaneous operations permit the aircraft to track an RNAV course beginning on downwind and continuing in a turn to intercept the final approach course. In this case, separation with the aircraft on the adjacent final approach course is provided by the monitor controller with reference to an NTZ.
2. The final monitor controller will have the capability of overriding the tower controller on the tower frequency.
3. Pilots will be instructed to contact the tower frequency prior to the point where NTZ monitoring begins.
4. Aircraft observed to overshoot the turn−on or to continue on a track which will penetrate the NTZ will be instructed to return to the correct final approach course immediately. The final monitor controller may cancel the approach clearance, and issue missed approach or other instructions to the deviating aircraft.
PHRASEOLOGY−“(Aircraft call sign) YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE,” or “(aircraft call sign) TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE.”
5. If a deviating aircraft fails to respond to such instructions or is observed penetrating the NTZ, the aircraft on the adjacent final approach course (if threatened), will be issued a breakout instruction.
PHRASEOLOGY−“TRAFFIC ALERT (aircraft call sign) TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY HEADING (degrees), (climb/descend) AND MAINTAIN (altitude).”
6. Radar monitoring will automatically be terminated when visual separation is applied, the aircraft reports the approach lights or runway in sight, or the aircraft is 1 NM or less from the runway threshold. Final monitor controllers will not advise pilots when radar monitoring is terminated.
NOTE−Simultaneous independent approaches conducted to runways spaced greater than 9,000 feet (or 9,200’ at airports above 5,000’) do not require an NTZ. However, from a pilot’s perspective, the same alerts relative to deviating aircraft will be provided by ATC as are provided when an NTZ is being monitored. Pilots may not be aware as to whether or not an NTZ is being monitored.
PRM Approaches
Simultaneous Close Parallel
5−4−16. Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM Approaches and Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA)
a. System.
1. PRM is an acronym for the high update rate Precision Runway Monitor surveillance system which is required to monitor the No Transgression Zone (NTZ) for specific parallel runway separations used to conduct simultaneous close parallel approaches. PRM is also published in the title as part of the approach name for IAPs used to conduct Simultaneous Close Parallel approaches. “PRM” alerts pilots that specific airborne equipment, training, and procedures are applicable.
Because Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM approaches are independent, the NTZ and normal operating zone (NOZ) airspace between the final approach courses is monitored by two monitor controllers, one for each approach course. The NTZ monitoring system (final monitor aid) consists of a high resolution ATC radar display with automated tracking software which provides monitor controllers with aircraft identification, position, speed, and a ten−second projected position, as well as visual and aural NTZ penetration alerts. A PRM high update rate surveillance sensor is a component of this system only for specific runway spacing. Additional procedures for simultaneous independent approaches are described in Paragraph 5−4−15, Simultaneous Independent ILS/RNAV/GLS Approaches.
2. Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM approaches, whether conducted utilizing a high update rate PRM surveillance sensor or not, must meet all of the following requirements: pilot training, PRM in the approach title, NTZ monitoring utilizing a final monitor aid, radar display, publication of an AAUP, and use of a secondary PRM communications frequency. PRM approaches are depicted on a separate IAP titled (Procedure type) PRM Rwy XXX (Simultaneous Close Parallel or Close Parallel).
NOTE−ATC does not use the word “independent” when advertising these operations on the ATIS.
EXAMPLE−Simultaneous ILS PRM Runway 33 left and ILS PRM Runway 33 right approaches in use.
(a) The pilot may request to conduct a different type of PRM approach to the same runway other than the one that is presently being used; for example, RNAV instead of ILS. However, pilots must always obtain ATC approval to conduct a different type of approach. Also, in the event of the loss of ground−based NAVAIDS, the ATIS may advertise other types of PRM approaches to the affected runway or runways.
(b) The Attention All Users Page (AAUP) will address procedures for conducting PRM approaches.
b. Requirements and Procedures. Besides system requirements and pilot procedures as identified in subparagraph a1 above, all pilots must have completed special training before accepting a clearance to conduct a PRM approach.
1. Pilot Training Requirement. Pilots must complete special pilot training, as outlined below, before accepting a clearance for a simultaneous close parallel PRM approach.
(a) For operations under 14 CFR Parts 121, 129, and 135, pilots must comply with FAA− approved company training as identified in their Operations Specifications. Training includes the requirement for pilots to view the FAA training slide presentation, “Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) Pilot Procedures.” Refer to https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/training/prm/ or search key words “FAA PRM” for additional information and to view or download the slide presentation.
(b) For operations under Part 91:
(1) Pilots operating transport category aircraft must be familiar with PRM operations as contained in this section of the AIM. In addition, pilots operating transport category aircraft must view the slide presentation, “Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) Pilot Procedures.” Refer to https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/training/prm/ or search key words “FAA PRM” for additional information and to view or download the slide presentation.
(2) Pilots not operating transport category aircraft must be familiar with PRM and SOIA operations as contained in this section of the AIM. The FAA strongly recommends that pilots not involved in transport category aircraft operations view the FAA training slide presentation, “Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) Pilot Procedures.” Refer to https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/training/prm/ or search key words “FAA PRM” for additional information and to view or download the slide presentation.
NOTE−Depending on weather conditions, traffic volume, and the specific combination of runways being utilized for arrival operations, a runway may be used for different types of simultaneous operations, including closely spaced dependent or independent approaches. Use PRM procedures only when the ATIS advertises their use. For other types of simultaneous approaches, see paragraphs 5−4−14 and 5−4−15.
c. ATC Directed Breakout. An ATC directed “breakout” is defined as a vector off the final approach course of a threatened aircraft in response to another aircraft penetrating the NTZ.
d. Dual Communications. The aircraft flying the PRM approach must have the capability of enabling the pilot/s to listen to two communications frequencies simultaneously. To avoid blocked transmissions, each runway will have two frequencies, a primary and a PRM monitor frequency. The tower controller will transmit on both frequencies. The monitor controller’s transmissions, if needed, will override both frequencies. Pilots will ONLY transmit on the tower controller’s frequency, but will listen to both frequencies. Select the PRM monitor frequency audio only when instructed by ATC to contact the tower. The volume levels should be set about the same on both radios so that the pilots will be able to hear transmissions on the PRM frequency if the tower is blocked. Site−specific procedures take precedence over the general information presented in this paragraph. Refer to the AAUP for applicable procedures at specific airports.
e. Radar Services.
1. During turn on to parallel final approach, aircraft will be provided 3 miles radar separation or a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical separation. The assigned altitude must be maintained until intercepting the glideslope/glidepath, unless cleared otherwise by ATC. Aircraft will not be vectored to intercept the final approach course at an angle greater than thirty degrees.
2. The final monitor controller will have the capability of overriding the tower controller on the tower frequency as well as transmitting on the PRM frequency.
3. Pilots will be instructed to contact the tower frequency prior to the point where NTZ monitoring begins. Pilots will begin monitoring the secondary PRM frequency at that time (see Dual VHF Communications Required below).
4. To ensure separation is maintained, and in order to avoid an imminent situation during PRM approaches, pilots must immediately comply with monitor controller instructions.
5. Aircraft observed to overshoot the turn or to continue on a track which will penetrate the NTZ will be instructed to return to the correct final approach course immediately. The final monitor controller may cancel the approach clearance, and issue missed approach or other instructions to the deviating aircraft.
PHRASEOLOGY−“(Aircraft call sign) YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE,”
or
“(Aircraft call sign) TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE.”
6. If a deviating aircraft fails to respond to such instructions or is observed penetrating the NTZ, the aircraft on the adjacent final approach course (if threatened) will be issued a breakout instruction.
PHRASEOLOGY−“TRAFFIC ALERT (aircraft call sign) TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY HEADING (degrees), (climb/descend) AND MAINTAIN (altitude).”
7. Radar monitoring will automatically be terminated when visual separation is applied, or the aircraft reports the approach lights or runway in sight or within 1 NM of the runway threshold. Final monitor controllers will not advise pilots when radar monitoring is terminated.
f. Attention All Users Page (AAUP). At airports that conduct PRM operations, the AAUP informs pilots under the “General” section of information relative to all the PRM approaches published at a specific airport, and this section must be briefed in its entirety. Under the “Runway Specific” section, only items relative to the runway to be used for landing need be briefed. (See FIG 5−4−24.) A single AAUP is utilized for multiple PRM approach charts at the same airport, which are listed on the AAUP. The requirement for informing ATC if the pilot is unable to accept a PRM clearance is also presented. The “General” section of AAUP addresses the following:
1. Review of the procedure for executing a climbing or descending breakout;
2. Breakout phraseology beginning with the words, “Traffic Alert;”
3. Descending on the glideslope/glidepath meets all crossing restrictions;
4. Briefing the PRM approach also satisfies the non−PRM approach briefing of the same type of approach to the same runway; and
5. Description of the dual communications procedure.
The “Runway Specific” section of the AAUP addresses those issues which only apply to certain runway ends that utilize PRM approaches. There may be no Runway Specific procedures, a single item applicable to only one runway end, or multiple items for a single or multiple runway end/s. Examples of SOIA runway specific procedures are as follows:
PRM Attention All Users Page (AAUP)
g. Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach (SOIA).
1. SOIA is a procedure used to conduct simultaneous approaches to runways spaced less than 3,000 feet, but at least 750 feet apart. The SOIA procedure utilizes a straight−in PRM approach to one runway, and a PRM offset approach with glideslope/glidepath to the adjacent runway. In SOIA operations, aircraft are paired, with the aircraft conducting the straight−in PRM approach always positioned slightly ahead of the aircraft conducting the offset PRM approach.
2. The straight−in PRM approach plates used in SOIA operations are identical to other straight−in PRM approach plates, with an additional note, which provides the separation between the two runways used for simultaneous SOIA approaches. The offset PRM approach plate displays the required notations for closely spaced approaches as well as depicts the visual segment of the approach.
3. Controllers monitor the SOIA PRM approaches in exactly the same manner as is done for other PRM approaches. The procedures and system requirements for SOIA PRM approaches are identical with those used for simultaneous close parallel PRM approaches until near the offset PRM approach missed approach point (MAP), where visual acquisition of the straight−in aircraft by the aircraft conducting the offset PRM approach occurs. Since SOIA PRM approaches are identical to other PRM approaches (except for the visual segment in the offset approach), an understanding of the procedures for conducting PRM approaches is essential before conducting a SOIA PRM operation.
4. In SOIA, the approach course separation (instead of the runway separation) meets established close parallel approach criteria. (See FIG 5−4−25 for the generic SOIA approach geometry.) A visual segment of the offset PRM approach is established between the offset MAP and the runway threshold. Aircraft transition in visual conditions from the offset course, beginning at the offset MAP, to align with the runway and can be stabilized by 500 feet above ground level (AGL) on the extended runway centerline. A cloud ceiling for the approach is established so that the aircraft conducting the offset approach has nominally at least 30 seconds or more to acquire the leading straight−in aircraft prior to reaching the offset MAP. If visual acquisition is not accomplished prior to crossing the offset MAP, a missed approach must be executed.
5. Flight Management System (FMS) coding of the offset RNAV PRM and GLS PRM approaches in a SOIA operation is different than other RNAV and GLS approach coding in that it does not match the initial missed approach procedure published on the charted IAP. In the SOIA design of the offset approach, lateral course guidance terminates at the fictitious threshold point (FTP), which is an extension of the final approach course beyond the offset MAP to a point near the runway threshold. The FTP is designated in the approach coding as the MAP so that vertical guidance is available to the pilot to the runway threshold, just as vertical guidance is provided by the offset LDA glideslope. No matter what type of offset approach is being conducted, reliance on lateral guidance is discontinued at the charted MAP and replaced by visual maneuvering to accomplish runway alignment.
(a) As a result of this approach coding, when executing a missed approach at and after passing the charted offset MAP, a heading must initially be flown (either hand−flown or using autopilot “heading mode”) before engaging LNAV. If the pilot engages LNAV immediately, the aircraft may continue to track toward the FTP instead of commencing a turn toward the missed approach holding fix. Notes on the charted IAP and in the AAUP make specific reference to this procedure.
(b) Some FMSs do not code waypoints inside of the FAF as part of the approach. Therefore, the depicted MAP on the charted IAP may not be included in the offset approach coding. Pilots utilizing those FMSs may identify the location of the waypoint by noting its distance from the FTP as published on the charted IAP. In those same FMSs, the straight−in SOIA approach will not display a waypoint inside the PFAF. The same procedures may be utilized to identify an uncoded waypoint. In this case, the location is determined by noting its distance from the runway waypoint or using an authorized distance as published on the charted IAP.
(c) Because the FTP is coded as the MAP, the FMS map display will depict the initial missed approach course as beginning at the FTP. This depiction does not match the charted initial missed approach procedure on the IAP. Pilots are reminded that charted IAP guidance is to be followed, not the map display. Once the aircraft completes the initial turn when commencing a missed approach, the remainder of the procedure coding is standard and can be utilized as with any other IAP.
