CHAPTER 5

1.   The Core Analytical Reading Skills

2.   The Three Key Questions

3.   The Three Secondary Questions

4.   Advanced SAT Reading Techniques

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The SAT Reading Test

What is the SAT Reading test?

The SAT includes a 65-minute Reading test designed to assess your

proficiency in reading and comprehending a broad range of high-quality, appropriately challenging literary and informational texts in the content areas of U.S. and world literature, history/social studies, and science.

The SAT Reading test consists of four passages, each 500–750 words long. (For an example of the Reading test, look at Section 1 of the Diagnostic Test in Chapter 2.) You are to read the passages and answer multiple-choice questions about

•   the purpose and main idea of the passage

•   the meaning and purpose of particular words and phrases in context

•   the inferences that can be justifiably drawn from the passage

•   the tone and attitude conveyed by the author

Additionally, some passages with a common theme are paired and accompanied by questions about

•   points of agreement or disagreement between the paired passages

•   differences in tone or emphasis between the paired passages

Also, some of the passages will be accompanied by tables or graphs and questions about

•   how to interpret the data represented in the table or graph

•   how to incorporate these data appropriately into the passage

How is it used?

Colleges use your SAT Reading test score as a measure of your ability to perform demanding college-level reading tasks. The SAT Reading test score represents one-half of your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing score. The other half of this score comes from the Writing and Language test.

Sound intimidating? It’s not.

There are only four rules of analytical reading to learn in order to ace the SAT Reading test, and the 12 lessons in this chapter will give you the knowledge and practice you need to master all of them.

The Core Analytical Reading Skills

Lesson 1: Learn to read analytically

Which is correct?

A.   The SAT Reading test is primarily a test of your multiple-choice test-taking skill.

B.   The SAT Reading test is primarily a test of your analytical reading skill.

C.   The SAT Reading test is primarily a test of your literary reading skill.

Although basic test-taking skills are helpful, they won’t get you very far. Acing the SAT Reading test requires solid analytical reading skills, that is, the ability to extract the key information from any passage and to identify its evidence. Specifically, you should be able to read any SAT passage on any topic and determine its

•   purpose

•   central idea

•   structure

•   functional elements

•   tone

It’s important to remember that the SAT Reading test is not a literary skills test. You may spend a lot of time in English class learning to

•   explore connections between a text and its cultural context

•   evaluate the emotional effect of a literary piece

•   explore abstract ideas that are implicit in a work, such as “the concept of utopia”

•   find examples of symbolism, foreshadowing, and other subtle and figurative literary elements

But these literary skills, while important for your enjoyment and edification, are not tested by the SAT Reading test.

Lesson 2: Get your mind right

Which is correct?

A.   The SAT Reading passages are chosen to be as difficult and boring as possible.

B.   The SAT Reading passages are chosen because they represent the kinds of prose students are most likely to encounter in a college liberal arts curriculum.

The answer, despite popular belief, is B. The SAT Reading passages are not chosen by sadists. They are selected to represent the kind of reading you will do in college. Don’t begin the SAT Reading Test with the attitude, “Oh no, not another tedious and pointless SAT reading passage!” This will only sabotage your performance by creating a negative self-fulfilling prophecy.

The Three Key Questions

Lesson 3: Ask, “What is the purpose of this passage?”

To comprehend a passage analytically, you must first categorize it in terms of which three categories?

A.   Fiction, nonfiction, or poetry

B.   Exposition, rhetoric, or narrative

C.   History, science, or humanities

The correct answer is B. Don’t worry so much about whether the passage is fiction or nonfiction, or if the topic is unfamiliar to you. You need a plan of attack for any passage the SAT throws your way. Strong analytical reading begins with asking, “What is the overall purpose of this passage?” Any well-written piece of prose has one of three possible purposes corresponding to the following categories:

•   Expository prose presents objective information and is organized around a guiding question, such as “What happened in the Battle of Bull Run?” or “What is polarized light, and what is it used for?” Examples of expository prose include news articles and science textbooks.

•   Rhetorical prose presents an author’s personal point of view and is organized around a thesis, such as “We have an exaggerated perception of gang violence,” or “Hiking is good for the soul.” Examples of rhetorical prose include Op-Ed essays, blog posts, and some magazine articles.

•   Narrative prose presents a fictional or nonfictional story and is organized around a protagonist and a transformative struggle, such as “Jean Valjean struggles to redeem himself,” or “King Lear struggles to establish a legacy.” Examples of narrative prose include memoirs, short stories, biographies, and novels.

Lesson 4: Ask, “What is the central idea of this passage?”

What is the best way to determine the central idea of a passage?

A.   Read the first paragraph, which always summarizes the main idea.

B.   Read the topic sentence of the final paragraph.

C.   It depends on the passage type and structure.

The correct answer is C. Although the first and last paragraphs often contain key information, sometimes the first paragraph or two simply provide background information or summarize a misconception to be refuted. Sometimes a passage doesn’t get around to the central idea until the third or fourth paragraph.

Consider this excerpt and the question that follows:

Without some appreciation of common large numbers, it’s impossible to react with the proper skepticism to terrifying reports that more than a million American kids are kidnapped each year, or with the proper sobriety to a warhead carrying a megaton of explosive power—the equivalent of a million tons (or two billion pounds) of TNT.

And if you don’t have some feeling for probabilities, automobile accidents might seem a relatively minor problem of local travel, whereas being killed by terrorists might seem to be a major risk when going overseas. As often observed, however, the 45,000 people killed annually on American roads are approximately equal in number to all American dead in the Vietnam War. On the other hand, the seventeen Americans killed by terrorists in 1985 were among the 28 million of us who traveled abroad that year—that’s one chance in 1.6 million of becoming a victim

The primary purpose of this passage is to

A)   warn against the dangers associated with daily living in the United States

B)   compare the costs of war-related activities to the costs of domestic activities

C)   discuss common misunderstandings about statistical data

D)   propose solutions to some problems in American domestic and foreign policy

Most students get this question wrong, because they focus too much on specific details and not enough on overall purpose and logical structure.

So what is the central idea in this passage? If you look at some of the passage details, such as the references to car accidents and kidnapping, you might be reminded of the dangers associated with daily living or the cost of domestic activities or even domestic policy problems. If you notice the references to warheads, the Vietnam War, and terrorism, you might be reminded of war-related activities or American foreign policy problems. For these reasons, choices A, B, and D might all seem like good answers.

But they are all wrong.

