(Click here to download a PDF of Practice Exam 1)
Three hours are allotted for this examination: 1 hour and 30 minutes for Section I, which consists of multiple-choice questions, and 1 hour and 35 minutes for Section II, which consists of problems and essay questions.
SECTION I
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
Number of questions—75
Percent of total grade—50
This examination contains 75 multiple-choice questions. Therefore, for the examination questions, please be careful to fill in only the ovals that are preceded by numbers 1 through 75 on your answer sheet.
General Instructions
CALCULATORS MAY NOT BE USED IN THIS PART OF THE EXAMINATION.
INDICATE ALL YOUR ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS IN SECTION I ON THE SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET.
No credit will be given for anything written in this examination booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes or scratchwork. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best, COMPLETELY fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased completely.
Example:
Chicago is a
(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent
(E) village
Sample Answer
Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answer to questions about which they are not certain. In this section of the examination, as a correction for haphazard guessing, one-fourth of the number of questions you answer incorrectly will be subtracted from the number of questions you answer correctly. It is improbable, therefore, that mere guessing will improve your score significantly; it may even lower your score, and it does take time. If, however, you are not sure of the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices as wrong, your chance of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be to your advantage to answer such a question.
Use your time effectively, working as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not spend too much time on questions that are too difficult. Go on to other questions and come back to the difficult ones later if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will be able to answer all the multiple-choice questions.
SECTION I
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
Material in the following table may be useful in answering the questions in this section of the examination.
Note: For all questions involving solutions and/or chemical equations, assume that the system is in pure water and at room temperature unless otherwise stated.
Part A
Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately following it. Select the one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.
Questions 1–3 are based on the following energy diagrams.
1. This reaction has the largest activation energy.
2. This is the most exothermic reaction.
3. This reaction has the largest positive
value for ∆H.
Questions 4–6 refer to the following configurations.
(A) 1s2 2s22p6
(B) 1s2 2s22p6 3s2
(C) 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p4
(D) 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p6
(E) 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p6 4s2
4. The ground state configuration of an atom of a paramagnetic element.
5. The ground state configuration for both a potassium ion and a chloride ion.
6. An atom that has this ground-state electron configuration will have the smallest atomic radius of those listed above.
Questions 7–10 refer to the following molecules.
(A) CO2
(B) H2O
(C) SO2
(D) NO2
(E) O2
7. In this molecule, oxygen forms sp3 hybrid
orbitals.
8. This molecule contains one unpaired electron.
9. This molecule contains no pi (π) bonds.
10. Oxygen has an oxidation state of zero in the molecule.
Questions 11–14 refer to the following solutions.
(A) A solution with a pH of 1
(B) A solution with a pH of greater than 1 and less than 7
(C) A solution with a pH of 7
(D) A solution with a pH of greater than 7 and less than 13
(E) A solution with a pH of 13
For CH3COOH, Ka = 1.8 × 10–5
For NH3, Kb = 1.8 × 10–5
11. A solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.2-molar HCl and 0.2-molar NH3.
12. A solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.2-molar HNO3 and 0.2-molar NaOH.
13. A solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.2-molar HCl and 0.2-molar NaCl.
14. A solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.2-molar CH3COOH and 0.2-molar NaOH.
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
15. A pure sample of KClO3 is found to contain 71 grams of chlorine atoms. What is the mass of the sample?
(A) 122 grams
(B) 170 grams
(C) 209 grams
(D) 245 grams
(E) 293 grams
16. Which of the following experimental procedures is used to separate two substances by taking advantage of their differing boiling points?
(A) Titration
(B) Distillation
(C) Filtration
(D) Decantation
(E) Hydration
17. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) best describes the highest energy valence electron in a ground-state aluminum atom?
(A) 2, 0, 0, 
(B) 2, 1, 0,
(C) 3, 0, 0,
(D) 3, 0, 1,
(E) 3, 1, 1,
18. A chemist analyzed the carbon–carbon bond in C2H6 and found that it had a bond energy of 350 kJ/mol and a bond length of 1.5 angstroms. If the chemist performed the same analysis on the carbon–carbon bond in C2H2, how would the results compare?
(A) The bond energies and lengths for C2H2 would be the same as those of C2H6.
(B) The bond energy for C2H2 would be smaller, and the bond length would be shorter.
(C) The bond energy for C2H2 would be greater, and the bond length would be longer.
(D) The bond energy for C2H2 would be smaller, and the bond length would be longer.
(E) The bond energy for C2H2 would be greater, and the bond length would be shorter.
19. 2 MnO4– + 5 SO32– + 6 H+ → 2 Mn2+ + 5 SO42– + 3 H2O
Which of the following statements is true regarding the reaction given above?