SOIA Approach Geometry
NOTE − SAP |
The stabilized approach point is a design point along the extended centerline of the intended landing runway on the glide slope/glide path at 500 feet above the runway threshold elevation. It is used to verify a sufficient distance is provided for the visual maneuver after the offset course approach DA to permit the pilots to conform to approved, stabilized approach criteria. The SAP is not published on the IAP. |
Offset Course DA |
The point along the LDA, or other offset course, where the course separation with the adjacent ILS, or other straight-in course, reaches the minimum distance permitted to conduct closely spaced approaches. Typically that minimum distance will be 3,000 feet without the use of high update radar; with high update radar, course separation of less than 3,000 ft may be used when validated by a safety study. The altitude of the glide slope/glide path at that point determines the offset course approach decision altitude and is where the NTZ terminates. Maneuvering inside the DA is done in visual conditions. |
Visual Segment Angle |
Angle, as determined by the SOIA design tool, formed by the extension of the straight segment of the calculated flight track (between the offset course MAP/DA and the SAP) and the extended runway centerline. The size of the angle is dependent on the aircraft approach categories (Category D or only selected categories/speeds) that are authorized to use the offset course approach and the spacing between the runways. |
Visibility |
Distance from the offset course approach DA to runway threshold in statute mile. |
Procedure |
The aircraft on the offset course approach must see the runway-landing environment and, if ATC has advised that traffic on the straight-in approach is a factor, the offset course approach aircraft must visually acquire the straight-in approach aircraft and report it in sight to ATC prior to reaching the DA for the offset course approach. |
CC |
The Clear of Clouds point is the position on the offset final approach course where aircraft first operate in visual meteorological conditions below the ceiling, when the actual weather conditions are at, or near, the minimum ceiling for SOIA operations. Ceiling is defined by the Aeronautical Information Manual. |
6. SOIA PRM approaches utilize the same dual communications procedures as do other PRM approaches.
NOTE−At KSFO, pilots conducting SOIA operations select the monitor frequency audio when communicating with the final radar controller, not the tower controller as is customary. In this special case, the monitor controller’s transmissions, if required, override the final controller’s frequency. This procedure is addressed on the AAUP.
(a) SOIA utilizes the same AAUP format as do other PRM approaches. The minimum weather conditions that are required are listed. Because of the more complex nature of instructions for conducting SOIA approaches, the “Runway Specific” items are more numerous and lengthy.
(b) Examples of SOIA offset runway specific notes:
(1) Aircraft must remain on the offset course until passing the offset MAP prior to maneuvering to align with the centerline of the offset approach runway.
(2) Pilots are authorized to continue past the offset MAP to align with runway centerline when:
[a] the straight−in approach traffic is in sight and is expected to remain in sight,
[b] ATC has been advised that “traffic is in sight.” (ATC is not required to acknowledge this transmission),
[c] the runway environment is in sight. Otherwise, a missed approach must be executed. Between the offset MAP and the runway threshold, pilots conducting the offset PRM approach must not pass the straight−in aircraft and are responsible for separating themselves visually from traffic conducting the straight−in PRM approach to the adjacent runway, which means maneuvering the aircraft as necessary to avoid that traffic until landing, and providing wake turbulence avoidance, if applicable. Pilots maintaining visual separation should advise ATC, as soon as practical, if visual contact with the aircraft conducting the straight−in PRM approach is lost and execute a missed approach unless otherwise instructed by ATC.
(c) Examples of SOIA straight−in runway specific notes:
(1) To facilitate the offset aircraft in providing wake mitigation, pilots should descend on, not above, the glideslope/glidepath.
(2) Conducting the straight−in approach, pilots should be aware that the aircraft conducting the offset approach will be approaching from the right/left rear and will be operating in close proximity to the straight−in aircraft.
7. Recap. The following are differences between widely spaced simultaneous approaches (at least 4,300 feet between the runway centerlines) and Simultaneous PRM close parallel approaches which are of importance to the pilot:
(a) Runway Spacing. Prior to PRM simultaneous close parallel approaches, most ATC−directed breakouts were the result of two aircraft in−trail on the same final approach course getting too close together. Two aircraft going in the same direction did not mandate quick reaction times. With PRM closely spaced approaches, two aircraft could be alongside each other, navigating on courses that are separated by less than 4,300 feet and as close as 3,000 feet. In the unlikely event that an aircraft “blunders” off its course and makes a worst case turn of 30 degrees toward the adjacent final approach course, closing speeds of 135 feet per second could occur that constitute the need for quick reaction. A blunder has to be recognized by the monitor controller, and breakout instructions issued to the endangered aircraft. The pilot will not have any warning that a breakout is imminent because the blundering aircraft will be on another frequency. It is important that, when a pilot receives breakout instructions, the assumption is made that a blundering aircraft is about to (or has penetrated the NTZ) and is heading toward his/her approach course. The pilot must initiate a breakout as soon as safety allows. While conducting PRM approaches, pilots must maintain an increased sense of awareness in order to immediately react to an ATC (breakout) instruction and maneuver (as instructed by ATC) away from a blundering aircraft.
(b) Communications. Dual VHF communications procedures should be carefully followed. One of the assumptions made that permits the safe conduct of PRM approaches is that there will be no blocked communications.
(c) Hand−flown Breakouts. The use of the autopilot is encouraged while flying a PRM approach, but the autopilot must be disengaged in the rare event that a breakout is issued. Simulation studies of breakouts have shown that a hand−flown breakout can be initiated consistently faster than a breakout performed using the autopilot.
(d) TCAS. The ATC breakout instruction is the primary means of conflict resolution. TCAS, if installed, provides another form of conflict resolution in the unlikely event other separation standards would fail. TCAS is not required to conduct a closely spaced approach.
The TCAS provides only vertical resolution of aircraft conflicts, while the ATC breakout instruction provides both vertical and horizontal guidance for conflict resolutions. Pilots should always immediately follow the TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), whenever it is received. Should a TCAS RA be received before, during, or after an ATC breakout instruction is issued, the pilot should follow the RA, even if it conflicts with the climb/descent portion of the breakout maneuver. If following an RA requires deviating from an ATC clearance, the pilot must advise ATC as soon as practical. While following an RA, it is extremely important that the pilot also comply with the turn portion of the ATC breakout instruction unless the pilot determines safety to be factor. Adhering to these procedures assures the pilot that acceptable “breakout” separation margins will always be provided, even in the face of a normal procedural or system failure.
5−4−17. Simultaneous Converging Instrument Approaches
a. ATC may conduct instrument approaches simultaneously to converging runways; i.e., runways having an included angle from 15 to 100 degrees, at airports where a program has been specifically approved to do so.
b. The basic concept requires that dedicated, separate standard instrument approach procedures be developed for each converging runway included. These approaches can be identified by the letter “V” in the title; for example, “ILS V Rwy 17 (CONVERGING)”. Missed Approach Points must be at least 3 miles apart and missed approach procedures ensure that missed approach protected airspace does not overlap.
c. Other requirements are: radar availability, nonintersecting final approach courses, precision approach capability for each runway and, if runways intersect, controllers must be able to apply visual separation as well as intersecting runway separation criteria. Intersecting runways also require minimums of at least 700 foot ceilings and 2 miles visibility. Straight in approaches and landings must be made.
d. Whenever simultaneous converging approaches are in use, aircraft will be informed by the controller as soon as feasible after initial contact or via ATIS. Additionally, the radar controller will have direct communications capability with the tower controller where separation responsibility has not been delegated to the tower.
5−4−18. RNP AR Instrument Approach Procedures
These procedures require authorization analogous to the special authorization required for Category II or III ILS procedures. Authorization required (AR) procedures are to be conducted by aircrews meeting special training requirements in aircraft that meet the specified performance and functional requirements.
a. Unique characteristics of RNP AR Approaches
1. RNP value. Each published line of minima has an associated RNP value. The indicated value defines the lateral and vertical performance requirements. A minimum RNP type is documented as part of the RNP AR authorization for each operator and may vary depending on aircraft configuration or operational procedures (e.g., GPS inoperative, use of flight director vice autopilot).
2. Curved path procedures. Some RNP approaches have a curved path, also called a radius−to−a−fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have the capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible for knowing if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc or not. Aircraft speeds, winds and bank angles have been taken into consideration in the development of the procedures.
3. RNP required for extraction or not. Where required, the missed approach procedure may use RNP values less than RNP−1. The reliability of the navigation system has to be very high in order to conduct these approaches. Operation on these procedures generally requires redundant equipment, as no single point of failure can cause loss of both approach and missed approach navigation.
4. Non−standard speeds or climb gradients. RNP AR approaches are developed based on standard approach speeds and a 200 ft/NM climb gradient in the missed approach. Any exceptions to these standards will be indicated on the approach procedure, and the operator should ensure they can comply with any published restrictions before conducting the operation.
5. Temperature Limits. For aircraft using barometric vertical navigation (without temperature compensation) to conduct the approach, low and high−temperature limits are identified on the procedure. Cold temperatures reduce the glidepath angle while high temperatures increase the glidepath angle. Aircraft using baro VNAV with temperature compensation or aircraft using an alternate means for vertical guidance (e.g., SBAS) may disregard the temperature restrictions. The charted temperature limits are evaluated for the final approach segment only. Regardless of charted temperature limits or temperature compensation by the FMS, the pilot may need to manually compensate for cold temperature on minimum altitudes and the decision altitude.
6. Aircraft size. The achieved minimums may be dependent on aircraft size. Large aircraft may require higher minimums due to gear height and/or wingspan. Approach procedure charts will be annotated with applicable aircraft size restrictions.
b. Types of RNP AR Approach Operations
1. RNP Stand−alone Approach Operations. RNP AR procedures can provide access to runways regardless of the ground−based NAVAID infrastructure, and can be designed to avoid obstacles, terrain, airspace, or resolve environmental constraints.
2. RNP Parallel Approach (RPA) Operations. RNP AR procedures can be used for parallel approaches where the runway separation is adequate (See FIG 5−4−26). Parallel approach procedures can be used either simultaneously or as stand−alone operations. They may be part of either independent or dependent operations depending on the ATC ability to provide radar monitoring.
3. RNP Parallel Approach Runway Transitions (RPAT) Operations. RPAT approaches begin as a parallel IFR approach operation using simultaneous independent or dependent procedures. (See FIG 5−4−27). Visual separation standards are used in the final segment of the approach after the final approach fix, to permit the RPAT aircraft to transition in visual conditions along a predefined lateral and vertical path to align with the runway centerline.
4. RNP Converging Runway Operations. At airports where runways converge, but may or may not intersect, an RNP AR approach can provide a precise curved missed approach path that conforms to aircraft separation minimums for simultaneous operations (See FIG 5−4−28). By flying this curved missed approach path with high accuracy and containment provided by RNP, dual runway operations may continue to be used to lower ceiling and visibility values than currently available. This type of operation allows greater capacity at airports where it can be applied.
5−4−19. Side−step Maneuver
a. ATC may authorize a standard instrument approach procedure which serves either one of parallel runways that are separated by 1,200 feet or less followed by a straight−in landing on the adjacent runway.
b. Aircraft that will execute a side−step maneuver will be cleared for a specified approach procedure and landing on the adjacent parallel runway. Example, “cleared ILS runway 7 left approach, side−step to runway 7 right.” Pilots are expected to commence the side−step maneuver as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. Compliance with minimum altitudes associated with stepdown fixes is expected even after the side−step maneuver is initiated.
NOTE−Side−step minima are flown to a Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) regardless of the approach authorized.
c. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be based on nonprecision criteria and therefore higher than the precision minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
5−4−20. Approach and Landing Minimums
a. Landing Minimums. The rules applicable to landing minimums are contained in 14 CFR Section 91.175. TBL 5−4−1 may be used to convert RVR to ground or flight visibility. For converting RVR values that fall between listed values, use the next higher RVR value; do not interpolate. For example, when converting 1800 RVR, use 2400 RVR with the resultant visibility of 1/2 mile.
b. Obstacle Clearance. Final approach obstacle clearance is provided from the start of the final segment to the runway or missed approach point, whichever occurs last. Side−step obstacle protection is provided by increasing the width of the final approach obstacle clearance area.
RVR Value Conversions
RVR |
Visibility (statute miles) |
1600 |
¼ |
2400 |
½ |
3200 |
⅝ |
4000 |
¾ |
4500 |
⅞ |
5000 |
1 |
6000 |
1 ¼ |
1. Circling approach protected areas are defined by the tangential connection of arcs drawn from each runway end (see FIG 5−4−29). Circling approach protected areas developed prior to late 2012 used fixed radius distances, dependent on aircraft approach category, as shown in the table on page B2 of the U.S. TPP. The approaches using standard circling approach areas can be identified by the absence of the “negative C” symbol on the circling line of minima. Circling approach protected areas developed after late 2012 use the radius distance shown in the table on page B2 of the U.S. TPP, dependent on aircraft approach category, and the altitude of the circling MDA, which accounts for true airspeed increase with altitude. The approaches using expanded circling approach areas can be identified by the presence of the “negative C” symbol on the circling line of minima (see FIG 5−4−30). Because of obstacles near the airport, a portion of the circling area may be restricted by a procedural note; for example, “Circling NA E of RWY 17−35.” Obstacle clearance is provided at the published minimums (MDA) for the pilot who makes a straight−in approach, side−steps, or circles. Once below the MDA the pilot must see and avoid obstacles. Executing the missed approach after starting to maneuver usually places the aircraft beyond the MAP. The aircraft is clear of obstacles when at or above the MDA while inside the circling area, but simply joining the missed approach ground track from the circling maneuver may not provide vertical obstacle clearance once the aircraft exits the circling area. Additional climb inside the circling area may be required before joining the missed approach track. See Paragraph 5−4−21, Missed Approach, for additional considerations when starting a missed approach at other than the MAP.