Consider choice A. Is kidnapping mentioned in order to warn against danger? No: the author says that the proper response to the terrifying reports that more than a million American kids are kidnapped each year is not fear and caution, but skepticism. In fact, his point is that if we had some appreciation of common large numbers, we would see that this statistic is preposterous.

How about choice B? The statement that the 45,000 people killed annually on American roads are approximately equal in number to all American dead in the Vietnam War seems to be comparing the costs of war-related activities to the costs of domestic activities. But is this the primary purpose of the passage? No, this statistic is mentioned only to make a broader point: that it is irrational to fear terrorism more than daily driving, and that this irrationality is due, in least in part, to our lack of feeling about probabilities.

Now look at choice D. Does the passage propose any solutions to the problems of kidnapping, terrorism, nuclear weapons, car accidents, or war? Certainly not in these first two paragraphs. More important, these paragraphs suggest a very different overall purpose.

The point of these first two paragraphs is that [w]ithout some appreciation of common large numbers and a feeling for probabilities, we will overreact to some dangers and underreact to others. In other words, there is some danger inherent in our common misunderstandings about statistical data. Therefore, the best answer is choice C.

Consider this question about the “innumeracy” passage that is the source of the earlier quote:

The author mentions the work of Drs. Kronlund and Phillips (lines 53–58) primarily in order to

A)   warn against the risks of certain medical procedures

B)   highlight a promising medical breakthrough

C)   demonstrate the fallibility of medical experts

D)   dispute a common medical theory

Even without reading lines 53–58, you can see which choices don’t fit with the overall purpose and central idea that we identified in the previous question. Since the primary purpose of this passage is to “discuss common misunderstandings about statistical data,” the reference to the work of Drs. Kronlund and Phillips must serve this primary purpose in some way. Choices B and D are not strongly connected to the understanding of statistical data. Choices A and C, however, are plausible answers because warning against risks often involves understanding the data that show the likelihood of those risks, and the fallibility of medical experts might include their inability to understand and interpret statistics (which is precisely the main theme of the essay).

Exercise 1

This passage is adapted from John Allen Paulos, Innumeracy ©1988 Hill and Wang, a division of Farrar, Straus and Giroux, LLC. Paulos is a mathematician discussing the role of mathematics in American culture.

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1

The primary purpose of this passage is to

A)   warn against the dangers associated with daily living in the United States

B)   compare the costs of war-related activities to the costs of domestic activities

C)   discuss common misunderstandings about statistical data

D)   propose solutions to some problems in American domestic and foreign policy

2

The author regards the “reports” (line 3) with an attitude of

A)   journalistic objectivity

B)   informed incredulity

C)   intense alarm

D)   lighthearted humor

3

The activities listed in lines 21–25 serve primarily as examples of

A)   underappreciated dangers

B)   intolerable risks

C)   medical priorities

D)   policy failures

4

The passage includes all of the following EXCEPT

A)   ad hominem

B)   verifiable statistics

C)   amusing illustration

D)   social assessment

5

In line 32, the author’s use of the word “penetrating” is an example of

A)   subtle euphemism

B)   deliberate hyperbole

C)   sincere acclamation

D)   ironic sarcasm

6

In line 32, “personalize” most nearly means

A)   customize decoratively

B)   describe insultingly

C)   represent humanely

D)   interpret out of context

7

The passage suggests that the “exotic malady” (line 35) is an example of

A)   a delusion that is slowly being dispelled

B)   a risk that is wildly overestimated

C)   a peril that is rapidly growing

D)   a disease that defies conventional treatment

8

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 1–7 (“Without some … of TNT”)

B)   Lines 12–16 (“As often … War”)

C)   Lines 39–40 (“There’s a joke … relevant”)

D)   Lines 58–64 (“I once … quite well”)

9

The author mentions the work of Drs. Kronlund and Phillips (lines 53–58) primarily in order to

A)   warn against the risks of certain medical procedures

B)   highlight a promising medical breakthrough

C)   demonstrate the fallibility of medical experts

D)   dispute a common medical theory

Lesson 5: Ask, “What is the structure of this passage?”

Passage adapted from Cleveland Hickman, Larry Roberts, and Allan Larson, Integrated Principles of Zoology. ©2001 The McGraw-Hill Companies.

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Exercise 2

This passage is adapted from Cleveland Hickman, Larry Roberts, and Allan Larson, Integrated Principles of Zoology. ©2001 The McGraw-Hill Companies.

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1

The author regards the examples listed in lines 5–7 as

A)   scientific frauds

B)   astonishing discoveries

C)   faulty conclusions

D)   quaint traditions

2

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 1–4 (“In ancient … material”)

B)   Lines 7–10 (“Warmth … organisms”)

C)   Lines 21–23 (“In 1861 … matter”)

D)   Lines 30–32 (“But when … proliferate”)

3

Louis Pasteur would most likely fault the “recipe” described in lines 15–20 for its lack of

A)   scientific controls

B)   quantitative precision

C)   fermentable material

D)   airborne microorganisms

4

In line 40, “mortal” most nearly means

A)   human

B)   earthly

C)   bitter

D)   fatal

5

The final paragraph suggests that Pasteur was mistaken about

A)   the chemical composition of living cells

B)   the possibility of life arising from nonliving matter

C)   when the earliest forms of life arose on Earth

D)   the existence of a common ancestor to all living things

6

In line 46, “basic” most nearly means

A)   innate

B)   quintessential

C)   easily understood

D)   rudimentary

7

In the final paragraph, the author characterizes the early earth primarily as

A)   idyllic

B)   mysterious

C)   perilous

D)   chaotic

8

Which best describes the content and organization of the passage as a whole?

A)   the account of a discovery followed by a discussion of its practical applications

B)   the description of a common belief followed by a presentation of the evidence refuting it

C)   the illustration of a complex theory followed by a consideration of its inadequacies

D)   the story of the struggles of a scientist followed by an appreciation of his legacy

The Three Secondary Questions

Lesson 6: Ask, “How does the author use language?”

Good writers choose their words carefully. Each word should serve a purpose in conveying an idea or tone to the reader. Often, SAT Reading questions ask you to determine the meaning or tone of particular words or phrases based on context.

Consider question 4 in Exercise 2:

4. In line 40, “mortal” most nearly means

A)   human

B)   earthly

C)   bitter

D)   fatal

We can use the word mortal in many different ways. In Socrates is merely mortal, it means “human.” In The coffin contained our dog’s mortal remains, it means “earthly.” In They were mortal enemies, it means “bitter.” In The infection turned out to be a mortal one, it means “fatal.” So answering this question requires knowing more than the definition of mortal; it requires understanding the context of this particular sentence. When Pasteur said,“Never will the doctrine of spontaneous generation arise from this mortal blow,” he meant that the doctrine is as dead as an opponent who has been struck with a sword. Therefore, in this context, mortal means “fatal,” and the correct answer is D.

