PMP® Project Management Professional Study Guide, Fourth Edition

1. You are a project manager for your company and are helping management choose a project. You’ve been presented with the following information: Project 1 has a net present value of $25,000 and will take five years to complete. Project 2 has a net present value of $45,000 and will take two years to complete. Project 3 has a net present value of $33,500 and will take six years to complete. Which project should your company choose to complete?

D. All projects have equal value, so any project is applicable.

Hint: Find the project with the largest return in the shortest amount of time.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Project Selection Methods

B is correct. The NPV of $45,000 within two years is the greatest investment of capital.

A is incorrect because Project 1 will take five years to complete and has a moderately low NPV. C is incorrect because Project 3 has a lower NPV than Project 2 and will take six years to complete. D is incorrect. The projects listed do not have equal value.

2. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with management to determine the best project for your company. Beth, a manager, has suggested using linear programming to help determine the best project. Linear programming is an example of which project selection method?

A. Benefit/cost ratio

B. Constrained optimization

C. The comparative approach model

Hint: This method can be complex.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Project Selection Methods

B is correct. Constrained optimization methods are complex mathematical formulas and algorithms that are used to predict the success of projects, the variables within projects, and tendencies to move forward with selected project investments.

A is incorrect because benefit/cost ratios examine the cost to benefits of multiple projects. C is incorrect. This approach compares the current project to others to determine the best choice of action. D is also incorrect. Prioritization is the priority assigned to multiple existing projects within an organization.

3. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with your project team to help coach them on the processes within project management. During this coaching you explain the difference between constraints and assumptions and how this affects project initiation. You also explain how long-term projects and short-term projects may be measured differently during project ignition. In light of this conversion, customer demands, changes to the marketplace, and opportunity are all examples of which one of the following?

A. Project constraints

B. Project assumptions

C. Reasons for project initiation

D. The components of a long-term project

Hint: These are all positive inputs.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Project Selection Methods

C is correct. Projects can be initiated for varying reasons, though the most common are customer demands, changes to the marketplace, and opportunity.

A is incorrect. These are not examples of project constraints. B is incorrect because these are not assumptions. D is also incorrect. These examples are not typical components within a long-term project. They may influence the project and are thus considerations for the project.

A. Linear programming

B. Capital management

C. The economic model

D. Multiobjective programming

Hint: It’s for the bottom line.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Project Selection Methods

C is correct. This is a simple economic model for choosing the most profitable project.

A is incorrect. Linear programming is an example of constrained optimization. B is incorrect because this term is not valid for this question. D is also incorrect. This is an example of constrained optimization.

5. You are the project manager of the NHJ Project. This project is to create a new software package for a client. You’re working with the client, business analysts, software developers, business developers, and the sales team to create the vision and requirements of the newly initiated project. Of the following, which one determines the scope of the project?

A. The project manager

B. The project sponsor

C. The performing organization’s management

Hint: This group or person is the most important stakeholder in a project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 1

Study Guide Objective: Define scope

D is correct because the customer determines the requirements for the project. After all, the project is completed for the customer.

A is incorrect because the project manager does not determine the requirements, but instead manages the methods to achieve them. B is incorrect because the project sponsor does not set the requirements for the project. C is also incorrect. The performing organization’s management does not set the requirements for the project. Management may have input to the process, but ultimately the customer sets the requirements of the project.

6. June is managing a project which was slated to last one year. The project is now entering its third year. Of the following, which statement is most applicable to this situation?

A. The project manager must break the project into subprojects.

B. The project scope has not been properly identified.

C. The project team must prevent any changes from entering the project.

D. The project needs to be stopped.

Hint: There is one answer that can apply to all projects.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Define Scope

B is correct. The project scope has likely not been properly identified, so the project is taking longer than it should.

A is incorrect. There is no evidence in the information presented that the project should be broken into subprojects. C is incorrect. The project team may not have the power to approve or disapprove changes. In addition, the question’s information does not provide adequate information to determine whether changes are the root of the problem. D is incorrect. There is not enough information presented to determine that the project should be stopped.

7. You are an IT project manager for your company and are currently defining the scope for a new project. The CIO defines project success as “implementation of standard technical components.” The project sponsor, on the other hand, defines project success as “achieving excellence in technology,” while the project customer defines project success as “the presence of sales-promoting features.” What should you do as the project manager?

A. Follow the customer’s opinion. It is their project.

B. Follow the CIO’s opinion. He is in charge.

C. Follow the sponsor’s opinion. He is in charge.

D. Talk with the stakeholders to define the project objectives in measurable metrics.

Hint: Find the opinion that can be measured.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Define Scope

D is correct. Measurable metrics cannot be applied to each of the stakeholders’ comments, and in order for the project to succeed, measurable metrics are needed.

A is incorrect. The customer did not provide any metrics for the project’s success. B is incorrect. The CIO did not provide any metrics for the project’s success. C is also incorrect. The project sponsor did not provide any metrics for the project’s success.

8. Yolanda is the project manager of the newly initiated PD Project for her company. She’s working with the project team and the key stakeholders to review the project requirements and prep for the project scope creation. All of the following documents are needed to define the project scope except for which one?