Final Approach Obstacle Clearance
NOTE−Circling approach area radii vary according to approach category and MSL circling altitude due to TAS changes − see FIG 5−4−30.
Standard and Expanded Circling Approach Radii in the U.S. TPP
2. Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ). A volume of airspace above an area beginning at the runway threshold, at the threshold elevation, and centered on the extended runway centerline. The POFZ is 200 feet (60m) long and 800 feet (240m) wide. The POFZ must be clear when an aircraft on a vertically guided final approach is within 2 nautical miles of the runway threshold and the official weather observation is a ceiling below 250 feet or visibility less than 3/4 statute mile (SM) (or runway visual range below 4,000 feet). If the POFZ is not clear, the MINIMUM authorized height above touchdown (HAT) and visibility is 250 feet and 3/4 SM. The POFZ is considered clear even if the wing of the aircraft holding on a taxiway waiting for runway clearance penetrates the POFZ; however, neither the fuselage nor the tail may infringe on the POFZ. The POFZ is applicable at all runway ends including displaced thresholds.
Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ)
c. Straight−in Minimums are shown on the IAP when the final approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway alignment (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) and a normal descent can be made from the IFR altitude shown on the IAP to the runway surface. When either the normal rate of descent or the runway alignment factor of 30 degrees (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) is exceeded, a straight−in minimum is not published and a circling minimum applies. The fact that a straight−in minimum is not published does not preclude pilots from landing straight−in if they have the active runway in sight and have sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing. Under such conditions and when ATC has cleared them for landing on that runway, pilots are not expected to circle even though only circling minimums are published. If they desire to circle, they should advise ATC.
d. Side−Step Maneuver Minimums. Landing minimums for a side−step maneuver to the adjacent runway will normally be higher than the minimums to the primary runway.
e. Published Approach Minimums. Approach minimums are published for different aircraft categories and consist of a minimum altitude (DA, DH, MDA) and required visibility. These minimums are determined by applying the appropriate TERPS criteria. When a fix is incorporated in a nonprecision final segment, two sets of minimums may be published: one for the pilot that is able to identify the fix, and a second for the pilot that cannot. Two sets of minimums may also be published when a second altimeter source is used in the procedure. When a nonprecision procedure incorporates both a stepdown fix in the final segment and a second altimeter source, two sets of minimums are published to account for the stepdown fix and a note addresses minimums for the second altimeter source.
f. Circling Minimums. In some busy terminal areas, ATC may not allow circling and circling minimums will not be published. Published circling minimums provide obstacle clearance when pilots remain within the appropriate area of protection. Pilots should remain at or above the circling altitude until the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. Circling may require maneuvers at low altitude, at low airspeed, and in marginal weather conditions. Pilots must use sound judgment, have an indepth knowledge of their capabilities, and fully understand the aircraft performance to determine the exact circling maneuver since weather, unique airport design, and the aircraft position, altitude, and airspeed must all be considered. The following basic rules apply:
1. Maneuver the shortest path to the base or downwind leg, as appropriate, considering existing weather conditions. There is no restriction from passing over the airport or other runways.
2. It should be recognized that circling maneuvers may be made while VFR or other flying is in progress at the airport. Standard left turns or specific instruction from the controller for maneuvering must be considered when circling to land.
3. At airports without a control tower, it may be desirable to fly over the airport to observe wind and turn indicators and other traffic which may be on the runway or flying in the vicinity of the airport.
REFERENCE−AC 90−66A, Recommended Standards Traffic patterns for Aeronautical Operations at Airports without Operating Control Towers.
4. The missed approach point (MAP) varies depending upon the approach flown. For vertically guided approaches, the MAP is at the decision altitude/decision height. Non−vertically guided and circling procedures share the same MAP and the pilot determines this MAP by timing from the final approach fix, by a fix, a NAVAID, or a waypoint. Circling from a GLS, an ILS without a localizer line of minima or an RNAV (GPS) approach without an LNAV line of minima is prohibited.
g. Instrument Approach at a Military Field. When instrument approaches are conducted by civil aircraft at military airports, they must be conducted in accordance with the procedures and minimums approved by the military agency having jurisdiction over the airport.
5−4−21. Missed Approach
a. When a landing cannot be accomplished, advise ATC and, upon reaching the missed approach point defined on the approach procedure chart, the pilot must comply with the missed approach instructions for the procedure being used or with an alternate missed approach procedure specified by ATC.
b. Obstacle protection for missed approach is predicated on the missed approach being initiated at the decision altitude/decision height (DA/DH) or at the missed approach point and not lower than minimum descent altitude (MDA). A climb gradient of at least 200 feet per nautical mile is required, (except for Copter approaches, where a climb of at least 400 feet per nautical mile is required), unless a higher climb gradient is published in the notes section of the approach procedure chart. When higher than standard climb gradients are specified, the end point of the non−standard climb will be specified at either an altitude or a fix. Pilots must preplan to ensure that the aircraft can meet the climb gradient (expressed in feet per nautical mile) required by the procedure in the event of a missed approach, and be aware that flying at a higher than anticipated ground speed increases the climb rate requirement (feet per minute). Tables for the conversion of climb gradients (feet per nautical mile) to climb rate (feet per minute), based on ground speed, are included on page D1 of the U.S. Terminal Procedures booklets. Reasonable buffers are provided for normal maneuvers. However, no consideration is given to an abnormally early turn. Therefore, when an early missed approach is executed, pilots should, unless otherwise cleared by ATC, fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
c. If visual reference is lost while circling−to−land from an instrument approach, the missed approach specified for that particular procedure must be followed (unless an alternate missed approach procedure is specified by ATC). To become established on the prescribed missed approach course, the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. Inasmuch as the circling maneuver may be accomplished in more than one direction, different patterns will be required to become established on the prescribed missed approach course, depending on the aircraft position at the time visual reference is lost. Adherence to the procedure will help assure that an aircraft will remain laterally within the circling and missed approach obstruction clearance areas. Refer to paragraph h concerning vertical obstruction clearance when starting a missed approach at other than the MAP. (See FIG 5−4−32.)
d. At locations where ATC radar service is provided, the pilot should conform to radar vectors when provided by ATC in lieu of the published missed approach procedure. (See FIG 5−4−33.)
e. Some locations may have a preplanned alternate missed approach procedure for use in the event the primary NAVAID used for the missed approach procedure is unavailable. To avoid confusion, the alternate missed approach instructions are not published on the chart. However, the alternate missed approach holding pattern will be depicted on the instrument approach chart for pilot situational awareness and to assist ATC by not having to issue detailed holding instructions. The alternate missed approach may be based on NAVAIDs not used in the approach procedure or the primary missed approach. When the alternate missed approach procedure is implemented by NOTAM, it becomes a mandatory part of the procedure. The NOTAM will specify both the textual instructions and any additional equipment requirements necessary to complete the procedure. Air traffic may also issue instructions for the alternate missed approach when necessary, such as when the primary missed approach NAVAID fails during the approach. Pilots may reject an ATC clearance for an alternate missed approach that requires equipment not necessary for the published approach procedure when the alternate missed approach is issued after beginning the approach. However, when the alternate missed approach is issued prior to beginning the approach the pilot must either accept the entire procedure (including the alternate missed approach), request a different approach procedure, or coordinate with ATC for alternative action to be taken, i.e., proceed to an alternate airport, etc.
f. When approach has been missed, request clearance for specific action; i.e., to alternative airport, another approach, etc.
g. Pilots must ensure that they have climbed to a safe altitude prior to proceeding off the published missed approach, especially in nonradar environments. Abandoning the missed approach prior to reaching the published altitude may not provide adequate terrain clearance. Additional climb may be required after reaching the holding pattern before proceeding back to the IAF or to an alternate.
h. A clearance for an instrument approach procedure includes a clearance to fly the published missed approach procedure, unless otherwise instructed by ATC. The published missed approach procedure provides obstacle clearance only when the missed approach is conducted on the missed approach segment from or above the missed approach point, and assumes a climb rate of 200 feet/NM or higher, as published. If the aircraft initiates a missed approach at a point other than the missed approach point (see paragraph 5−4−5b), from below MDA or DA (H), or on a circling approach, obstacle clearance is not necessarily provided by following the published missed approach procedure, nor is separation assured from other air traffic in the vicinity.
Circling and Missed Approach Obstruction
Clearance Areas
Missed Approach
In the event a balked (rejected) landing occurs at a position other than the published missed approach point, the pilot should contact ATC as soon as possible to obtain an amended clearance. If unable to contact ATC for any reason, the pilot should attempt to re−intercept a published segment of the missed approach and comply with route and altitude instructions. If unable to contact ATC, and in the pilot’s judgment it is no longer appropriate to fly the published missed approach procedure, then consider either maintaining visual conditions if practicable and reattempt a landing, or a circle−climb over the airport. Should a missed approach become necessary when operating to an airport that is not served by an operating control tower, continuous contact with an air traffic facility may not be possible. In this case, the pilot should execute the appropriate go−around/missed approach procedure without delay and contact ATC when able to do so.
Prior to initiating an instrument approach procedure, the pilot should assess the actions to be taken in the event of a balked (rejected) landing beyond the missed approach point or below the MDA or DA (H) considering the anticipated weather conditions and available aircraft performance. 14 CFR 91.175(e) authorizes the pilot to fly an appropriate missed approach procedure that ensures obstruction clearance, but it does not necessarily consider separation from other air traffic. The pilot must consider other factors such as the aircraft’s geographical location with respect to the prescribed missed approach point, direction of flight, and/or minimum turning altitudes in the prescribed missed approach procedure. The pilot must also consider aircraft performance, visual climb restrictions, charted obstacles, published obstacle departure procedure, takeoff visual climb requirements as expressed by nonstandard takeoff minima, other traffic expected to be in the vicinity, or other factors not specifically expressed by the approach procedures.
5−4−22. Use of Enhanced Flight Vision Systems (EFVS) on Instrument Approaches
a. Introduction. During an instrument approach, an EFVS can enable a pilot to see the approach lights, visual references associated with the runway environment, and other objects or features that might not be visible using natural vision alone. An EFVS uses a head−up display (HUD), or an equivalent display that is a head−up presentation, to combine flight information, flight symbology, navigation guidance, and a real−time image of the external scene to the pilot. Combining the flight information, navigation guidance, and sensor imagery on a HUD (or equivalent display) allows the pilot to continue looking forward along the flightpath throughout the entire approach, landing, and rollout.
An EFVS operation is an operation in which visibility conditions require an EFVS to be used in lieu of natural vision to perform an approach or landing, determine enhanced flight visibility, identify required visual references, or conduct a rollout. There are two types of EFVS operations:
1. EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout.
2. EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE).
b. EFVS Operations to Touchdown and Rollout. An EFVS operation to touchdown and rollout is an operation in which the pilot uses the enhanced vision imagery provided by an EFVS in lieu of natural vision to descend below DA or DH to touchdown and rollout. (See FIG 5−4−34.) These operations may be conducted only on Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAP) or special IAPs that have a DA or DH (for example, precision or APV approach). An EFVS operation to touchdown and rollout may not be conducted on an approach that has circling minimums. The regulations for EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout can be found in 14 CFR § 91.176(a).
c. EFVS Operations to 100 Feet Above the TDZE. An EFVS operation to 100 feet above the TDZE is an operation in which the pilot uses the enhanced vision imagery provided by an EFVS in lieu of natural vision to descend below DA/DH or MDA down to 100 feet above the TDZE. (See FIG 5−4−35.) To continue the approach below 100 feet above the TDZE, a pilot must have sufficient flight visibility to identify the required visual references using natural vision and must continue to use the EFVS to ensure the enhanced flight visibility meets the visibility requirements of the IAP being flown. These operations may be conducted on SIAPs or special IAPs that have a DA/DH or MDA. An EFVS operation to 100 feet above the TDZE may not be conducted on an approach that has circling minimums. The regulations for EFVS operations to 100 feet above the TDZE can be found in 14 CFR § 91.176(b).
d. EFVS Equipment Requirements. An EFVS that is installed on a U.S.−registered aircraft and is used to conduct EFVS operations must conform to an FAA−type design approval (i.e., a type certificate (TC), amended TC, or supplemental type certificate (STC)). A foreign−registered aircraft used to conduct EFVS operations that does not have an FAA−type design approval must be equipped with an EFVS that has been approved by either the State of the Operator or the State of Registry to meet the requirements of ICAO Annex 6. Equipment requirements for an EFVS operation to touchdown and rollout can be found in 14 CFR § 91.176(a)(1), and the equipment requirements for an EFVS operation to 100 feet above the TDZE can be found in 14 CFR § 91.176(b)(1). An operator can determine the eligibility of their aircraft to conduct EFVS operations by referring to the Airplane Flight Manual, Airplane Flight Manual Supplement, Rotorcraft Flight Manual, or Rotorcraft Flight Manual Supplement as applicable.