Consider question 7 in Exercise 2:

7. In the final paragraph, the author characterizes
the early Earth primarily as

A)   idyllic

B)   mysterious

C)   perilous

D)   chaotic

The passage is Exercise 2 is an expository essay, and therefore has an objective overall purpose. This means that the author’s point of view is not at issue here. However, the author may still use language to convey tone. In the final paragraph, early Earth is described as a chemical-rich cauldron in which, by chance, the first self-replicating chemical units were formed. Although this is obviously not a portrayal of an idyllic (“blissful”) scene, a chemical-rich cauldron could certainly be mysterious, perilous, or chaotic. So which tone does the author primarily mean to convey?

To answer this question, as with so many SAT Reading questions, we must step back and look at the bigger picture. The point of this paragraph is that the earliest life most likely arose from the hot, seething, bubbling mixture of gas and liquid that pervaded the earth billions of years ago. In other words, the author describes a chaotic world. He is not portraying early Earth as mysterious, because he is claiming to understand important aspects of that ancient environment. He is also not portraying the early Earth as perilous, because no creatures yet existed to suffer its dangers.

Exercise 3

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This passage is adapted from John R. Skoyles and Dorion Sagan, Up from Dragons. ©2002 The McGraw-Hill Companies. Here, the authors discuss the evolution of human intelligence.

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1

The authors use the phrase “equal certainty” (lines 24–25) to make the point that

A)   the reason for the Neanderthals’ extinction is now well known

B)   Neanderthals may not have coexisted with modern humans after all

C)   scientists disagree about the vocal ability of Neanderthals

D)   the ability to communicate is necessary to the survival of a hunting species

2

The authors of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

A)   anthropological research should adopt higher standards of evidence

B)   physical weakness is not necessarily a disadvantage in the fight for survival

C)   Neanderthals lacked the vocal ability to develop sophisticated language

D)   modern humans could not have achieved as much without the help of the Neanderthals

3

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 24–26 (“Equal certainty … did not”)

B)   Lines 30–33 (“Indeed, hunters … everyday life”)

C)   Lines 40–42 (“It is not … the Neanderthals”)

D)   Lines 43–47 (“The reason … our minds”)

4

The term Cro-Magnon refers to the earliest members of the species H. sapiens. Which of following statements is most justified by the diagram in Figure 1?

A)   The Cro-Magnon are direct descendants of H. neanderthalensis.

B)   The Cro-Magnon and H. heidelbergensis both share A. afarensis as a common ancestor.

C)   Competition with the Cro-Magnon led to the extinction of H. erectus.

D)   The Cro-Magnon and A. robustus both descended from H. habilis.

5

If the fossil record indicated in the accompanying diagram is assumed to be accurate and complete, what is the longest period of time that any single hominid species lived on the earth?

A)   1,000,000 years

B)   1,250,000 years

C)   1,750,000 years

D)   2,000,000 years

6

Which of the following best describes how the diagram supports the main argument of this passage?

A)   It shows that hominid species have existed for over 2,000,000 years.

B)   It shows that H. neanderthalensis had a long vocal chamber.

C)   It shows that H. sapiens and H. neanderthalensis both existed in the period between 100,000 and 40,000 years ago.

D)   It shows that H. sapiens and H. neanderthalensis had a common ancestor.

7

The authors mention that “hunter-gatherers use sophisticated sign language” (line 34) primarily in order to

A)   refute a common misconception about hunter-gatherers

B)   specify the mechanism by which modern humans came to replace Neanderthals

C)   bolster their claim about the larger brain size of Neanderthals

D)   suggest that long vocal chambers might not provide a decisive evolutionary advantage

8

In line 49, “tapping” most nearly means

A)   exploiting

B)   exhausting

C)   nominating

D)   monitoring

9

The authors mention “cell phones” and “diplomacy” (line 56) primarily as examples of

A)   universally admired commercial products

B)   effective means of global communication

C)   goods and services based on intellectual resources

D)   activities that require little physical strength

Lesson 7: Ask, “How does the author use evidence?”

Always be ready to justify your answer to any SAT Reading question, and to answer literal evidence questions and quantitative evidence questions.

Consider questions 1 and 2 in Exercise 2:

1. The author regards the examples listed
in lines 5–7 as

A)   scientific frauds

B)   astonishing discoveries

C)   faulty conclusions

D)   quaint traditions

2. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 1–4 (“In ancient … material”)

B)   Lines 7–10 (“Warmth … organisms”)

C)   Lines 21–23 (“In 1861 … matter”)

D)   Lines 30–32 (“But when … proliferate”)

Lines 5–7 list the following examples: frogs appeared to arise from damp earth, mice from putrefied matter, insects from dew, and maggots from decaying meat. In line 1, the author indicates that these are things that people commonly believed in ancient times. But the passage then goes on to explain that these beliefs are mistaken, and that life in fact does not arise that way. Therefore, the answer to question 1 is C: faulty conclusions.

What literal evidence best shows that the author regards these statements as faulty conclusions? In lines 21–23, the author states that in fact, living organisms cannot so easily arise from nonliving matter. Notice that this is a clear, direct statement that the author regards the beliefs listed in lines 5–7 as faulty conclusions. Therefore, the correct answer to question 2 is C. Choice A is incorrect because lines 1–4 simply state that ancient people believed these things, not that the author disagrees. Choice B is incorrect because lines 7–10 just give details about these beliefs, but no indication that the author doesn’t share them. Choice D is incorrect because lines 30–32 just give a detail about Pasteur’s experiment, and no direct indication that the author disagrees with the list of beliefs.

Consider questions 2 and 3 in Exercise 3:

2. The authors of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

A)   anthropological research should adopt higher standards of evidence

B)   physical weakness is not necessarily a disadvantage in the fight for survival

C)   Neanderthals lacked the vocal ability to develop sophisticated language

D)   modern humans could not have achieved as much without the help of the Neanderthals

3. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 24–26 (“Equal certainty … did not”)

B)   Lines 30–33 (“Indeed, hunters … everyday life”)

C)   Lines 40–42 (“It is not … the Neanderthals”)

D)   Lines 43–47 (“The reason … our minds”)

The answer to question 2 is B: physical weakness is not necessarily a disadvantage in the fight for survival. How do we know? Because this is a direct implication of the main thesis that humans came to dominate the Neanderthals by taking advantage of their intellectual abilities rather than relying on their physical strength.