(A) MnO4– acts as the reducing agent.
(B) H+ acts as the oxidizing agent.
(C) SO32– acts as the reducing agent.
(D) Manganese is oxidized
(E) Sulfur is reduced.
20. Which of the following can function as both a Brønsted-Lowry acid and Brønsted-Lowry base?
(A) HCl
(B) H2SO4
(C) HSO3–
(D) SO42–
(E) H+
21. Which of the following substances experiences the strongest attractive intermolecular forces?
(A) H2
(B) N2
(C) CO2
(D) NH3
(E) CH4
22. A mixture of gases at equilibrium over water at 43°C contains 9.0 moles of nitrogen, 2.0 moles of oxygen, and 1.0 mole of water vapor. If the total pressure exerted by the gases is 780 mmHg, what is the vapor pressure of water at 43°C?
(A) 65 mmHg
(B) 130 mmHg
(C) 260 mmHg
(D) 580 mmHg
(E) 720 mmHg
23.…MnO4– +…e– +…H+ →…Mn2+ +…H2O
When the half-reaction above is balanced, what is the coefficient for H+ if all the coefficients are reduced to the lowest whole number?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 8
(E) 10
24. The boiling point of water is known to be lower at high elevations. This is because
(A) hydrogen bonds are weaker at high elevations.
(B) the heat of fusion is lower at high elevations.
(C) the vapor pressure of water is higher at high elevations.
(D) the atmospheric pressure is lower at high elevations.
(E) water is denser at high elevations.
25. A student examined 2.0 moles of an unknown carbon compound and found that the sample contained 48 grams of carbon, 64 grams of oxygen, and 8 grams of hydrogen. Which of the following could be the molecular formula of the compound?
(A) CH2O
(B) CH2OH
(C) CH3COOH
(D) CH3CO
(E) C2H5OH
26. S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g) ∆H° = x
S(s) + O2(g) → SO3(g) ∆H° = y
Based on the information above, what is the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction?
2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g)
(A) x – y
(B) y – x
(C) 2x – y
(D) 2x – 2y
(E) 2y – 2x
27. How much water must be added to a 50.0 ml solution of 0.60 M HNO3 to produce a 0.40 M solution of HNO3?
(A) 25 ml
(B) 33 ml
(C) 50 ml
(D) 67 ml
(E) 75 ml
28. In which of the following equilibria would the concentrations of the products be increased if the volume of the system were decreased at constant temperature?
(A) H2(g) + Cl2(g)
2 HCl(g)
(B) 2 CO(g) + O2(g)
2 CO3(g)
(C) NO(g) + O3(g)
NO2(g) + O2(g)
(D) 2 HI(g)
H2(g) + I2(g)
(E) N2O4(g)
2 NO2(g)
29. A 100 ml sample of 0.10 molar NaOH solution was added to 100 ml of 0.10 molar H3C6H5O7. After equilibrium was established, which of the ions listed below was present in the greatest concentration?
(A) H2C6H5O7–
(B) HC6H5O72–
(C) C6H5O73–
(D) OH–
(E) H+
30. Which of the following can be determined directly from the difference between the boiling point of a pure solvent and the boiling point of a solution of a nonionic solute in the solvent, if kb for the solvent is known?
I. The mass of solute in the solution
II. The molality of the solution
III.
The volume of the solution
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only
31. The value of the equilibrium constant Keq is greater than 1 for a certain reaction under standard state conditions. Which of the following statements must be true regarding the reaction?
(A) ∆G° is negative.
(B) ∆G° is positive.
(C) ∆G° is equal to zero.
(D) ∆G° is negative if the reaction is exothermic and positive if the reaction is endothermic.
(E) ∆G° is negative if the reaction is endothermic and positive if the reaction is exothermic.
32. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?
(A) 0.1 m NaOH
(B) 0.1 m HF
(C) 0.1 m Na2SO4
(D) 0.1 m KC2H3O2
(E) 0.1 m NH4NO3
33. The molecular formula for hydrated iron (III) oxide, or rust, is generally written as Fe2O3 • x H2O because the water content in rust can vary. If a
1-molar sample of hydrated iron (III) oxide is found to contain 108 g of H2O, what is the molecular
formula for the sample?