EFVS Operation to Touchdown and Rollout
EFVS Operation to 100 ft Above the TDZE
e. Operating Requirements. Any operator who conducts EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout (14 CFR § 91.176(a)) must have an OpSpec, MSpec, or LOA that specifically authorizes those operations. Parts 91K, 121, 125, 129, and 135 operators who conduct EFVS operations to 100 feet above the TDZE (14 CFR § 91.176(b)) must have an OpSpec, MSpec, or LOA that specifically authorizes the operation. Part 91 operators (other than 91K operators) are not required to have an LOA to conduct EFVS operations to 100 feet above the TDZE in the United States. However, an optional LOA is available to facilitate operational approval from foreign Civil Aviation Authorities (CAA). To conduct an EFVS operation to touchdown and rollout during an authorized Category II or III operation, the operator must have:
1. An OpSpec, MSpec, or LOA authorizing EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout (14 CFR § 91.176(a)); and
2. An OpSpec, MSpec, or LOA authorizing Category II or Category III operations.
f. EFVS Operations in Rotorcraft. Currently, EFVS operations in rotorcraft can only be conducted on IAPs that are flown to a runway. Instrument approach criteria, procedures, and appropriate visual references have not yet been developed for straight−in landing operations below DA/DH or MDA under IFR to heliports or platforms. An EFVS cannot be used in lieu of natural vision to descend below published minimums on copter approaches to a point in space (PinS) followed by a “proceed visual flight rules (VFR)” visual segment, or on approaches designed to a specific landing site using a “proceed visually” visual segment.
g. EFVS Pilot Requirements. A pilot who conducts EFVS operations must receive ground and flight training specific to the EFVS operation to be conducted. The training must be obtained from an authorized training provider under a training program approved by the FAA. Additionally, recent flight experience and proficiency or competency check requirements apply to EFVS operations. These requirements are addressed in 14 CFR §§ 61.66, 91.1065, 121.441, Appendix F to Part 121, 125.287, and 135.293.
h. Enhanced Flight Visibility and Visual Reference Requirements. To descend below DA/DH or MDA during EFVS operations under 14 CFR § 91.176(a) or (b), a pilot must make a determination that the enhanced flight visibility observed by using an EFVS is not less than what is prescribed by the IAP being flown. In addition, the visual references required in 14 CFR § 91.176(a) or (b) must be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot using the EFVS. The determination of enhanced flight visibility is a separate action from that of identifying required visual references, and is different from ground−reported visibility. Even though the reported visibility or the visibility observed using natural vision may be less, as long as the EFVS provides the required enhanced flight visibility and a pilot meets all of the other requirements, the pilot can continue descending below DA/DH or MDA using the EFVS. Suitable enhanced flight visibility is necessary to ensure the aircraft is in a position to continue the approach and land. It is important to understand that using an EFVS does not result in obtaining lower minima with respect to the visibility or the DA/DH or MDA specified in the IAP. An EFVS simply provides another means of operating in the visual segment of an IAP. The DA/DH or MDA and the visibility value specified in the IAP to be flown do not change.
i. Flight Planning and Beginning or Continuing an Approach Under IFR. A Part 121, 125, or 135 operator’s OpSpec or LOA for EFVS operations may authorize an EFVS operational credit dispatching or releasing a flight and for beginning or continuing an instrument approach procedure. When a pilot reaches DA/DH or MDA, the pilot conducts the EFVS operation in accordance with 14 CFR § 91.176(a) or (b) and their authorization to conduct EFVS operations.
j. Missed Approach Considerations. In order to conduct an EFVS operation, the EFVS must be operable. In the event of a failure of any required component of an EFVS at any point in the approach to touchdown, a missed approach is required. However, this provision does not preclude a pilot’s authority to continue an approach if continuation of an approach is considered by the pilot to be a safer course of action.
k. Light Emitting Diode (LED) Airport Lighting Impact on EFVS Operations. Incandescent lamps are being replaced with LEDs at some airports in threshold lights, taxiway edge lights, taxiway centerline lights, low intensity runway edge lights, windcone lights, beacons, and some obstruction lighting. Additionally, there are plans to replace incandescent lamps with LEDs in approach lighting systems. Pilots should be aware that LED lights cannot be sensed by infrared−based EFVSs. Further, the FAA does not currently collect or disseminate information about where LED lighting is installed.
l. Other Vision Systems. Unlike an EFVS that meets the equipment requirements of 14 CFR § 91.176, a Synthetic Vision System (SVS) or Synthetic Vision Guidance System (SVGS) does not provide a real−time sensor image of the outside scene and also does not meet the equipment requirements for EFVS operations. A pilot cannot use a synthetic vision image on a head−up or a head−down display in lieu of natural vision to descend below DA/DH or MDA. An EFVS can, however, be integrated with an SVS, also known as a Combined Vision System (CVS). A CVS can be used to conduct EFVS operations if all of the requirements for an EFVS are satisfied and the SVS image does not interfere with the pilot’s ability to see the external scene, to identify the required visual references, or to see the sensor image.
m. Additional Information. Operational criteria for EFVS can be found in Advisory Circular (AC) 90−106, Enhanced Flight Vision System Operations, and airworthiness criteria for EFVS can be found in AC 20−167, Airworthiness Approval of Enhanced Vision System, Synthetic Vision System, Combined Vision System, and Enhanced Flight Vision System Equipment.
5−4−23. Visual Approach
a. A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight. This approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate air traffic control facility. Reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater. ATC may authorize this type of approach when it will be operationally beneficial. Visual approaches are an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in visual meteorological conditions. Cloud clearance requirements of 14 CFR Section 91.155 are not applicable, unless required by operation specifications. When conducting visual approaches, pilots are encouraged to use other available navigational aids to assist in positive lateral and vertical alignment with the runway.
b. Operating to an Airport Without Weather Reporting Service. ATC will advise the pilot when weather is not available at the destination airport. ATC may initiate a visual approach provided there is a reasonable assurance that weather at the airport is a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater (e.g., area weather reports, PIREPs, etc.).
c. Operating to an Airport With an Operating Control Tower. Aircraft may be authorized to conduct a visual approach to one runway while other aircraft are conducting IFR or VFR approaches to another parallel, intersecting, or converging runway. When operating to airports with parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet, the succeeding aircraft must report sighting the preceding aircraft unless standard separation is being provided by ATC. When operating to parallel runways separated by at least 2,500 feet but less than 4,300 feet, controllers will clear/vector aircraft to the final at an angle not greater than 30 degrees unless radar, vertical, or visual separation is provided during the turn−on. The purpose of the 30 degree intercept angle is to reduce the potential for overshoots of the final and to preclude side−by−side operations with one or both aircraft in a belly−up configuration during the turn−on. Once the aircraft are established within 30 degrees of final, or on the final, these operations may be conducted simultaneously. When the parallel runways are separated by 4,300 feet or more, or intersecting/converging runways are in use, ATC may authorize a visual approach after advising all aircraft involved that other aircraft are conducting operations to the other runway. This may be accomplished through use of the ATIS.
d. Separation Responsibilities. If the pilot has the airport in sight but cannot see the aircraft to be followed, ATC may clear the aircraft for a visual approach; however, ATC retains both separation and wake vortex separation responsibility. When visually following a preceding aircraft, acceptance of the visual approach clearance constitutes acceptance of pilot responsibility for maintaining a safe approach interval and adequate wake turbulence separation.
e. A visual approach is not an IAP and therefore has no missed approach segment. If a go around is necessary for any reason, aircraft operating at controlled airports will be issued an appropriate advisory/clearance/instruction by the tower. At uncontrolled airports, aircraft are expected to remain clear of clouds and complete a landing as soon as possible. If a landing cannot be accomplished, the aircraft is expected to remain clear of clouds and contact ATC as soon as possible for further clearance. Separation from other IFR aircraft will be maintained under these circumstances.
f. Visual approaches reduce pilot/controller workload and expedite traffic by shortening flight paths to the airport. It is the pilot’s responsibility to advise ATC as soon as possible if a visual approach is not desired.
g. Authorization to conduct a visual approach is an IFR authorization and does not alter IFR flight plan cancellation responsibility.
REFERENCE−AIM Paragraph 5−1−15, Canceling IFR Flight Plan
h. Radar service is automatically terminated, without advising the pilot, when the aircraft is instructed to change to advisory frequency.
5−4−24. Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP)
a. CVFPs are charted visual approaches established for environmental/noise considerations, and/or when necessary for the safety and efficiency of air traffic operations. The approach charts depict prominent landmarks, courses, and recommended altitudes to specific runways. CVFPs are designed to be used primarily for turbojet aircraft.
b. These procedures will be used only at airports with an operating control tower.
c. Most approach charts will depict some NAVAID information which is for supplemental navigational guidance only.
d. Unless indicating a Class B airspace floor, all depicted altitudes are for noise abatement purposes and are recommended only. Pilots are not prohibited from flying other than recommended altitudes if operational requirements dictate.
e. When landmarks used for navigation are not visible at night, the approach will be annotated “PROCEDURE NOT AUTHORIZED AT NIGHT.”
f. CVFPs usually begin within 20 flying miles from the airport.
g. Published weather minimums for CVFPs are based on minimum vectoring altitudes rather than the recommended altitudes depicted on charts.
h. CVFPs are not instrument approaches and do not have missed approach segments.
i. ATC will not issue clearances for CVFPs when the weather is less than the published minimum.
j. ATC will clear aircraft for a CVFP after the pilot reports siting a charted landmark or a preceding aircraft. If instructed to follow a preceding aircraft, pilots are responsible for maintaining a safe approach interval and wake turbulence separation.
k. Pilots should advise ATC if at any point they are unable to continue an approach or lose sight of a preceding aircraft. Missed approaches will be handled as a go−around.
l. When conducting visual approaches, pilots are encouraged to use other available navigational aids to assist in positive lateral and vertical alignment with the assigned runway.
5−4−25. Contact Approach
a. Pilots operating in accordance with an IFR flight plan, provided they are clear of clouds and have at least 1 mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach.
b. Controllers may authorize a contact approach provided:
1. The contact approach is specifically requested by the pilot. ATC cannot initiate this approach.
EXAMPLE− Request contact approach.
2. The reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 statute mile.
3. The contact approach will be made to an airport having a standard or special instrument approach procedure.
4. Approved separation is applied between aircraft so cleared and between these aircraft and other IFR or special VFR aircraft.
EXAMPLE−Cleared contact approach (and, if required) at or below (altitude) (routing) if not possible (alternative procedures) and advise.
c. A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used by a pilot (with prior authorization from ATC) in lieu of conducting a standard or special IAP to an airport. It is not intended for use by a pilot on an IFR flight clearance to operate to an airport not having a published and functioning IAP. Nor is it intended for an aircraft to conduct an instrument approach to one airport and then, when “in the clear,” discontinue that approach and proceed to another airport. In the execution of a contact approach, the pilot assumes the responsibility for obstruction clearance. If radar service is being received, it will automatically terminate when the pilot is instructed to change to advisory frequency.
5−4−26. Landing Priority
A clearance for a specific type of approach (ILS, RNAV, GLS, ADF, VOR or Visual Approach) to an aircraft operating on an IFR flight plan does not mean that landing priority will be given over other traffic. ATCTs handle all aircraft, regardless of the type of flight plan, on a “first−come, first−served” basis. Therefore, because of local traffic or runway in use, it may be necessary for the controller in the interest of safety, to provide a different landing sequence. In any case, a landing sequence will be issued to each aircraft as soon as possible to enable the pilot to properly adjust the aircraft’s flight path.
5−4−27. Overhead Approach Maneuver
a. Pilots operating in accordance with an IFR flight plan in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) may request ATC authorization for an overhead maneuver. An overhead maneuver is not an instrument approach procedure. Overhead maneuver patterns are developed at airports where aircraft have an operational need to conduct the maneuver. An aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver is considered to be VFR and the IFR flight plan is canceled when the aircraft reaches the initial point on the initial approach portion of the maneuver. (See FIG 5−4−36.) The existence of a standard overhead maneuver pattern does not eliminate the possible requirement for an aircraft to conform to conventional rectangular patterns if an overhead maneuver cannot be approved. Aircraft operating to an airport without a functioning control tower must initiate cancellation of an IFR flight plan prior to executing the overhead maneuver. Cancellation of the IFR flight plan must be accomplished after crossing the landing threshold on the initial portion of the maneuver or after landing. Controllers may authorize an overhead maneuver and issue the following to arriving aircraft:
1. Pattern altitude and direction of traffic. This information may be omitted if either is standard.
PHRASEOLOGY−PATTERN ALTITUDE (altitude). RIGHT TURNS.
2. Request for a report on initial approach.
PHRASEOLOGY−REPORT INITIAL.
3. “Break” information and a request for the pilot to report. The “Break Point” will be specified if nonstandard. Pilots may be requested to report “break” if required for traffic or other reasons.
PHRASEOLOGY−BREAK AT (specified point).
REPORT BREAK.