Where is the best literal evidence for this? In lines 43–47, where the authors state their main thesis: The reason we—anatomically modern humans—won out lies, we suspect, not in being brighter or better able to speak but in our very physical frailty and our resulting need to exploit our minds. Therefore, the correct answer to question 3 is choice D. Choice A is incorrect because this sentence merely states that scientists disagree about the length of the Neanderthal vocal chamber. Choice B is incorrect because this sentence merely states that hunters sometimes find it helpful to communicate silently. Choice C is incorrect because this sentence merely states that the ability to speak cannot explain our dominance over the Neanderthals.

Consider questions 4, 5, and 6 in Exercise 3:

4. The term Cro-Magnon refers to the earliest members of the species H. sapiens. Which of following statements is most justified by the diagram in Figure 1?

A)   The Cro-Magnon are direct descendants of H. neanderthalensis.

B)   The Cro-Magnon and H. heidelbergensis both share A. afarensis as a common ancestor.

C)   Competition with the Cro-Magnon led to the extinction of H. erectus.

D)   The Cro-Magnon and A. robustus both descended from H. habilis.

5. If the fossil record indicated in the diagram in Figure 1 is assumed to be accurate and complete, what is the longest period of time that any single hominid species lived on the earth?

A)   1,000,000 years

B)   1,250,000 years

C)   1,750,000 years

D)   2,000,000 years

6. Which of the following best describes how Figure 1 supports the main argument of this passage?

A)   It shows that hominid species have existed for over 2,000,000 years.

B)   It shows that H. neanderthalensis had a long vocal chamber.

C)   It shows that H. sapiens and H. neanderthalensis both existed between 100,000 and 40,000 years ago.

D)   It shows that H. sapiens and H. neanderthalensis had a common ancestor.

The figure shows a “family tree” of hominid species going back approximately 3 million years. The vertical bars represent the approximate time periods in which each species lived (according to the fossil record), and lines between species indicate the most likely lines of heritage. The dotted line in the lower left portion of the diagram indicates some uncertainty about whether or not A. robustus descended from A. africanus.

The correct answer to question 4 is B. The undotted lines in the diagram indicate that H. sapiens (which includes the Cro-Magnon) descended from H. heidelbergensis, which descended from H. erectus, which descended from H. habilis, which descended from A. afarensis. Therefore, the Cro-Magnon and H. heidelbergensis both share A. afarensis as a common ancestor. Choice A is incorrect because the diagram shows no line of descent from H. neanderthalensis to H. sapiens. Choice C is incorrect because the diagram contains no information about the reasons for extinction. Choice D is incorrect because there is no line of descent from H. habilis to A. robustus.

The correct answer to question 5 is C. The longest vertical bar for any hominid species is that for H. erectus, which begins at about the 2-million-year mark and ends at about the 250,000-year mark. Subtracting these two values gives us a time span of about 1,750,000 years.

The correct answer to question 6 is C. Although statements A and D are both valid conclusions based on the information in the diagram, neither of these facts supports the main argument of the passage, which is found in lines 43–47: The reason we—anatomically modern humans—won out [in our competition with the Neanderthals] lies, we suspect, not in being brighter or better able to speak but in our very physical frailty and our resulting need to exploit our minds. Therefore, the argument rests on the fact that H. sapiens coexisted with H. neanderthalensis. The diagram clearly shows that both species lived in the period between approximately 100,000 years ago and 40,000 years ago, and so could have been in direct competition. It also shows that H. neanderthalensis appears to have gone extinct, because its vertical bar does not reach all the way up to the 0 mark.

Lesson 8: Ask, “How does the author use rhetorical devices?”

The SAT Reading test may ask you about the rhetorical effect of particular sections of the passage. These questions test your ability to recognize particular rhetorical and literary devices that the author may use to persuade the reader.

16 Basic Stylistic and Rhetorical Devices

An ad hominem is an attack “on the person” rather than an attack on his or her ideas or reasoning. For example, Her political opinions can’t be trusted because she is just an actress is not an argument, but merely an ad hominem.

An allusion is an implicit reference to something. For example, the statement He’s gone down the rabbit hole is an allusion to the bizarre and fanciful episodes in the story Alice in Wonderland.

An analogy is an illustrative comparison between things that have a similar function or structure. For example, the levels of processing in a computer provide an analogy for understanding levels of processing in the human brain.

An anecdote is an illustrative story. For example, a story about a friend whose headache went away after he stood on his head for ten minutes is anecdotal evidence, not scientific evidence, for the health benefits of inversion.

An aphorism is a widely accepted truth. For example, the aphorism If it ain’t broke, don’t fix it can provide a concise argument against spending a lot of money on a new program. Aphorisms are also called maxims, adages, or proverbs.

An appeal to authority is a suggestion that the reader should agree with an idea because a respected authority happens to believe it. For example: The world’s greatest scientist, Sir Isaac Newton, believed that iron could be turned into gold, so who are we to question the idea?

An appeal to emotion is an attempt to persuade the reader through an emotionally charged anecdote or allusion. For example, a story about an infuriating experience with an insurance salesman may be an effective way to argue against aggressive sales tactics.

Characterization is the use of imagery, diction, or description to convey a particular attitude toward a person, thing, or idea. For example, referring to a proposal as a scheme characterizes it as being deceitful.

A euphemism is a term that makes something seem more positive than it is. For example, salespersons or political canvassers often use the term courtesy call as a euphemism for an unwanted disruption.

Hyperbole is deliberate exaggeration for persuasive effect. For example, saying that Molly’s comma usage is a catastrophe is almost certainly hyperbole.

Irony is a deliberate reversal of expectations in order to surprise a reader. For example, Christopher Hitchens justified his attitude toward free will by using irony: I believe in free will, because I have no other choice.

A metaphor is an application of a word or phrase to something it doesn’t literally apply to. For example, calling a refusal a slap in the face uses metaphor to emphasize its harshness.

Rhetorical parallelism is the use of repeated grammatical form to emphasize a point. For example, John F. Kennedy used parallelism in his inaugural address when he said we shall pay any price, bear any burden, meet any hardship, support any friend, oppose any foe to assure the survival and the success of liberty.

Personification is the attribution of personal qualities to something that is not a person. For example, we are using rhetorical personification when we say that an idea is on its last legs or gave its last gasp.

A simile is a comparison using like or as. For instance, Irena Dunn used rhetorical simile when she said A woman without a man is like a fish without a bicycle.