(A) Fe2O3 • H2O
(B) Fe2O3 • 3 H2O
(C) Fe2O3 • 6 H2O
(D) Fe2O3 • 10 H2O
(E) Fe2O3 • 12 H2O
34. In which of the following reactions does the greatest increase in entropy take place?
(A) H2O(l) → H2O(g)
(B) 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g)
(C) CaH2(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + H2O(g)
(D) NH4Cl(s) → NH3(g) + HCl(g)
(E) 2 HCl(g) → H2(g) + Cl2(g)
35. The density of a sample of water decreases as it is heated above a temperature of 4°C. Which of the following will be true of an aqueous solution of NaC2H3O2 when it is heated from 10°C to 60°C?
(A) The molarity will increase.
(B) The molarity will decrease
(C) The molality will increase.
(D) The molality will decrease.
(E) The molarity and molality will remain unchanged.
37. A boiling-water bath is sometimes used instead of a flame in heating objects. Which of the following could be an advantage of a boiling-water bath over a flame?
(A) The relatively low heat capacity of water will cause the object to become hot more quickly.
(B) The relatively high density of water will cause the object to become hot more quickly.
(C) The volume of boiling water remains constant over time.
(D) The temperature of boiling water remains constant at 100°C.
(E) The vapor pressure of boiling water is equal to zero.
38. The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction will bring about a change in which of the following characteristics of the reaction?
I. The activation energy
II. The enthalpy change
III. The value of the equilibrium constant
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) II and III only
39. 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g)
The reaction above occurs by the following two-step process:
Step I: NO(g) + O2(g) → NO3(g)
Step II: NO3(g) + NO(g) → 2 NO2(g)
Which of the following is true of Step II if it is the rate-limiting step?
(A) Step II has a lower activation energy and occurs more slowly than Step I.
(B) Step II has a higher activation energy and occurs more slowly than Step I.
(C) Step II has a lower activation energy and occurs more quickly than Step I.
(D) Step II has a higher activation energy and occurs more quickly than Step I.
(E) Step II has the same activation energy and occurs at the same speed as Step I.
40. C3H7OH +…O2 →…CO2 +…H2O
One mole of C3H7OH underwent combustion as shown in the reaction above. How many moles of oxygen were required for the reaction?
(A) 2 moles
(B) 3 moles
(C) 
moles
(D) 
moles
(E) 5 moles
Questions 41–42 refer to the phase diagram below.
41. If the pressure of the substance shown in the diagram is decreased from 1.0 atmosphere to 0.5 atmosphere at a constant temperature of 100°C, which phase change will occur?
(A) Freezing
(B) Vaporization
(C) Condensation
(D) Sublimation
(E) Deposition
42. Under what conditions can all three phases of the substance shown in the diagram exist simultaneously in equilibrium?
(A) Pressure = 1.0 atm, temperature = 150°C
(B) Pressure = 1.0 atm, temperature = 100°C
(C) Pressure = 1.0 atm, temperature = 50°C
(D) Pressure = 0.5 atm, temperature = 100°C
(E) Pressure = 0.5 atm, temperature = 50°C
43. Which of the following statements regarding atomic theory is NOT true?
(A) The Bohr model of the atom was based on Planck’s quantum theory.
(B) Rutherford’s experiments with alpha particle scattering led to the conclusion that positive charge was concentrated in an atom’s nucleus.
(C) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle describes the equivalence of mass and energy.
(D) Millikan’s oil drop experiment led to the calculation of the charge on an electron.
(E) Thomson’s cathode ray experiments confirmed the existence of the electron.
| Time (min) | [ A ] M |
| 0 | 0.50 |
| 10 | 0.36 |
| 20 | 0.25 |
| 30 | 0.18 |
| 40 | 0.13 |
Reactant A underwent a decomposition reaction. The concentration of A was measured periodically and recorded in the chart above. Based on the data in the chart, which of the following statements is NOT true?
(A) The reaction is first order in [A].
(B) The reaction is first order overall.
(C) The rate of the reaction is constant over time.
(D) The half-life of reactant A is 20 minutes.
(E) The graph of ln [A] will be a straight line.
45. A solution to be used as a reagent for a reaction is to be removed from a bottle marked with its concentration. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper procedure for this process?
(A) Pouring the solution down a stirring rod into a beaker.
(B) Inserting a pipette directly into the bottle and drawing out the solution.
(C) Placing the stopper of the bottle upside down on the table top.
(D) Pouring the solution down the side of a tilted beaker.
(E) Touching the stopper of the bottle only on the handle.
46. N2(g) + 3 H2(g)
2 NH3(g) + energy
Which of the following changes to the equilibrium situation shown above will bring about an increase in the number of moles of NH3 present at equilibrium?
I. Adding N2 gas to the reaction chamber
II. Increasing the volume of the reaction chamber at constant temperature
III. Increasing the temperature of the reaction chamber at constant volume
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) II and III only
47. CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O
If 16 grams of CH4 reacts with 16 grams of O2 in the reaction shown above, which of the following will be true?