Overhead Maneuver
Section 5. Pilot/Controller Roles and Responsibilities
5−5−1. General
a. The roles and responsibilities of the pilot and controller for effective participation in the ATC system are contained in several documents. Pilot responsibilities are in the CFRs and the air traffic controllers’ are in the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control, and supplemental FAA directives. Additional and supplemental information for pilots can be found in the current Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM), Notices to Airmen, Advisory Circulars and aeronautical charts. Since there are many other excellent publications produced by nongovernment organizations, as well as other government organizations, with various updating cycles, questions concerning the latest or most current material can be resolved by cross-checking with the above mentioned documents.
b. The pilot−in−command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the safe operation of that aircraft. In an emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot−in−command may deviate from any rule in the General Subpart A and Flight Rules Subpart B in accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.3.
c. The air traffic controller is responsible to give first priority to the separation of aircraft and to the issuance of radar safety alerts, second priority to other services that are required, but do not involve separation of aircraft and third priority to additional services to the extent possible.
d. In order to maintain a safe and efficient air traffic system, it is necessary that each party fulfill their responsibilities to the fullest.
e. The responsibilities of the pilot and the controller intentionally overlap in many areas providing a degree of redundancy. Should one or the other fail in any manner, this overlapping responsibility is expected to compensate, in many cases, for failures that may affect safety.
f. The following, while not intended to be all inclusive, is a brief listing of pilot and controller responsibilities for some commonly used procedures or phases of flight. More detailed explanations are contained in other portions of this publication, the appropriate CFRs, ACs and similar publications. The information provided is an overview of the principles involved and is not meant as an interpretation of the rules nor is it intended to extend or diminish responsibilities.
5−5−2. Air Traffic Clearance
a. Pilot.
1. Acknowledges receipt and understanding of an ATC clearance.
2. Reads back any hold short of runway instructions issued by ATC.
3. Requests clarification or amendment, as appropriate, any time a clearance is not fully understood or considered unacceptable from a safety standpoint.
4. Promptly complies with an air traffic clearance upon receipt except as necessary to cope with an emergency. Advises ATC as soon as possible and obtains an amended clearance, if deviation is necessary.
NOTE−A clearance to land means that appropriate separation on the landing runway will be ensured. A landing clearance does not relieve the pilot from compliance with any previously issued altitude crossing restriction.
b. Controller.
1. Issues appropriate clearances for the operation to be conducted, or being conducted, in accordance with established criteria.
2. Assigns altitudes in IFR clearances that are at or above the minimum IFR altitudes in controlled airspace.
3. Ensures acknowledgement by the pilot for issued information, clearances, or instructions.
4. Ensures that readbacks by the pilot of altitude, heading, or other items are correct. If incorrect, distorted, or incomplete, makes corrections as appropriate.
5−5−3. Contact Approach
a. Pilot.
1. Must request a contact approach and makes it in lieu of a standard or special instrument approach.
2. By requesting the contact approach, indicates that the flight is operating clear of clouds, has at least one mile flight visibility, and reasonably expects to continue to the destination airport in those conditions.
3. Assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance while conducting a contact approach.
4. Advises ATC immediately if unable to continue the contact approach or if encounters less than 1 mile flight visibility.
5. Is aware that if radar service is being received, it may be automatically terminated when told to contact the tower.
REFERENCE−Pilot/Controller Glossary Term− Radar Service Terminated.
b. Controller.
1. Issues clearance for a contact approach only when requested by the pilot. Does not solicit the use of this procedure.
2. Before issuing the clearance, ascertains that reported ground visibility at destination airport is at least 1 mile.
3. Provides approved separation between the aircraft cleared for a contact approach and other IFR or special VFR aircraft. When using vertical separation, does not assign a fixed altitude, but clears the aircraft at or below an altitude which is at least 1,000 feet below any IFR traffic but not below Minimum Safe Altitudes prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.119.
4. Issues alternative instructions if, in their judgment, weather conditions may make completion of the approach impracticable.
5−5−4. Instrument Approach
a. Pilot.
1. Be aware that the controller issues clearance for approach based only on known traffic.
2. Follows the procedure as shown on the IAP, including all restrictive notations, such as:
(a) Procedure not authorized at night;
(b) Approach not authorized when local area altimeter not available;
(c) Procedure not authorized when control tower not in operation;
(d) Procedure not authorized when glide slope not used;
(e) Straight-in minimums not authorized at night; etc.
(f) Radar required; or
(g) The circling minimums published on the instrument approach chart provide adequate obstruction clearance and pilots should not descend below the circling altitude until the aircraft is in a position to make final descent for landing. Sound judgment and knowledge of the pilot’s and the aircraft’s capabilities are the criteria for determining the exact maneuver in each instance since airport design and the aircraft position, altitude and airspeed must all be considered.
REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 5−4−20, Approach and Landing Minimums
3. Upon receipt of an approach clearance while on an unpublished route or being radar vectored:
(a) Complies with the minimum altitude for IFR; and
(b) Maintains the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of a published route or IAP, at which time published altitudes apply.
4. When applicable, apply cold temperature correction to instrument approach segments. Advise ATC when intending to apply cold temperature correction and of the amount of correction required for each affected segment on initial contact (or as soon as possible). This information is required for ATC to provide aircraft appropriate vertical separation between known traffic.
REFERENCE−AIM, Chapter 7, Section 3, Cold Temperature Barometric Altimeter Errors, Setting Procedures, and Cold Temperature Airports (CTA)
AIM, TBL 7−3−1, ICAO Cold Temperature Error Table
b. Controller.
1. Issues an approach clearance based on known traffic.
2. Issues an IFR approach clearance only after the aircraft is established on a segment of published route or IAP, or assigns an appropriate altitude for the aircraft to maintain until so established.
5−5−5. Missed Approach
a. Pilot.
1. Executes a missed approach when one of the following conditions exist:
(a) Arrival at the Missed Approach Point (MAP) or the Decision Height (DH) and visual reference to the runway environment is insufficient to complete the landing.
(b) Determines that a safe approach or landing is not possible (see subparagraph 5−4−21h).
(c) Instructed to do so by ATC.
2. Advises ATC that a missed approach will be made. Include the reason for the missed approach unless the missed approach is initiated by ATC.
3. Complies with the missed approach instructions for the IAP being executed from the MAP, unless other missed approach instructions are specified by ATC.
4. If executing a missed approach prior to reaching the MAP, fly the lateral navigation path of the instrument procedure to the MAP. Climb to the altitude specified in the missed approach procedure, except when a maximum altitude is specified between the final approach fix (FAF) and the MAP. In that case, comply with the maximum altitude restriction. Note, this may require a continued descent on the final approach.
5. When applicable, apply cold temperature correction to the published missed approach segment. Advise ATC when intending to apply cold temperature correction and of the amount of correction required on initial contact (or as soon as possible). This information is required for ATC to provide aircraft appropriate vertical separation between known traffic. The pilot must not apply an altitude correction to an assigned altitude when provided an initial heading to fly or radar vector in lieu of published missed approach procedures, unless approved by ATC.
REFERENCE−AIM, Chapter 7, Section 3, Cold Temperature Barometric Altimeter Errors, Setting Procedures, and Cold Temperature Airports (CTA)
AIM, TBL 7−3−1, ICAO Cold Temperature Error Table
6. Following a missed approach, requests clearance for specific action; i.e., another approach, hold for improved conditions, proceed to an alternate airport, etc.
b. Controller.
1. Issues an approved alternate missed approach procedure if it is desired that the pilot execute a procedure other than as depicted on the instrument approach chart.
2. May vector a radar identified aircraft executing a missed approach when operationally advantageous to the pilot or the controller.
3. In response to the pilot’s stated intentions, issues a clearance to an alternate airport, to a holding fix, or for reentry into the approach sequence, as traffic conditions permit.
5−5−6. Radar Vectors
a. Pilot.
1. Promptly complies with headings and altitudes assigned to you by the controller.
2. Questions any assigned heading or altitude believed to be incorrect.
3. If operating VFR and compliance with any radar vector or altitude would cause a violation of any CFR, advises ATC and obtains a revised clearance or instructions.
b. Controller.
1. Vectors aircraft in Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace:
(a) For separation.
(b) For noise abatement.
(c) To obtain an operational advantage for the pilot or controller.
2. Vectors aircraft in Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, and Class G airspace when requested by the pilot.
3. Vectors IFR aircraft at or above minimum vectoring altitudes.
4. May vector aircraft off assigned procedures. When published altitude or speed restrictions are included, controllers must assign an altitude, or if necessary, a speed.
5. May vector VFR aircraft, not at an ATC assigned altitude, at any altitude. In these cases, terrain separation is the pilot’s responsibility.
5−5−7. Safety Alert
a. Pilot.
1. Initiates appropriate action if a safety alert is received from ATC.
2. Be aware that this service is not always available and that many factors affect the ability of the controller to be aware of a situation in which unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or another aircraft may be developing.
b. Controller.
1. Issues a safety alert if aware an aircraft under their control is at an altitude which, in the controller’s judgment, places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions or another aircraft. Types of safety alerts are:
(a) Terrain or Obstruction Alert.
Immediately issued to an aircraft under their control if aware the aircraft is at an altitude believed to place the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain or obstructions.
(b) Aircraft Conflict Alert.
Immediately issued to an aircraft under their control if aware of an aircraft not under their control at an altitude believed to place the aircraft in unsafe proximity to each other. With the alert, they offer the pilot an alternative, if feasible.
2. Discontinue further alerts if informed by the pilot action is being taken to correct the situation or that the other aircraft is in sight.
5−5−8. See and Avoid
a. Pilot. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of type of flight plan or whether or not under control of a radar facility, the pilot is responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles.
b. Controller.
1. Provides radar traffic information to radar identified aircraft operating outside positive control airspace on a workload permitting basis.
2. Issues safety alerts to aircraft under their control if aware the aircraft is at an altitude believed to place the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
5−5−9. Speed Adjustments
a. Pilot.
1. Advises ATC any time cruising airspeed varies plus or minus 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater, from that given in the flight plan.
2. Complies with speed adjustments from ATC unless:
(a) The minimum or maximum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater or less than the requested airspeed. In such cases, advises ATC.
NOTE−It is the pilot’s responsibility and prerogative to refuse speed adjustments considered excessive or contrary to the aircraft’s operating specifications.
(b) Operating at or above 10,000 feet MSL on an ATC assigned SPEED ADJUSTMENT of more than 250 knots IAS and subsequent clearance is received for descent below 10,000 feet MSL. In such cases, pilots are expected to comply with 14 CFR Section 91.117(a).
3. When complying with speed adjustment assignments, maintains an indicated airspeed within plus or minus 10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the specified speed.
b. Controller.
1. Assigns speed adjustments to aircraft when necessary but not as a substitute for good vectoring technique.
2. Adheres to the restrictions published in FAA Order JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control, as to when speed adjustment procedures may be applied.
3. Avoids speed adjustments requiring alternate decreases and increases.
4. Assigns speed adjustments to a specified IAS (KNOTS)/Mach number or to increase or decrease speed using increments of 5 knots or multiples thereof.
5. Terminates ATC-assigned speed adjustments when no longer required by issuing further instructions to pilots in the following manner:
(a) Advises pilots to “resume normal speed” when the aircraft is on a heading, random routing, charted procedure, or route without published speed restrictions.
(b) Instructs pilots to “comply with speed restrictions” when the aircraft is joining or resuming a charted procedure or route with published speed restrictions.
CAUTION−The phraseology “Climb via SID” requires compliance with all altitude and/or speed restrictions depicted on the procedure.
(c) Instructs pilots to “resume published speed” when aircraft are cleared via a charted instrument flight procedure that contains published speed restrictions.
(d) Advises aircraft to “delete speed restrictions” when ATC assigned or published speed restrictions on a charted procedure are no longer required.
(e) Clears pilots for approach without restating previously issued speed adjustments.
REFERENCE−Pilot/Controller Glossary Term− Resume Normal Speed Pilot/Controller Glossary Term− Resume Published Speed
6. Gives due consideration to aircraft capabilities to reduce speed while descending.
7. Does not assign speed adjustments to aircraft at or above FL 390 without pilot consent.
5−5−10. Traffic Advisories (Traffic Information)
a. Pilot.
1. Acknowledges receipt of traffic advisories.
2. Informs controller if traffic in sight.
3. Advises ATC if a vector to avoid traffic is desired.
4. Does not expect to receive radar traffic advisories on all traffic. Some aircraft may not appear on the radar display. Be aware that the controller may be occupied with higher priority duties and unable to issue traffic information for a variety of reasons.
5. Advises controller if service is not desired.
b. Controller.
1. Issues radar traffic to the maximum extent consistent with higher priority duties except in Class A airspace.
2. Provides vectors to assist aircraft to avoid observed traffic when requested by the pilot.
3. Issues traffic information to aircraft in the Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas for sequencing purposes.
4. Controllers are required to issue to each aircraft operating on intersecting or nonintersecting converging runways where projected flight paths will cross.
5−5−11. Visual Approach
a. Pilot.
1. If a visual approach is not desired, advises ATC.
2. Complies with controller’s instructions for vectors toward the airport of intended landing or to a visual position behind a preceding aircraft.
3. The pilot must, at all times, have either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight. After being cleared for a visual approach, proceed to the airport in a normal manner or follow the preceding aircraft. Remain clear of clouds while conducting a visual approach.