An understatement encourages the reader to complete a point by suggesting that it is less significant than it obviously is. For instance, it’s quite an understatement to say that Donald Trump is a tad self-absorbed.

Consider questions 4 and 5 from Exercise 1:

4. The passage includes all of the following EXCEPT

A)   ad hominem

B)   verifiable statistics

C)   amusing illustration

D)   social assessment

5. In line 32, the author’s use of the word “penetrating” is an example of

A)   subtle euphemism

B)   deliberate hyperbole

C)   sincere acclamation

D)    ironic sarcasm

The correct answer to question 4 is A: ad hominem. Although the passage criticizes widespread innumeracy, at no point does the author attack anyone personally. Choice B is incorrect because the author uses verifiable statistics liberally in the first, second, third, and sixth paragraphs. Choice C is incorrect because the joke described in the fourth paragraph is an amusing illustration. Choice D is incorrect because the passage makes a social assessment in lines 32–34 when he states that [t]his tendency to personalize is a characteristic of many who suffer from innumeracy, and again in lines 52–53 when he states that we too often lack an intuitive grasp for these numbers.

The correct answer to question 5 is D: ironic sarcasm. The author states that the innumerate will inevitably respond with the non sequitur, “Yes, but what if you’re that one,” and then nod knowingly, as if they’ve demolished your argument with penetrating insight (lines 28–32). In other words, the penetrating insight is really not penetrating at all: it is a non sequitur (a statement that does not follow logically from the premises). The author is using the word penetrating ironically and sarcastically. Choice A is incorrect, because the author is not using the word penetrating to make the insight seem more positive than it is. In fact, he is criticizing, not euphemizing. Choice B is incorrect because the author is not using exaggeration for rhetorical effect. Choice C is incorrect because penetrating is not intended as an acclamation (word of praise).

Advanced SAT Reading Techniques

Lesson 9: Master the “preemptive attack” strategies

Which is the best way to attack SAT Reading passages?

A.   Read the questions first, then go back to the passage and look for the answers to those particular questions.

B.   Read the passage first, with the key questions in mind, then attack the questions with the passage summary in mind.

Which is the best way to attack SAT Reading questions?

C.   Read the question, check any line references, then read all of the choices, crossing out the “unreasonable” answers, then choose the most reasonable choice that remains.

D.   Read the question, check any line references, then answer it in your own mind before looking at any of the choices, then choose the answer that best matches yours.

These two questions have been roundly debated in the SAT prep industry for decades. I’ve seen hundreds of students use all of these strategies, and in my experience, the most reliable attack strategy is the “preemptive attack” strategy.

Consider question 9 from Exercise 3:

9. The authors mention “cell phones” and “diplomacy” (line 56) primarily as examples of

A)   universally admired commercial products

B)   effective means of global communication

C)   goods and services based on intellectual resources

D)   activities that require little physical strength

This question can easily trip you up if you do not use the preemptive attack strategy. If you try to answer it without understanding the “big picture,” you will focus on the sentences in the vicinity of line 56. This paragraph mentions that these are products and services (line 55) coming from Switzerland, Finland, Singapore, and Japan (lines 51–52), so choice A: universally coveted commercial products may seem reasonable. It is also obvious that cell phones and diplomacy are effective means of global communication, so choice B also may seem reasonable. The paragraph also mentions using physical strength rather than tapping the potential of their brains (lines 49–50), so choice D may seem reasonable, as well.

But all of those choices are traps.

Instead, attack this question “preemptively.” First, read the passage and summarize it in terms of the three key questions: it is a rhetorical essay arguing for the thesis that the reason [Homo sapiens won out over the Neanderthals] lies, we suspect, not in being brighter or better able to speak but in our very frailty and our resulting need to exploit our minds. Then translate question 9 into an open-ended question: the authors mention “cell phones” and “diplomacy” primarily as examples of what? If these examples serve the purpose of the essay (which of course they do), then they are examples of how countries also exploit their minds rather than relying on natural resources. Therefore the correct answer is C: goods and services based on intellectual resources. Notice that choices A, B, and D don’t fit at all with the purpose of the paragraph.

Exercise 4

This passage is from C. F. Black, “The Evolution of Explanation.” ©2015 Christopher F. Black and College Hill Coaching. Reprinted by permission of the author.

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1

The first paragraph characterizes the “march of human intellectual progress” as

A)   halting

B)   inspirational

C)   misguided

D)   controversial

2

The first paragraph is notable primarily for its use of

A)   euphemism

B)   understatement

C)   metaphor

D)   anecdote

3

In line 3, “mechanistic” most nearly means

A)   unemotional

B)   automatic

C)   complex

D)   scientific

4

To the author, the examples in lines 16–18 (“we have brains … fresh water”) primarily represent

A)   scientific theories

B)   beneficial circumstances

C)   unsound beliefs

D)   unintuitive phenomena

5

The author faults teleological explanations primarily for their

A)   imprecision

B)   intuitiveness

C)   conciseness

D)   impenetrability

6

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 3–7 (“We have moved … represent them”)

B)   Lines 19–21 (“Such explanations … they are”)

C)   Lines 21–27 (“They fail … will land”)

D)   Lines 28–32 (“Teleological explanations … say hello”)

7

According to the author, Neil Shubin’s error was that he

A)   failed to appreciate the education level of his audience

B)   confused purpose with cause in a scientific explanation

C)   used a complex metaphor to describe a simple concept

D)   did not properly define technical terms

8

The main function of the seventh paragraph (lines 65–70) is to

A)   concede a drawback

B)   propose an alternative

C)   address an injustice

D)   correct a misunderstanding

9

The tone of the final paragraph (lines 71–77) is best described as

A)   beseeching

B)   jocular

C)   sardonic

D)   journalistic

Lesson 10: Play “devil’s advocate”

Strong analytical readers use the strategy of “devil’s advocate,” that is, they read not just to understand the passage, but to criticize it. Even if you are absorbed by the discussion, agree with the argument, or identify with the narrative, you will understand and appreciate it more deeply if you take a critical stance.

The passage in Exercise 4 is a rhetorical essay, but since the topic is unfamiliar to most readers, it also contains a healthy dose of exposition. Its rhetorical thesis is that mechanistic explanations are more reliable, if less intuitive, than teleological explanations. The expository guiding question is What are the two “modes of explanation,” and what are they good for?

So think about the critical questions for expository and rhetorical essays, and apply them to the passage in Exercise 4. How do you think the author did? Were the explanations clear? Was the analysis thorough? Was the passage organized logically? Did the author address alternate points of view? Is there evidence that could weaken its thesis? Could it have been more persuasive?