(A) The mass of H2O formed will be twice the mass of CO2 formed.
(B) Equal masses of H2O and CO2 will be formed.
(C) Equal numbers of moles of H2O and CO2 will be formed.
(D) The limiting reagent will be CH4.
(E) The limiting reagent will be O2.
48. Which of the following sets of gases would be most difficult to separate if the method of gaseous effusion is used?
(A) O2 and CO2
(B) N2 and C2H4
(C) H2 and CH4
(D) He and Ne
(E) O2 and He
49. Which of the following equilibrium expressions represents the hydrolysis of the CN– ion?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
50. Which of the following is true under any conditions for a reaction that is spontaneous at any temperature?
(A) ∆G, ∆S, and ∆H are all positive.
(B) ∆G, ∆S, and ∆H are all negative.
(C) ∆G and ∆S are negative, and ∆H is positive.
(D) ∆G and ∆S are positive, and ∆H is negative.
(E) ∆G and ∆H are negative, and ∆S is positive.
51. Which of the following pairs of compounds are isomers?
(A) HCOOH and CH3COOH
(B) CH3CH3CHO and C3H7OH
(C) C2H5OH and CH3OCH3
(D) C2H4 and C2H6
(E) C3H8 and C4H10
52. A sample of an ideal gas confined in a rigid 5.00 liter container has a pressure of 363 mmHg at a temperature of 25°C. Which of the following expressions will be equal to the pressure of the gas if the temperature of the container is increased to 35°C?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
53. If the temperature at which a reaction takes place is increased, the rate of the reaction will
(A) increase if the reaction is endothermic and decrease if the reaction is exothermic.
(B) decrease if the reaction is endothermic and increase if the reaction is exothermic.
(C) increase if the reaction is endothermic and increase if the reaction is exothermic.
(D) decrease if the reaction is endothermic and decrease if the reaction is exothermic.
(E) remain the same for both an endothermic and an exothermic reaction.
54. The acid dissociation constant for HClO is
3.0 × 10–8. What is the hydrogen ion concentration in a 0.12 M solution of HClO?
(A) 3.6 × 10–9 M
(B) 3.6 × 10–8 M
(C) 6.0 × 10–8 M
(D) 2.0 × 10–5 M
(E) 6.0 × 10–5 M
55. 2 NO(g) + 2 H2(g) → N2(g) + 2 H2O(g)
Which of the following is true regarding the relative molar rates of disappearance of the reactants and appearance of the products?
I. N2 appears at the same rate that H2 disappears.
II. H2O appears at the same rate that NO disappears.
III. NO disappears at the same rate that H2 disappears.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
56. SO42–, PO43–, ClO4–
The geometries of the polyatomic ions listed above can all be described as
(A) square planar.
(B) square pyramidal.
(C) seesaw-shaped.
(D) tetrahedral.
(E) trigonal bipyramidal.
57. 2 ZnS(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2 ZnO(s) + 2 SO2(g)
If the reaction above took place at standard temperature and pressure, what was the volume of O2(g) required to produce 40.0 grams of ZnO(s)?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
58. Which of the following salts will produce a colorless solution when added to water?
(A) Cu(NO3)2
(B) NiCl2
(C) KMnO4
(D) ZnSO4
(E) FeCl3
59. A beaker contains 300.0 ml of a 0.20 M Pb(NO3)2 solution. If 200.0 ml of a 0.20 M solution of MgCl2 is added to the beaker, what will be the final concentration of Pb2+ ions in the resulting solution?
(A) 0.020 M
(B) 0.040 M
(C) 0.080 M
(D) 0.120 M
(E) 0.150 M
60. Which of the following procedures will produce a buffered solution?
I. Equal volumes of 1 M NH3 and 1 M NH4Cl solutions are mixed.
II. Equal volumes of 1 M H2CO3 and 1 M NaHCO3
solutions are mixed.
III. Equal volumes of 1 M NH3 and 1 M H2CO3 solutions are mixed.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
61. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2 HI(g)
At 450°C the equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction shown above has a value of 50. Which of the following sets of initial conditions at 450°C will cause the reaction above to produce more H2?
I. [HI] = 5-molar, [H2] = 1-molar,
[I2] = 1-molar
II. [HI] = 10-molar, [H2] = 1-molar,
[I2] = 1-molar
III. [HI] = 10-molar, [H2] = 2-molar,
[I2] = 2-molar
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
62. Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq)
A galvanic cell that uses the reaction shown above has a standard state electromotive force of 1.1 volts. Which of the following changes to the cell will increase the voltage?