4. If the pilot accepts a visual approach clearance to visually follow a preceding aircraft, you are required to establish a safe landing interval behind the aircraft you were instructed to follow. You are responsible for wake turbulence separation.
5. Advise ATC immediately if the pilot is unable to continue following the preceding aircraft, cannot remain clear of clouds, needs to climb, or loses sight of the airport.
6. Be aware that radar service is automatically terminated, without being advised by ATC, when the pilot is instructed to change to advisory frequency.
7. Be aware that there may be other traffic in the traffic pattern and the landing sequence may differ from the traffic sequence assigned by approach control or ARTCC.
b. Controller.
1. Do not clear an aircraft for a visual approach unless reported weather at the airport is ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility is 3 miles or greater. When weather is not available for the destination airport, inform the pilot and do not initiate a visual approach to that airport unless there is reasonable assurance that descent and flight to the airport can be made visually.
2. Issue visual approach clearance when the pilot reports sighting either the airport or a preceding aircraft which is to be followed.
3. Provide separation except when visual separation is being applied by the pilot.
4. Continue flight following and traffic information until the aircraft has landed or has been instructed to change to advisory frequency.
5. For all aircraft, inform the pilot when the preceding aircraft is a heavy. Inform the pilot of a small aircraft when the preceding aircraft is a B757. Visual separation is prohibited behind super aircraft.
6. When weather is available for the destination airport, do not initiate a vector for a visual approach unless the reported ceiling at the airport is 500 feet or more above the MVA and visibility is 3 miles or more. If vectoring weather minima are not available but weather at the airport is ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility of 3 miles or greater, visual approaches may still be conducted.
5−5−12. Visual Separation
a. Pilot.
1. Acceptance of instructions to follow another aircraft or to provide visual separation from it is an acknowledgment that the pilot will maneuver the aircraft as necessary to avoid the other aircraft or to maintain in-trail separation. Pilots are responsible to maintain visual separation until flight paths (altitudes and/or courses) diverge.
2. If instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft or to provide visual separation from it, promptly notify the controller if you lose sight of that aircraft, are unable to maintain continued visual contact with it, or cannot accept the responsibility for your own separation for any reason.
3. The pilot also accepts responsibility for wake turbulence separation under these conditions.
b. Controller. Applies visual separation only:
1. Within the terminal area when a controller has both aircraft in sight or by instructing a pilot who sees the other aircraft to maintain visual separation from it.
2. Pilots are responsible to maintain visual separation until flight paths (altitudes and/or courses) diverge.
3. Within en route airspace when aircraft are on opposite courses and one pilot reports having seen the other aircraft and that the aircraft have passed each other.
5−5−13. VFR-on-top
a. Pilot.
1. This clearance must be requested by the pilot on an IFR flight plan, and if approved, allows the pilot the choice (subject to any ATC restrictions) to select an altitude or flight level in lieu of an assigned altitude.
NOTE−VFR−on−top is not permitted in certain airspace areas, such as Class A airspace, certain restricted areas, etc. Consequently, IFR flights operating VFR−on−top will avoid such airspace.
REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 4−4−8, IFR Clearance VFR−on−top
AIM, Paragraph 4−4−11, IFR Separation Standards
AIM, Paragraph 5−3−2, Position Reporting
AIM, Paragraph 5−3−3, Additional Reports
2. By requesting a VFR-on-top clearance, the pilot assumes the sole responsibility to be vigilant so as to see and avoid other aircraft and to:
(a) Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude as prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.159.
(b) Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from clouds criteria in 14 CFR Section 91.155, Basic VFR Weather Minimums.
(c) Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight; i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc.
3. Should advise ATC prior to any altitude change to ensure the exchange of accurate traffic information.
b. Controller.
1. May clear an aircraft to maintain VFR-on-top if the pilot of an aircraft on an IFR flight plan requests the clearance.
2. Informs the pilot of an aircraft cleared to climb to VFR-on-top the reported height of the tops or that no top report is available; issues an alternate clearance if necessary; and once the aircraft reports reaching VFR-on-top, reclears the aircraft to maintain VFR-on-top.
3. Before issuing clearance, ascertain that the aircraft is not in or will not enter Class A airspace.
5−5−14. Instrument Departures
a. Pilot.
1. Prior to departure considers the type of terrain and other obstructions on or in the vicinity of the departure airport.
2. Determines if obstruction avoidance can be maintained visually or that the departure procedure should be followed.
3. Determines whether an obstacle departure procedure (ODP) and/or DP is available for obstruction avoidance. One option may be a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA). Pilots must advise ATC as early as possible of the intent to fly the VCOA prior to departure.
4. At airports where IAPs have not been published, hence no published departure procedure, determines what action will be necessary and takes such action that will assure a safe departure.
b. Controller.
1. At locations with airport traffic control service, when necessary, specifies direction of takeoff, turn, or initial heading to be flown after takeoff, consistent with published departure procedures (DP) or diverse vector areas (DVA), where applicable.
2. At locations without airport traffic control service but within Class E surface area when necessary to specify direction of takeoff, turn, or initial heading to be flown, obtains pilot’s concurrence that the procedure will allow the pilot to comply with local traffic patterns, terrain, and obstruction avoidance.
3. When the initial heading will take the aircraft off an assigned procedure (for example, an RNAV SID with a published lateral path to a waypoint and crossing restrictions from the departure end of runway), the controller will assign an altitude to maintain with the initial heading.
4. Includes established departure procedures as part of the ATC clearance when pilot compliance is necessary to ensure separation.
5−5−15. Minimum Fuel Advisory
a. Pilot.
1. Advise ATC of your minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
2. Be aware this is not an emergency situation, but merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
3. On initial contact the term “minimum fuel” should be used after stating call sign.
EXAMPLE−Salt Lake Approach, United 621, “minimum fuel.”
4. Be aware a minimum fuel advisory does not imply a need for traffic priority.
5. If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, you should declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
REFERENCE−Pilot/Controller Glossary Term− Fuel Remaining.
b. Controller.
1. When an aircraft declares a state of minimum fuel, relay this information to the facility to whom control jurisdiction is transferred.
2. Be alert for any occurrence which might delay the aircraft.
5−5−16. RNAV and RNP Operations
a. Pilot.
1. If unable to comply with the requirements of an RNAV or RNP procedure, pilots must advise air traffic control as soon as possible. For example, “N1234, failure of GPS system, unable RNAV, request amended clearance.”
2. Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure (instrument approach, departure, or arrival procedure) unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from the current aircraft navigation database and conforms to the charted procedure. The system must be able to retrieve the procedure by name from the aircraft navigation database, not just as a manually entered series of waypoints.
3. Whenever possible, RNAV routes (Q− or T−route) should be extracted from the database in their entirety, rather than loading RNAV route waypoints from the database into the flight plan individually. However, selecting and inserting individual, named fixes from the database is permitted, provided all fixes along the published route to be flown are inserted.
4. Pilots must not change any database waypoint type from a fly−by to fly−over, or vice versa. No other modification of database waypoints or the creation of user−defined waypoints on published RNAV or RNP procedures is permitted, except to:
(a) Change altitude and/or airspeed waypoint constraints to comply with an ATC clearance/ instruction.
(b) Insert a waypoint along the published route to assist in complying with ATC instruction, example, “Descend via the WILMS arrival except cross 30 north of BRUCE at/or below FL 210.” This is limited only to systems that allow along−track waypoint construction.
5. Pilots of FMS−equipped aircraft, who are assigned an RNAV DP or STAR procedure and subsequently receive a change of runway, transition or procedure, must verify that the appropriate changes are loaded and available for navigation.
6. For RNAV 1 DPs and STARs, pilots must use a CDI, flight director and/or autopilot, in lateral navigation mode. Other methods providing an equivalent level of performance may also be acceptable.
7. For RNAV 1 DPs and STARs, pilots of aircraft without GPS, using DME/DME/IRU, must ensure the aircraft navigation system position is confirmed, within 1,000 feet, at the start point of take−off roll. The use of an automatic or manual runway update is an acceptable means of compliance with this requirement. Other methods providing an equivalent level of performance may also be acceptable.
8. For procedures or routes requiring the use of GPS, if the navigation system does not automatically alert the flight crew of a loss of GPS, the operator must develop procedures to verify correct GPS operation.
9. RNAV terminal procedures (DP and STAR) may be amended by ATC issuing radar vectors and/or clearances direct to a waypoint. Pilots should avoid premature manual deletion of waypoints from their active “legs” page to allow for rejoining procedures.
10. RAIM Prediction: If TSO−C129 equipment is used to solely satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability must be confirmed for the intended route of flight (route and time). If RAIM is not available, pilots need an approved alternate means of navigation.
REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 5−1−16, RNAV and RNP Operations
11. Definition of “established” for RNAV and RNP operations. An aircraft is considered to be established on-course during RNAV and RNP operations anytime it is within 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown. For example, while operating on a Q-Route (RNAV 2), the aircraft is considered to be established on-course when it is within 2 NM of the course centerline.
NOTE−
1. Pilots must be aware of how their navigation system operates, along with any AFM limitations, and confirm that the aircraft’s lateral deviation display (or map display if being used as an allowed alternate means) is suitable for the accuracy of the segment being flown. Automatic scaling and alerting changes are appropriate for some operations. For example, TSO-C129 systems change within 30 miles of destination and within 2 miles of FAF to support approach operations. For some navigation systems and operations, manual selection of scaling will be necessary.
2. Pilots flying FMS equipped aircraft with barometric vertical navigation (Baro-VNAV) may descend when the aircraft is established on-course following FMS leg transition to the next segment. Leg transition normally occurs at the turn bisector for a fly-by waypoint (reference paragraph 1-2-1 for more on waypoints). When using full automation, pilots should monitor the aircraft to ensure the aircraft is turning at appropriate lead times and descending once established on-course.
3. Pilots flying TSO-C129 navigation system equipped aircraft without full automation should use normal lead points to begin the turn. Pilots may descend when established on-course on the next segment of the approach.
Section 6. National Security and Interception Procedures
5−6−1. National Security
National security in the control of air traffic is governed by 14 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Part 99, Security Control of Air Traffic.
5−6−2. National Security Requirements
a. Pursuant to 14 CFR 99.7, Special Security Instructions, each person operating an aircraft in an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) or Defense Area must, in addition to the applicable rules of Part 99, comply with special security instructions issued by the FAA Administrator in the interest of national security, pursuant to agreement between the FAA and the Department of Defense (DOD), or between the FAA and a U.S. Federal security or intelligence agency.
b. In addition to the requirements prescribed in this section, national security requirements for aircraft operations to or from, within, or transiting U.S. territorial airspace are in effect pursuant to 14 CFR 99.7; 49 United States Code (USC) 40103, Sovereignty and Use of Airspace; and 49 USC 41703, Navigation of Foreign Civil Aircraft. Aircraft operations to or from, within, or transiting U.S. territorial airspace must also comply with all other applicable regulations published in 14 CFR.
c. Due to increased security measures in place at many areas and in accordance with 14 CFR 91.103, Preflight Action, prior to departure, pilots must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. Pilots are responsible to comply with 14 CFR 91.137 (Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard areas), 91.138 (Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the State of Hawaii), 91.141 (Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and other parties), and 91.143 (Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations) when conducting flight in an area where a temporary flight restrictions area is in effect, and should check appropriate NOTAMs during flight planning. In addition, NOTAMs may be issued for National Security Areas (NSA) that temporarily prohibit flight operations under the provisions of 14 CFR 99.7.
REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 3−4−8, National Security Areas AIM, Paragraph 3−5−3, Temporary Flight Restrictions
d. Noncompliance with the national security requirements for aircraft operations contained in this section may result in denial of flight entry into U.S. territorial airspace or ground stop of the flight at a U.S. airport.
e. Pilots of aircraft that do not adhere to the procedures in the national security requirements for aircraft operations contained in this section may be intercepted, and/or detained and interviewed by federal, state, or local law enforcement or other government personnel.
5−6−3. Definitions
a. Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) means an area of airspace over land or water, in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft (except Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft) is required in the interest of national security.
b. Defense Area means any airspace of the contiguous U.S. that is not an ADIZ in which the control of aircraft is required for reasons of national security.
c. U.S. territorial airspace, for the purposes of this section, means the airspace over the U.S., its territories, and possessions, and the airspace over the territorial sea of the U.S., which extends 12 nautical miles from the baselines of the U.S., determined in accordance with international law.
d. To U.S. territorial airspace means any flight that enters U.S. territorial airspace after departure from a location outside of the U.S., its territories or possessions, for landing at a destination in the U.S., its territories or possessions.
e. From U.S. territorial airspace means any flight that exits U.S. territorial airspace after departure from a location in the U.S., its territories or possessions, and lands at a destination outside the U.S., its territories or possessions.
f. Within U.S. territorial airspace means any flight departing from a location inside of the U.S., its territories or possessions, which operates en route to a location inside the U.S., its territories or possessions.
g. Transit or transiting U.S. territorial airspace means any flight departing from a location outside of the U.S., its territories or possessions, which operates in U.S. territorial airspace en route to a location outside the U.S., its territories or possessions without landing at a destination in the U.S., its territories or possessions.
h. Aeronautical facility, for the purposes of this section, means a communications facility where flight plans or position reports are normally filed during flight operations.