Consider questions 8 and 9 from Exercise 4:

8. The main function of the seventh paragraph (lines 65–70) is to

A)   concede a drawback

B)   propose an alternative

C)   address an injustice

D)   correct a misunderstanding

9. The tone of the final paragraph (lines 71–77) is best described as

A)   beseeching

B)   jocular

C)   sardonic

D)   journalistic

If you are reading with the “devil’s advocate” questions in mind, you should notice that the seventh paragraph plays a special role. It is acknowledging an alternate point of view, which is that mechanistic explanations of our own decisions seem to deny the possibility of free will. Therefore, the correct answer to question 8 is A: concede a drawback.

Understanding the rhetorical function of the seventh paragraph makes it easier to understand the tone of the final paragraph. Since the author has conceded a drawback to his thesis, he must work harder to demonstrate its validity. Therefore, he uses beseeching language, like only … if, and must. Therefore, the answer to question 9 is A.

Lesson 11: Mark up the passage

A great way to maintain your focus on an SAT Reading passage is to mark it up by underlining and annotating. But do it thoughtfully and carefully. Here are some tips for using underlining and annotating as analytical tools.

Lesson 12: Learn how to attack the paired passages

The SAT Reading Test will include paired passages on a common topic, followed by questions in which you may be asked to compare or contrast the perspectives, content, or tone of the passages.

When given paired passages on the SAT Reading Test, you may be asked to answer questions like these:

•   What is the common topic of the two passages?

•   How do the two passages differ in attitude or tone?

•   How do the two passages differ in emphasis?

•   Are there any important points of disagreement?

Exercise 5

Passage 1 from Teresa Audesirk, Gerald Audesirk, and Bruce E. Byers, Biology: Life on Earth. ©2006 Pearson Education, Inc.

Passage 1

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Passage 2

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1

Which question posed in Passage 1 most directly concerns the author of Passage 2?

A)   Lines 3–5 (“How does photosynthesis … molecules?”)

B)   Lines 5–8 (“What is the structure … the cell?”)

C)   Lines 8–10 (“How do the nerve … one another?”)

D)   Line 10 (“What causes cancer?”)

2

Both passages are primarily concerned with

A)   the complexity of structures in living tissue

B)   the origin and evolution of life on Earth

C)   the chemical processes that sustain life

D)   the symbiotic relationship among species

3

The questions in lines 3–10 represent

A)   points of scientific controversy

B)   sources of frustration to biologists

C)   areas of productive inquiry

D)   inspirations for recent innovations

4

The “bacteria” mentioned in line 28 are best regarded as

A)   insidious infections

B)   exotic parasites

C)   symbiotic partners

D)   rudimentary progenitors

5

The author of Passage 2 would most likely suggest that the discussion of “life on Earth” (line 1) in Passage 1 also include mention of

A)   atypical sources of energy

B)   long extinct life forms

C)   parasitic relationships among species

D)   the human role in preserving biodiversity

6

Which of the following is most representative of the “complex relationships” mentioned in line 27?

A)   a species of deciduous tree competing with another species for exposure to sunlight

B)   a fungus living within a grass plant that renders the grass more drought resistant

C)   a human white blood cell destroying invasive bacteria in an infection

D)   a mother bear protecting her cub by charging an intruder

7

In line 18, the phrase “we assumed” suggests that biologists

A)   accepted a proposition uncritically

B)   adopted a significant social role

C)   acquired a new research technique

D)   overstepped the boundaries of their expertise

Exercise 6

This passage is from Wassily Kandinsky, Concerning the Spiritual in Art. ©1997 Dover Publications. Reprinted by permission of Dover Publications. In this essay, Kandinsky (1866-1944), a Russian abstract painter, discusses the relationship between Primitivism, a movement to revive the art of ancient peoples, and Materialism, a movement that denies the existence or value of the spiritual realm.

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1

The passage is primarily concerned with

A)   the obstacles to a particular undertaking

B)   the motivation for a specialized practice

C)   the origins of a philosophical debate

D)   a contrast between ancient and modern techniques

2

In the first sentence, the contrast between “child” and the “mother” is primarily one of

A)   immaturity versus maturity

B)   creation versus creator

C)   disobedience versus supervision

D)   joy versus anxiety

3

In line 14, “aspect” most nearly means

A)   particular feature

B)   individual perspective

C)   degree of feeling

D)   facial expression

4

Which of the following best exemplifies the “truth” mentioned in line 18?

A)   Many great artists find it difficult to achieve renown in their own lifetimes.

B)   Painters and musicians from all cultures tend to eschew materialist conventions.

C)   Sculptures celebrating the virtue of liberty share common features across eras.

D)   It is impossible to faithfully reproduce cave paintings created in prehistoric times.

5

According to the passage, materialism affects artists primarily by

A)   awakening them with a glimmer of inspiration

B)   establishing their connection to an earlier time

C)   denying them access to meaningful and spiritual activity

D)   mocking their attempts to make a living from art

6

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)   Lines 27–30 (“Like ourselves … external form”)

B)   Lines 31–32 (“This all-important … a spark”)

C)   Lines 38–39 (“It holds … grip”)

D)   Lines 46–49 (“Our soul rings … once more”)

7

The author uses the phrase “trembles in doubt” (line 42) in order to emphasize his belief that

A)   philosophers are unsure about the meaning of materialism

B)   true artists question whether the era of materialism is truly past

C)   highly creative people have only a tenuous grip on reality

D)   artists are particularly susceptible to feelings of fear and obsession

8

In line 47, the “costly vase” represents

A)   a materialistic aspiration

B)   a finely crafted piece of art

C)   a cynical attempt at forgery

D)   an irretrievable frame of mind

CHAPTER 5 ANSWER KEY

Exercise 1

1.  C   The thesis of the passage is that [w]ithout some appreciation of common large numbers and a feeling for probabilities, we will overreact to some dangers and underreact to others. In other words, there is some danger inherent in our common misunderstandings about statistical data.

2.  B   The author regards these “reports” with informed incredulity because he has good reason to believe they are not accurate. He expresses this fact when he suggests that we should regard them with skepticism (lines 2–3). (There are only about 74 million kids in the U.S., so if 1 million kids were kidnapped every year, then about 6 kids would be kidnapped from the average American elementary school every year.)

3.  A   The list of activities in lines 21–25 are dangerous events that are more probable than terrorism. Therefore, they are underappreciated dangers.