I. An increase in the mass of Zn(s) in the cell.
II. An increase in the concentration of Cu2+(aq) in the cell.
III. An increase in the concentration of Zn2+(aq) in
the cell.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only
63. The nuclide 
decays through the emission of a single beta (β–) particle. What is the resulting nuclide?
(A)
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
64. Which of the following statements is true regarding sodium and potassium?
(A) Sodium has a larger first ionization energy and a larger atomic radius.
(B) Sodium has a larger first ionization energy and a smaller atomic radius.
(C) Sodium has a smaller first ionization energy and a larger atomic radius.
(D) Sodium has a smaller first ionization energy and a smaller atomic radius.
(E) Sodium and potassium have identical first ionization energies and atomic radii.
65. HCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s) + HNO3(aq)
One-half liter of a 0.20-molar HCl solution is mixed with one-half liter of a 0.40-molar solution of AgNO3. A reaction occurs forming a precipitate as shown above. If the reaction goes to completion, what is the mass of AgCl produced?
(A) 14 grams
(B) 28 grams
(C) 42 grams
(D) 70 grams
(E) 84 grams
66. H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g)
Based on the information given in the table below, what is ∆H° for the above reaction?
(A) –860 kJ
(B) –620 kJ
(C) – 440 kJ
(D) –180 kJ
(E) +240 kJ
67. The first ionization energy for magnesium is
730 kJ/mol. The third ionization energy for magnesium is 7700 kJ/mol. What is the most likely value for magnesium’s second ionization energy?
(A) 490 kJ/mol
(B) 1,400 kJ/mol
(C) 4,200 kJ/mol
(D) 7,100 kJ/mol
(E) 8,400 kJ/mol
68.
Molten NaCl is electrolyzed with a constant current of 1.00 ampere. What is the shortest amount of time, in seconds, that it would take to produce 1.00 mole of solid sodium?
(1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs)
(A) 19,300 seconds
(B) 32,200 seconds
(C) 48,300 seconds
(D) 64,300 seconds
(E) 96,500 seconds
69. How many moles of KCl must be added to 200 milliliters of a 0.5-molar NaCl solution to create a solution in which the concentration of Cl– ion is 1.0-molar? (Assume the volume of the solution remains constant.)
(A) 0.1 moles
(B) 0.2 moles
(C) 0.3 moles
(D) 0.4 moles
(E) 0.5 moles
70. A student placed solid barium oxalate in a beaker filled with distilled water and allowed it to come to equilibrium with its dissolved ions. The student then added a nickel (II) nitrate solution to the beaker to create the following equilibrium situation.
BaC2O4 + Ni2+ ↔ Ba2+ + NiC2O4
If the solubility product for BaC2O4 is 2 × 10–7 and the solubility product for NiC2O4 is 4 × 10–10, which of the following gives the value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction above?
(A) 2 × 103
(B) 5 × 102
(C) 5 × 10–2
(D) 2 × 10–3
(E) 8 × 10–17
71. A 100-gram sample of pure 
decays by electron capture with a half-life of 35 days. How long will it take for 90 grams of 
to accumulate?
(A) 31 days
(B) 39 days
(C) 78 days
(D) 116 days
(E) 315 days
72. The solubility product, Ksp, of CaF2 is 4 × 10–11. Which of the following expressions is equal to the solubility of CaF2?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
73. When excess hydroxide ions were added to 1.0 liter of CaCl2 solution, Ca(OH)2 precipitate was formed. If all of the calcium ions in the solution were precipitated in 7.4 grams of Ca(OH)2, what was the initial concentration of the CaCl2 solution?
(A) 0.05-molar
(B) 0.10-molar
(C) 0.15-molar
(D) 0.20-molar
(E) 0.30-molar
74. When a solution of KMnO4 was mixed with a solution of HCl, Cl2 gas bubbles formed and Mn2+ ions appeared in the solution. Which of the following has occurred?
(A) K+ has been oxidized by Cl–.
(B) K+ has been oxidized by H+.
(C) Cl– has been oxidized by K+.
(D) Cl– has been oxidized by MnO4–.
(E) MnO4– has been oxidized by Cl–.
75. 2 Cu+(aq) + M(s) → 2 Cu(s) + M2+(aq) Eo = +0.92 V
Cu+(aq) + e− → Cu(s) Eo = +0.52 V
Based on the reduction potentials given above, what is the standard reduction potential for the following half-reaction?
M2+(aq) + 2 e– → M(s)
(A) +0.40 V
(B) +0.12 V
(C) −0.12 V
(D) −0.40 V
(E) −1.44 V
STOP
END OF SECTION I
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.
DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