5−6−4. ADIZ Requirements
a. To facilitate early identification of all aircraft in the vicinity of U.S. airspace boundaries, Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) have been established. All aircraft must meet certain requirements to facilitate early identification when operating into, within, and across an ADIZ, as described in 14 CFR 99.
b. Requirements for aircraft operations are as follows:
1. Transponder Requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft conducting operations into, within, or across the contiguous U.S. ADIZ must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting capability, and that transponder must be turned on and set to reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC. (See 14 CFR 99.13, Transponder−On Requirements, for additional information.)
2. Two−way Radio. In accordance with 14 CFR 99.9, Radio Requirements, any person operating in an ADIZ must maintain two−way radio communication with an appropriate aeronautical facility. For two−way radio communications failure, follow instructions contained in 14 CFR 99.9.
3. Flight Plan. In accordance with 14 CFR 99.11, Flight Plan Requirements, and 14 CFR 99.9, except as specified in subparagraph 5−6−4e, no person may operate an aircraft into, within, or from a departure point within an ADIZ, unless the person files, activates, and closes a flight plan with an appropriate aeronautical facility, or is otherwise authorized by air traffic control as follows:
(a) Pilots must file an Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flight plan or file a Defense Visual Flight Rules (DVFR) flight plan containing the time and point of ADIZ penetration;
(b) The pilot must activate the DVFR flight plan with U.S. Flight Service and set the aircraft transponder to the assigned discrete beacon code prior to entering the ADIZ;
(c) The IFR or DVFR aircraft must depart within 5 minutes of the estimated departure time contained in the flight plan, except for (d) below;
(d) If the airport of departure within the Alaskan ADIZ has no facility for filing a flight plan, the flight plan must be filed immediately after takeoff or when within range of an appropriate aeronautical facility;
(e) State aircraft (U.S. or foreign) planning to operate through an ADIZ should enter ICAO Code M in Item 8 of the flight plan to assist in identification of the aircraft as a state aircraft.
c. Position Reporting Before Penetration of ADIZ.
In accordance with 14 CFR 99.15, Position Reports, before entering the ADIZ, the pilot must report to an appropriate aeronautical facility as follows:
1. IFR flights in controlled airspace. The pilot must maintain a continuous watch on the appropriate frequency and report the time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point or those reporting points specified or requested by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be reported. (See 14 CFR 91.183(a), IFR Communications.)
2. DVFR flights and IFR flights in uncontrolled airspace:
(a) The time, position, and altitude at which the aircraft passed the last reporting point before penetration and the estimated time of arrival over the next appropriate reporting point along the flight route;
(b) If there is no appropriate reporting point along the flight route, the pilot reports at least 15 minutes before penetration: the estimated time, position, and altitude at which the pilot will penetrate; or
(c) If the departure airport is within an ADIZ or so close to the ADIZ boundary that it prevents the pilot from complying with (a) or (b) above, the pilot must report immediately after departure: the time of departure, the altitude, and the estimated time of arrival over the first reporting point along the flight route.
3. Foreign civil aircraft. If the pilot of a foreign civil aircraft that intends to enter the U.S. through an ADIZ cannot comply with the reporting requirements in subparagraphs c1 or c2 above, as applicable, the pilot must report the position of the aircraft to the appropriate aeronautical facility not less than 1 hour and not more than 2 hours average direct cruising distance from the U.S.
d. Land−Based ADIZ. Land−Based ADIZ are activated and deactivated over U.S. metropolitan areas as needed, with dimensions, activation dates and other relevant information disseminated via NOTAM. Pilots unable to comply with all NOTAM requirements must remain clear of Land−Based ADIZ. Pilots entering a Land−Based ADIZ without authorization or who fail to follow all requirements risk interception by military fighter aircraft.
e. Exceptions to ADIZ requirements.
1. Except for the national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2, transponder requirements in subparagraph 5−6−4b1, and position reporting in subparagraph 5−6−4c, the ADIZ requirements in 14 CFR Part 99 described in this section do not apply to the following aircraft operations pursuant to Section 99.1(b), Applicability:
(a) Within the 48 contiguous States or within the State of Alaska, on a flight which remains within 10 NM of the point of departure;
(b) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Hawaii ADIZ or over any island, or within 12 NM of the coastline of any island, in the Hawaii ADIZ;
(c) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Alaska ADIZ while the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on the appropriate frequency; or
(d) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Guam ADIZ.
2. An FAA air route traffic control center (ARTCC) may exempt certain aircraft operations on a local basis in concurrence with the DOD or pursuant to an agreement with a U.S. Federal security or intelligence agency. (See 14 CFR 99.1 for additional information.)
f. A VFR flight plan filed inflight makes an aircraft subject to interception for positive identification when entering an ADIZ. Pilots are therefore urged to file the required DVFR flight plan either in person or by telephone prior to departure when able.
5−6−5. Civil Aircraft Operations To or From U.S. Territorial Airspace
a. Civil aircraft, except as described in subparagraph 5−6−5b below, are authorized to operate to or from U.S. territorial airspace if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR, VFR, or DVFR);
2. Are equipped with an operational transponder with altitude reporting capability, and continuously squawk an ATC assigned transponder code;
3. Maintain two−way radio communications with ATC;
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ requirements described in paragraph 5−6−4 and any other national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2;
5. Comply with all applicable U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) requirements, including Advance Passenger Information System (APIS) requirements (see subparagraph 5−6−5c below for CBP APIS information), in accordance with 19 CFR Part 122, Air Commerce Regulations; and
6. Are in receipt of, and are operating in accordance with, an FAA routing authorization if the aircraft is registered in a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country or is operating with the ICAO three letter designator (3LD) of a company in a country listed as a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country, unless the operator holds valid FAA Part 129 operations specifications. VFR and DVFR flight operations are prohibited for any aircraft requiring an FAA routing authorization. (See paragraph 5−6−11 for FAA routing authorization information).
b. Civil aircraft registered in the U.S., Canada, or Mexico with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight of 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) or less that are operating without an operational transponder, and/or the ability to maintain two−way radio communications with ATC, are authorized to operate to or from U.S. territorial airspace over Alaska if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. Depart and land at an airport within the U.S. or Canada;
2. Enter or exit U.S. territorial airspace over Alaska north of the fifty−fourth parallel;
3. File and are on an active flight plan;
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ requirements described in paragraph 5−6−4 and any other national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2;
5. Squawk 1200 if VFR and equipped with a transponder; and
6. Comply with all applicable U.S. CBP requirements, including Advance Passenger Information System (APIS) requirements (see subparagraph 5−6−5c below for CBP APIS information), in accordance with 19 CFR Part 122, Air Commerce Regulations.
c. CBP APIS Information. Information about U.S. CBP APIS requirements is available at http://www.cbp.gov.
5−6−6. Civil Aircraft Operations Within U.S. Territorial Airspace
a. Civil aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight less than or equal to 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) are authorized to operate within U.S. territorial airspace in accordance with all applicable regulations and VFR in airport traffic pattern areas of U.S. airports near the U.S. border, except for those described in subparagraph 5−6−6b below.
b. Civil aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight less than or equal to 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) and registered in a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country or operating with the ICAO 3LD of a company in a country listed as a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country, unless the operator holds valid FAA Part 129 operations specifications, must operate within U.S. territorial airspace in accordance with the same requirements as civil aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight greater than 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs), as described in subparagraph 5−6−6c below.
c. Civil aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight greater than 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) are authorized to operate within U.S. territorial airspace if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR or VFR);
2. Equipped with an operational transponder with altitude reporting capability, and continuously squawk an ATC assigned transponder code;
3. Equipped with an operational ADS−B Out when operating in airspace specified in 14 CFR 91.225;
4. Maintain two−way radio communications with ATC;
5. Aircraft not registered in the U.S. must operate under an approved Transportation Security Administration (TSA) aviation security program (see paragraph 5−6−10 for TSA aviation security program information) or in accordance with an FAA/TSA airspace waiver (see paragraph 5−6−9 for FAA/TSA airspace waiver information), except as authorized in 5−6−6c6. below;
6. Are in receipt of, and are operating in accordance with an FAA routing authorization and an FAA/TSA airspace waiver if the aircraft is registered in a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country or is operating with the ICAO 3LD of a company in a country listed as a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country, unless the operator holds valid FAA Part 129 operations specifications. VFR and DVFR flight operations are prohibited for any aircraft requiring an FAA routing authorization. (See paragraph 5−6−11 for FAA routing authorization information.); and
7. Aircraft not registered in the U.S., when conducting post−maintenance, manufacturer, production, or acceptance flight test operations, are exempt from the requirements in 5−6−6c4 above if all of the following requirements are met:
(a) A U.S. company must have operational control of the aircraft;
(b) An FAA−certificated pilot must serve as pilot in command;
(c) Only crewmembers are permitted onboard the aircraft; and
(d) “Maintenance Flight” is included in theremarks section of the flight plan.
5−6−7. Civil Aircraft Operations Transiting U.S. Territorial Airspace
a. Civil aircraft (except those operating in accordance with subparagraphs 5−6−7b, 5−6−7c, 5−6−7d, and 5−6−7e) are authorized to transit U.S. territorial airspace if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR, VFR, or DVFR);
2. Equipped with an operational transponder with altitude reporting capability and continuously squawk an ATC assigned transponder code;
3. Equipped with an operational ADS−B Out when operating in airspace specified in 14 CFR 91.225;
4. Maintain two−way radio communications with ATC;
5. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ requirements described in paragraph 5−6−4 and any other national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2;
6. Are operating under an approved TSA aviation security program (see paragraph 5−6−10 for TSA aviation security program information) or are operating with and in accordance with an FAA/TSA airspace waiver (see paragraph 5−6−9 for FAA/TSA airspace waiver information), if:
(a) The aircraft is not registered in the U.S.; or
(b) The aircraft is registered in the U.S. and its maximum takeoff gross weight is greater than 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs);
7. Are in receipt of, and are operating in accordance with, an FAA routing authorization if the aircraft is registered in a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country or is operating with the ICAO 3LD of a company in a country listed as a U.S. State Department−designated special interest country, unless the operator holds valid FAA Part 129 operations specifications. VFR and DVFR flight operations are prohibited for any aircraft requiring an FAA routing authorization. (See paragraph 5−6−11 for FAA routing authorization information.)
b. Civil aircraft registered in Canada or Mexico, and engaged in operations for the purposes of air ambulance, firefighting, law enforcement, search and rescue, or emergency evacuation are authorized to transit U.S. territorial airspace within 50 NM of their respective borders with the U.S., with or without an active flight plan, provided they have received and continuously transmit an ATC−assigned transponder code.
c. Civil aircraft registered in Canada, Mexico, Bahamas, Bermuda, Cayman Islands, or the British Virgin Islands with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight of 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) or less are authorized to transit U.S. territorial airspace if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR, VFR, or DVFR) that enters U.S. territorial airspace directly from any of the countries listed in this subparagraph 5−6−7c. Flights that include a stop in a non−listed country prior to entering U.S. territorial airspace must comply with the requirements prescribed by subparagraph 5−6−7a above, including operating under an approved TSA aviation security program (see paragraph 5−6−10 for TSA aviation program information) or operating with, and in accordance with, an FAA/TSA airspace waiver (see paragraph 5−6−9 for FAA/TSA airspace waiver information).
2. Equipped with an operational transponder with altitude reporting capability and continuously squawk an ATC assigned transponder code;
3. Equipped with an operational ADS−B Out when operating in airspace specified in 14 CFR 91.225;
4. Maintain two−way radio communications with ATC; and
5. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ requirements described in paragraph 5−6−4 and any other national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2.
d. Civil aircraft registered in Canada, Mexico, Bahamas, Bermuda, Cayman Islands, or the British Virgin Islands with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight greater than 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) must comply with the requirements subparagraph 5−6−7a, including operating under an approved TSA aviation security program (see paragraph 5−6−10 for TSA aviation program information) or operating with, and in accordance with, an FAA/TSA airspace waiver (see paragraph 5−6−9 for FAA/TSA airspace waiver information).
e. Civil aircraft registered in the U.S., Canada, or Mexico with a maximum certificated takeoff gross weight of 100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs) or less that are operating without an operational transponder and/or the ability to maintain two−way radio communications with ATC, are authorized to transit U.S. territorial airspace over Alaska if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. Enter and exit U.S. territorial airspace over Alaska north of the fifty−fourth parallel;
2. File and are on an active flight plan;
3. Squawk 1200 if VFR and equipped with a transponder.
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ requirements described in paragraph 5−6−4 and any other national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2.
5−6−8. Foreign State Aircraft Operations
a. Foreign state aircraft are authorized to operate in U.S. territorial airspace if in compliance with all of the following conditions:
1. File and are on an active IFR flight plan;
2. Equipped with an operational transponder with altitude reporting capability and continuously squawk an ATC assigned transponder code;
3. Equipped with an operational ADS−B Out when operating in airspace specified in 14 CFR 91.225;
4. Maintain two−way radio communications with ATC; and
5. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ requirements described in paragraph 5−6−4 and any other national security requirements in paragraph 5−6−2.
b. Diplomatic Clearances. Foreign state aircraft may operate to or from, within, or in transit of U.S. territorial airspace only when authorized by the U.S. State Department by means of a diplomatic clearance, except as described in subparagraph 5−6−8h below.