4.  A   Ad hominem is personal attack. Although the passage criticizes widespread innumeracy, at no point does the author attack anyone personally. Choice B is incorrect because the author uses verifiable statistics liberally in the first, second, third, and sixth paragraphs. Choice C is incorrect because the joke described in the fourth paragraph is an amusing illustration. Choice D is incorrect because the passage makes a social assessment in lines 32–34 when he states that [t]his tendency to personalize is a characteristic of many who suffer from innumeracy, and again in lines 51–52 when he states that we too often lack an intuitive grasp for these numbers.

5.  D   The author states that the innumerate will inevitably respond with the non sequitur, “Yes, but what if you’re that one,” and then nod knowingly, as if they’ve demolished your argument with penetrating insight (lines 28–32). In other words, the penetrating insight is really not penetrating at all: it is a non sequitur (a statement that does not follow logically from the premises). The author is using the word penetrating ironically and sarcastically. Choice A is incorrect, because the author is not using the word penetrating to make the insight seem more positive than it is. In fact, he is criticizing, not euphemizing. Choice B is incorrect because the author is not using exaggeration for rhetorical effect. Choice C is incorrect because penetrating is not intended as an acclamation (word of praise).

6.  D   When the author uses the phrase this tendency to personalize, he is referring to the non sequitur in the previous sentence: “Yes, but what if you’re that one,” which is an attempt to individualize the horror of terrorism out of the context in which its probability is calculated.

7.  B   The third paragraph (lines 26–38) discusses the tendency of people to overestimate the chances of certain horrific event precisely because they are exotic and attention-grabbing. The exotic malady is mentioned as one such risk that is wildly overestimated.

8.  A   The first sentence of the passage provides direct evidence that the author believes that people commonly overestimate particular risks, such as reports that more than a million American kids are kidnapped each year.

9.  C   The final paragraph mentions Drs. Kronlund and Phillips because their study showed that most doctors’ assessments of the risks of various operations, procedures, and medications were way off the mark. In other words, they were fallible (capable of error) with regard to their own specialties.

Exercise 2

1.  C   Lines 5–7 list the following examples: frogs appeared to arise from damp earth, mice from putrefied matter, insects from dew, and maggots from decaying meat. In line 1, the author indicates that these are things that people commonly believed in ancient times. But the passage then goes on to explain that these beliefs were mistaken, and that life in fact does not arise that way.

2.  C   In lines 22–23, the author states that in fact, living organisms cannot so easily arise from nonliving matter. Notice that this is a clear, direct statement that the author regards the beliefs listed in lines 5–7 as faulty conclusions. Therefore, the correct answer to question 2 is C. Choice A is incorrect because lines 1–4 simply state that ancient people believed these things, not that the author disagrees. Choice B is incorrect because lines 7–10 just give details about these beliefs, but no indication that the author doesn’t share them. Choice D is incorrect because lines 30–32 just give a detail about Pasteur’s experiment, and no direct indication that the author disagrees with the list of beliefs.

3.  A   Lines 21–40 describe Pasteur’s experiment, in which he demonstrates that living organisms cannot so easily arise spontaneously from nonliving matter, and that the mice in van Helmont’s demonstration likely crept into the jar. In other words, van Helmont’s recipe lacked scientific controls to keep living things out.

4.  D   When Pasteur said, “Never will the doctrine of spontaneous generation arise from this mortal blow,” he meant that the doctrine is as dead as an opponent who has been struck with a sword. Therefore, in this context, mortal means “fatal.”

5.  B   The final paragraph describes how Pasteur wasn’t entirely correct about the possibility of life arising from nonliving matter by describing the most likely scenario by which basic self-replicating units, the precursors of life, could have arisen from nonliving molecules in the chemical-rich cauldron of early Earth.

6.  D   The phrase very basic self-replicating units refers to the most rudimentary chemical building blocks of life.

7.  D   The point of this paragraph is that the earliest life most likely arose from the chemical-rich cauldron of early Earth. In other words, the author describes a chaotic world. He is not portraying early earth as mysterious, because he is claiming to understand important aspects of that ancient environment. He is also not portraying the early earth as perilous, because no creatures yet existed to suffer its dangers.

8.  B   The passage begins by describing the common belief that new life could ariseby spontaneous generation from nonliving material then presents evidence, in the form of Pasteur’s experiment, that refutes that belief.

Exercise 3

1.  C   In saying that [e]qual certainty exists among those [scientists] who study the base of their skulls that [Neanderthals] did [lack the long vocal chamber needed for speech] and that they did not, the author is saying that there is considerable disagreement about the vocal abilities of Neanderthals.

2.  B   The main thesis of this passage is that humans came to dominate the Neanderthals by taking advantage of their intellectual abilities rather than relying on their physical strength. This directly implies that physical weakness is not necessarily a disadvantage in the fight for survival.

3.  D   In lines 43–47, the authors state their main thesis: The reason we—anatomically modern humans—won out lies, we suspect, not in being brighter or better able to speak but in our very physical frailty and our resulting need to exploit our minds. Choice A is incorrect because this sentence merely states that scientists disagree about the length of the Neanderthal vocal chamber. Choice B is incorrect because this sentence merely states that hunters sometimes find it helpful to communicate silently. Choice C is incorrect because this sentence merely states that the ability to speak cannot explain our dominance over the Neanderthals.

4.  B   The solid lines in the diagram indicate that H. sapiens (which includes the Cro-Magnon) descended from H. heidelbergensis, which descended from H. erectus, which descended from H. habilis, which descended from A. afarensis. Therefore, the Cro-Magnon and H. heidelbergensis both share A. afarensis as a common ancestor. Choice A is incorrect because the diagram shows no line of descent from H. neanderthalensis to H. sapiens. Choice C is incorrect because the diagram contains no information about the reasons for extinction. Choice D is incorrect because there is no line of descent from H. habilis to A. robustus.

5.  C   In the diagram, the longest vertical bar for any hominid species is that for H. erectus, which begins at about the 2-million-year mark and ends at about the 250,000-year mark. Subtracting these two values gives us a time span of about 1,750,000 years.

6.  C   Although statements A and D are both valid conclusions based on the information in the diagram, neither of these facts supports the main thesis of the passage, which is found in lines 43–47: The reason we—anatomically modern humans—won out [in our competition with the Neanderthals] lies, we suspect, not in being brighter or better able to speak but in our very physical frailty and our resulting need to exploit our minds. Therefore, the argument rests on the fact that H. sapiens coexisted with H. neanderthalensis. The diagram clearly shows that both species lived in the period between approximately 100,000 years ago and 40,000 years ago, and so could have been in direct competition. It also shows that H. neanderthalensis appears to have gone extinct, because its vertical bar does not reach all the way up to the 0 mark.