1. Information about diplomatic clearances is available at the U.S. State Department website http://www.state.gov/t/pm/iso/c56895.htm (lower case only).
2. A diplomatic clearance may be initiated by contacting the U.S. State Department via email at DCAS@state.gov or via phone at (202) 663−3390.
NOTE−A diplomatic clearance is not required for foreign state aircraft operations that transit U.S. controlled oceanic airspace but do not enter U.S. territorial airspace. (See subparagraph 5−6−8d for flight plan information.)
c. An FAA routing authorization for state aircraft operations of special interest countries listed in subparagraph 5−6−11b. is required before the U.S. State Department will issue a diplomatic clearance for such operations. (See subparagraph 5−6−11 for FAA routing authorizations information).
d. Foreign state aircraft operating with a diplomatic clearance must navigate U.S. territorial airspace on an active IFR flight plan, unless specifically approved for VFR flight operations by the U.S. State Department in the diplomatic clearance.
NOTE−Foreign state aircraft operations to or from, within, or transiting U.S. territorial airspace; or transiting any U.S. controlled oceanic airspace, should enter ICAO code M in Item 8 of the flight plan to assist in identification of the aircraft as a state aircraft.
e. A foreign aircraft that operates to or from, within, or in transit of U.S. territorial airspace while conducting a state aircraft operation is not authorized to change its status as a state aircraft during any portion of the approved, diplomatically cleared itinerary.
f. A foreign aircraft described in subparagraph 5−6−8e above may operate from or within U.S. territorial airspace as a civil aircraft operation, once it has completed its approved, diplomatically cleared itinerary, if the aircraft operator is:
1. A foreign air carrier that holds valid FAA Part 129 operations specifications; and
2. Is in compliance with all other requirements applied to foreign civil aircraft operations from or within U.S. territorial airspace. (See paragraphs 5−6−5 and 5−6−6.)
g. Foreign state aircraft operations are not authorized to or from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport (KDCA).
h. Diplomatic Clearance Exceptions. State aircraft operations on behalf of the governments of Canada and Mexico conducted for the purposes of air ambulance, firefighting, law enforcement, search and rescue, or emergency evacuation are authorized to transit U.S. territorial airspace within 50 NM of their respective borders with the U.S., with or without an active flight plan, provided they have received and continuously transmit an ATC assigned transponder code. State aircraft operations on behalf of the governments of Canada and Mexico conducted under this subparagraph 5−6−8h are not required to obtain a diplomatic clearance from the U.S. State Department.
5−6−9. FAA/TSA Airspace Waivers
a. Operators may submit requests for FAA/TSA airspace waivers at https://waivers.faa.gov by selecting “international” as the waiver type.
b. Information regarding FAA/TSA airspace waivers can be found at: http://www.tsa.gov/for−industry/general−aviation or can be obtained by contacting TSA at (571) 227−2071.
c. All existing FAA/TSA waivers issued under previous FDC NOTAMS remain valid until the expiration date specified in the waiver, unless sooner superseded or rescinded.
5−6−10. TSA Aviation Security Programs
a. Applicants for U.S. air operator certificates will be provided contact information for TSA aviation security programs by the U.S. Department of Transportation during the certification process.
b. For information about applicable TSA security programs:
1. U.S. air carriers and commercial operators must contact their TSA Principal Security Specialist (PSS); and
2. Foreign air carriers must contact their International Industry Representative (IIR).
5−6−11. FAA Flight Routing Authorizations
a. Information about FAA routing authorizations for U.S. State Department−designated special interest country flight operations to or from, within, or transiting U.S. territorial airspace is available by country at:
1. FAA website http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/us_restrictions/; or
2. Phone by contacting the FAA System Operations Support Center (SOSC) at (202) 267−8115.
b. Special Interest Countries. The U.S. State Department−designated special interest countries are Cuba, Iran, The Democratic People’s Republic of Korea (North Korea), The People’s Republic of China, The Russian Federation, Sudan, and Syria.
NOTE−FAA flight routing authorizations are not required for aircraft registered in Hong Kong, Taiwan, or Macau.
c. Aircraft operating with the ICAO 3LD assigned to a company or entity from a country listed as a State Department−designated special interest country and holding valid FAA Part 129 operations specifications do not require FAA flight routing authorization.
d. FAA routing authorizations will only be granted for IFR operations. VFR and DVFR flight operations are prohibited for any aircraft requiring an FAA routing authorization.
5−6−12. Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic (ESCAT)
a. During defense emergency or air defense emergency conditions, additional special security instructions may be issued in accordance with 32 CFR Part 245, Plan for the Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic (ESCAT).
b. Under the provisions of 32 CFR Part 245, the military will direct the action to be taken in regard to landing, grounding, diversion, or dispersal of aircraft in the defense of the U.S. during emergency conditions.
c. At the time a portion or all of ESCAT is implemented, ATC facilities will broadcast appropriate instructions received from the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) over available ATC frequencies. Depending on instructions received from the ATCSCC, VFR flights may be directed to land at the nearest available airport, and IFR flights will be expected to proceed as directed by ATC.
d. Pilots on the ground may be required to file a flight plan and obtain an approval (through FAA) prior to conducting flight operation.
5−6−13. Interception Procedures
a. General.
1. In conjunction with the FAA, Air Defense Sectors monitor air traffic and could order an intercept in the interest of national security or defense. Intercepts during peacetime operations are vastly different than those conducted under increased states of readiness. The interceptors may be fighters or rotary wing aircraft. The reasons for aircraftintercept include, but are not limited to:
(a) Identify an aircraft;
(b) Track an aircraft;
(c) Inspect an aircraft;
(d) Divert an aircraft;
(e) Establish communications with an aircraft.
2. When specific information is required (i.e., markings, serial numbers, etc.) the interceptor pilot(s) will respond only if, in their judgment, the request can be conducted in a safe manner. Intercept procedures are described in some detail in the paragraphs below. In all situations, the interceptor pilot will consider safety of flight for all concerned throughout the intercept procedure. The interceptor pilot(s) will use caution to avoid startling the intercepted crew or passengers and understand that maneuvers considered normal for interceptor aircraft may be considered hazardous to other aircraft.
3. All aircraft operating in US national airspace are highly encouraged to maintain a listening watch on VHF/UHF guard frequencies (121.5 or 243.0 MHz). If subjected to a military intercept, it is incumbent on civilian aviators to understand their responsibilities and to comply with ICAO standard signals relayed from the intercepting aircraft. Specifically, aviators are expected to contact air traffic control without delay (if able) on the local operating frequency or on VHF/UHF guard. Noncompliance may result in the use of force.
b. Fighter intercept phases (See FIG 5−6−1).
1. Approach Phase.
As standard procedure, intercepted aircraft are approached from behind. Typically, interceptor aircraft will be employed in pairs, however, it is not uncommon for a single aircraft to perform the intercept operation. Safe separation between interceptors and intercepted aircraft is the responsibility of the intercepting aircraft and will be maintained at all times.
2. Identification Phase.
Interceptor aircraft will initiate a controlled closure toward the aircraft of interest, holding at a distance no closer than deemed necessary to establish positive identification and to gather the necessary information. The interceptor may also fly past the intercepted aircraft while gathering data at a distance considered safe based on aircraft performance characteristics.
3. Post Intercept Phase.
An interceptor may attempt to establish communications via standard ICAO signals. In time-critical situations where the interceptor is seeking an immediate response from the intercepted aircraft or if the intercepted aircraft remains non-compliant to instruction, the interceptor pilot may initiate a divert maneuver. In this maneuver, the interceptor flies across the intercepted aircraft’s flight path (minimum 500 feet separation and commencing from slightly below the intercepted aircraft altitude) in the general direction the intercepted aircraft is expected to turn. The interceptor will rock its wings (daytime) or flash external lights/select afterburners (night) while crossing the intercepted aircraft’s flight path. The interceptor will roll out in the direction the intercepted aircraft is expected to turn before returning to verify the aircraft of interest is complying. The intercepted aircraft is expected to execute an immediate turn to the direction of the intercepting aircraft. If the aircraft of interest does not comply, the interceptor may conduct a second climbing turn across the intercepted aircraft’s flight path (minimum 500 feet separation and commencing from slightly below the intercepted aircraft altitude) while expending flares as a warning signal to the intercepted aircraft to comply immediately and to turn in the direction indicated and to leave the area. The interceptor is responsible to maintain safe separation during these and all intercept maneuvers. Flight safety is paramount.
NOTE−
1. NORAD interceptors will take every precaution to preclude the possibility of the intercepted aircraft experiencing jet wash/wake turbulence; however, there is a potential that this condition could be encountered.
2. During Night/IMC, the intercept will be from below flight path.
Intercept Procedures
c. Helicopter Intercept phases (See FIG 5−6−2)
1. Approach Phase.
Aircraft intercepted by helicopter may be approached from any direction, although the helicopter should close for identification and signaling from behind. Generally, the helicopter will approach off the left side of the intercepted aircraft. Safe separation between the helicopter and the unidentified aircraft will be maintained at all times.
2. Identification Phase.
The helicopter will initiate a controlled closure toward the aircraft of interest, holding at a distance no closer than deemed necessary to establish positive identification and gather the necessary information. The intercepted pilot should expect the interceptor helicopter to take a position off his left wing slightly forward of abeam.
3. Post Intercept Phase.
Visual signaling devices may be used in an attempt to communicate with the intercepted aircraft. Visual signaling devices may include, but are not limited to, LED scrolling signboards or blue flashing lights. If compliance is not attained through the use of radios or signaling devices, standard ICAO intercept signals (Table 5-6-1) may be employed. In order to maintain safe aircraft separation, it is incumbent upon the pilot of the intercepted aircraft not to fall into a trail position (directly behind the helicopter) if instructed to follow the helicopter. This is because the helicopter pilot may lose visual contact with the intercepted aircraft.
NOTE−Intercepted aircraft must not follow directly behind the helicopter thereby allowing the helicopter pilot to maintain visual contact with the intercepted aircraft and ensuring safe separation is maintained.
d. Summary of Intercepted Aircraft Actions. An intercepted aircraft must, without delay:
1. Adhere to instructions relayed through the use of visual devices, visual signals, and radio communications from the intercepting aircraft.
2. Attempt to establish radio communications with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate air traffic control facility by making a general call on guard frequencies (121.5 or 243.0 MHz), giving the identity, position, and nature of the flight.
Helicopter Intercept Procedures
3. If transponder equipped, select Mode 3/A Code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control.
NOTE−If instruction received from any agency conflicts with that given by the intercepting aircraft through visual or radio communications, the intercepted aircraft must seek immediate clarification.
4. The crew of the intercepted aircraft must continue to comply with interceptor aircraft signals and instructions until positively released.
5−6−14. Law Enforcement Operations by Civil and Military Organizations
a. Special law enforcement operations.
1. Special law enforcement operations include in-flight identification, surveillance, interdiction, and pursuit activities performed in accordance with official civil and/or military mission responsibilities.
2. To facilitate accomplishment of these special missions, exemptions from specified sections of the CFRs have been granted to designated departments and agencies. However, it is each organization’s responsibility to apprise ATC of their intent to operate under an authorized exemption before initiating actual operations.
3. Additionally, some departments and agencies that perform special missions have been assigned coded identifiers to permit them to apprise ATC of ongoing mission activities and solicit special air traffic assistance.
5−6−15. Interception Signals
Intercepting Signals
Intercepting Signals
5−6−16. ADIZ Boundaries and Designated Mountainous Areas (See FIG 5−6−3.)
Air Defense Identification Zone Boundaries
Designated Mountainous Areas
5−6−17. Visual Warning System (VWS)
The VWS signal consists of highly-focused red and green colored laser lights designed to illuminate in an alternating red and green signal pattern. These lasers may be directed at specific aircraft suspected of making unauthorized entry into the Washington, DC Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) proceeding on a heading or flight path that may be interpreted as a threat or that operate contrary to the operating rules for the DC SFRA. The beam is neither hazardous to the eyes of pilots/aircrew or passengers, regardless of altitude or distance from the source nor will the beam affect aircraft systems.
a. If you are communicating with ATC, and this signal is directed at your aircraft, you are required to contact ATC and advise that you are being illuminated by a visual warning system.
b. If this signal is directed at you, and you are not communicating with ATC, you are advised to turn to the most direct heading away from the center of the DC SFRA as soon as possible. Immediately contact ATC on an appropriate frequency, VHF Guard 121.5 or UHF Guard 243.0, and provide your aircraft identification, position, and nature of the flight. Failure to follow these procedures may result in interception by military aircraft. Further noncompliance with interceptor aircraft or ATC may result in the use of force.
c. Pilots planning to operate aircraft in or near the DC SFRA are to familiarize themselves with aircraft intercept procedures. This information applies to all aircraft operating within the DC SFRA including DOD, Law Enforcement, and aircraft engaged in aeromedical operations and does not change procedures established for reporting unauthorized laser illumination as published in FAA Advisory Circulars and Notices.
REFERENCE−CFR 91.161
d. More details including a video demonstration of the VWS are available from the following FAA website: www.faasafety.gov/VisualWarningSystem/VisualWarning.htm.