7.  D   The author mentions that hunter-gatherers use sophisticated sign language to provide evidence that speech is not necessary for success in hunting, and that therefore long vocal chambers might not provide a decisive evolutionary advantage.

8.  A   In saying that Neanderthals could survive with their physical strength rather than tapping the potential of their brains, the authors are saying that, unlike Homo sapiens, the Neanderthals did not need to exploit (take advantage of) their intelligence.

9.  C   These are examples of how countries exploit their minds rather than relying on natural resources to compete with other nations economically. Therefore, the correct answer is C: goods and services based on intellectual resources. Notice that choices A, B, and D don’t fit at all with the overall purpose of the paragraph.

Exercise 4

1.  A   The first paragraph states that the we have moved slowly and tortuously toward strengthening our mode of explanation. In other words, that the march of human intellectual progress has not been steady and direct, and that indeed we are still plagued by faulty intuitions. In other words, this progress has been halting (slow and hesitant).

2.  C   The first paragraph describes human intellectual progress with the metaphor of a march. It does not employ any euphemism (a word or phrase used to make something unpleasant sound less so), understatement (phrasing that makes something seem less intense than it is), or anecdote (illustrative story).

3.  D   The main idea of the passage is that mechanistic explanations are those theories, equations, and mechanisms[that] best represent physical phenomena. These are the scientific modes of explanation.

4.  C   The statements listed in line 16–18 are examples of explaining phenomena in terms of their presumed purposes or desires, rather than their causes. The passage as a whole explains how such teleological explanations are in fact misguided and unhelpful (lines 20–21). Therefore, these are unsound beliefs.

5.  A   The problem with teleological explanations, according to the author, is that they can’t predict the future as accurately as mechanistic explanations can (lines 21–23). Therefore, they are imprecise in this regard.

6.  C   The author explains the imprecision of teleological explanations in lines 21–27, where he states that they can’t predict the future as accurately as mechanistic explanations can.

7.  B   Neil Shubin is mentioned as an example of a clear-minded scientist [who] slides into teleology from time to time when describing natural phenomena to laypeople (lines 54–56). That is, he is confusing purpose with cause in a scientific explanation.

8.  A   The purpose of this paragraph is to acknowledge the drawback that mechanistic explanations of our own decisions seem to deny the possibility of free will, which is something that most people consider precious.

9.  A   Since the author has conceded a drawback to his thesis in his previous paragraph, this paragraph uses beseeching language, like onlyif, and must to make a plea to the reader to reject teleological explanations.

Exercise 5

1.  A   Passage 2 is primarily concerned with the chemical reactions that harness energy to sustain life, specifically photosynthesis (line 15) and chemosynthesis (line 24). Therefore the question How does photosynthesis convert the energy of sunlight into the energy of sugar molecules? is most directly relevant to Passage 2.

2.  C   Passage 1 focuses on the study of the molecules of which living things are composed (lines 1–3) and how those molecules convert energy, make muscles contract, help nerve cells communicate, and so on. Passage 2 focuses on the chemical reactions that harness energy to sustain life. Therefore, both passages are primarily concerned with the chemical processes that sustain life.

3.  C   This list of questions represent some of the questions that guide the study of the molecules of which living organisms are composed (lines 1–3), therefore they are areas of productive inquiry. Passage 1 does not discuss any scientific controversies, innovations, or sources of frustration.

4.  C   The bacteria mentioned in line 28 are incorporated into organisms to provide benefits. This is a symbiotic relationship, in which both organisms benefit. These bacteria are not infections or parasites, because they are not doing harm, and they are not progenitors, because they are not the original ancestors of a species or kind.

5.  A   Since Passage 2 is focused on the recent discovery of a new way by which living organisms on Earth can harvest energy, namely chemosynthesis, its author would likely suggest that the study of life on earth include research into atypical sources of energy.

6.  B   The complex relationships mentioned in line 27 are those in which bacteria are incorporated into organisms to provide benefits. The choice that best resembles such a relationship is a fungus living within a grass plant that renders the grass more drought resistant.

7.  A   The phrase we assumed in line 18 refers to the belief among biologists that solar energy is required to sustain life on Earth. In other words, they accepted this proposition uncritically, and, it turns out, erroneously.

Exercise 6

1.  A   This rhetorical essay focus on the author’s thesis that the Primitive phase … can only be of short duration (lines 51–52). The first paragraph explains how an attempt to revive the art-principles of the past will at best produce an art that is stillborn (lines 5–6), the second paragraph gives a glimmer of hope to the Primitivists by stating that our spiritual relationship with the Primitives (lines 26–27) may lead to a revival of the external forms (lines 23–24). The last paragraph describes the obstacle that materialism places in the way of the Primitivist movement. Therefore, as a whole, the passage is concerned with the obstacles to a particular undertaking.

2.  B   The statement every work of art is the child of its age and, in many cases, the mother of our emotions means that art derives from the culture in which its created, and in turn forms our emotional response to that culture. Therefore the metaphor is one of creation versus creator.

3.  D   The phrase thoughtful aspect is used to describe the face of a monkey that is acting as if it is reading but really is not. That is, he has a thoughtful facial expression, but is not really thinking.

4.  C   The fundamental truth described in the second paragraph is that when there is a similarity … in the spiritual atmosphere, a similarity of ideals … the logical result will be a revival of the external forms which served to express those feelings. In other words, the art forms will be similar if the cultural feelings are similar. This suggests that sculptures celebrating the virtue of liberty share common features across eras.

5.  C   The passage states that [o]ur minds … are infected with the despair of unbelief, of lack of purpose and ideal (lines 32–35) because of the nightmare of materialism (line 36). Therefore the effect of materialism is to deny [artists] access to meaningful and spiritual activity.

6.  C   The best evidence for this answer comes in lines 38–39, where the author states that [materialism] holds the awakening soul still in it its grip.

7.  B   The last paragraph uses the metaphor of a feeble light to represent the awakening soul of the artist, and the darkness to represent the nightmare of materialism, so when the author states that the soul trembles in doubt whether the light is not a dream, he is saying that artists are wondering whether their artistic ideals can survive the era of materialism.

8.  D   The costly vase is compared to the beleaguered artist’s soul, which is found to have a flaw when it is dug up once more. In other words, the principles and ideals of primitive art cannot be completely recovered, and so the primitive frame of mind is irretrievable.