A. The project charter

B. The scope management plan

C. The quality management plan

D. Requirements documentation

Hint: Find the plan that doesn’t exist yet. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5 Study Guide Objective: Define Scope

C is correct. The quality management plan isn’t needed during scope definition. The define scope process has four inputs: the scope management plan, project charter, requirements documentation, and the organizational process assets.

A is incorrect. The project charter is an input to scope definition. B is incorrect. The project scope management plan is an input to scope definition. D is incorrect. Requirements documentation is an input to the define scope process.

9. You are the project manager of the PHG project. You and your project team need to verify a project assumption. Which one of the following can most help with this process?

B. Historical information

C. Organizational policies

D. Project team members’ recollections

Hint: Don’t rely on recollections.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapters 3 and 4

Study Guide Objective: Document Project Risks, Assumptions, and Constraints

B is correct. Historical information can most help with project assumptions.

A is incorrect. Constraints will not help the project team verify an assumption. C is incorrect. Organizational policies will set the confines of the project, but they will not help the team verify an assumption. D is incorrect. Team member recollections are not as reliable as historical information since this is an input that is documented.

10. You are the project manager for your organization. You have just been assigned a new project with a predetermined budget of $250,000. This is an example of which one of the following?

D. Functional structure

Hint: You’re stuck with this amount.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapters 1 and 5

Study Guide Objective: Document Project Risks, Assumptions, and Constraints

A is correct. A predetermined budget is a project constraint.

B is incorrect because this is not an example of an assumption. C is incorrect because this is not an expert judgment. D is also incorrect because this is not an example of a functional structure.

11. You have just taken over a failing project. In your initial review of the project schedule, you realize the previous project manager has made no exceptions for travel delays. This is an example of which one of the following?

C. Schedule variances

D. Critical path activity

Hint: It is not critical.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Document Project Risks, Assumptions, and Constraints

B is correct. The previous project manager has made an assumption that there will be no delays when project team members travel.

A is incorrect because this is not a constraint. C is incorrect because this is not a schedule variance, or if it is, there isn’t enough information provided to make this decision. D is also incorrect because there isn’t enough information provided to determine that this is a critical path activity.

12. Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are assumptions except for which one?

A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project

B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays

C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only

D. A predetermined budget of $125,000

Hint: It is not flexible.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 1

Study Guide Objective: Document Project Risks, Assumptions, and Constraints

D is correct. A predetermined project budget is a cost constraint.

A, B, and C are incorrect because each is an assumption.

13. Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that stakeholders are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle. When does a stakeholder exert the most influence over a project?

A. At the project’s start

B. During the project’s execution

C. During the project’s planning phase

D. During the project’s closing phase

Hint: Their influence will diminish as the project moves towards closure.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 13

Study Guide Objective: Identify and Perform Stakeholder Analysis

A is correct. Stakeholders have the most influence on a project’s success at the start of the project.

B, C, and D are incorrect because all are false statements.

A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion

B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion

C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the community

D. The change control board for your project because they do not want changes to the project scope

Hint: They have a negative outlook on your project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 13

Study Guide Objective: Identify and Perform Stakeholder Analysis

B is correct. Because the environmental group is opposed to your project, they are viewed as a negative stakeholder.

A is incorrect. The finance department is a stakeholder, but they are likely positive since they are part of your organization. C is incorrect. The city council is a positive stakeholder because they are in favor of your project. D is also incorrect. The change control board is also a stakeholder, but they will likely be positive given they’re part of your organization.

15. Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one?

A. The project manager

B. The project management team

D. Government agencies

Hint: Ask if they are on every project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, 13

Study Guide Objective: Identify and Perform Stakeholder Analysis

D is correct because government agencies are not key stakeholders on every project.

A is incorrect because the project manager is a key stakeholder on every project. B is incorrect because the project management team is a key stakeholder on every project. C is also incorrect because influencers are key stakeholders on every project.

16. You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder management.

They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder management. Who identifies project stakeholders and determines their requirements for the project?

A. The project champion

D. The project sponsor

Hint: Go for the obvious answer.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 13

Study Guide Objective: Identify and Perform Stakeholder Analysis

B is correct. The project team is responsible for identifying stakeholders and determining the requirements for the project.

A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all false statements.

17. A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of the following is needed first for this quality improvement project?

A. A quality management plan

B. Quality control mechanisms

C. A project charter

D. A communications management plan

Hint: This is always needed.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Develop Project Charter

C is correct because all projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter.

A is incorrect. While a quality management plan will likely be needed, a project charter comes first. B is incorrect because a project charter is needed before quality controls. D is also incorrect because a communications management plan will likely be needed, but only after the project charter has been issued.

18. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard project charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?

A. To authorize the project

B. To identify the project manager

C. To determine the project budget and schedule

D. To launch the project

Hint: You have no power without a charter.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Develop Project Charter

A is correct because all projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. The charter authorizes the project.

B is incorrect because the primary concern of the charter is not to identify the project manager. C is incorrect because the project charter does not determine the project schedule and budget. D is also incorrect. While one could argue that a charter launches the project, they’d be wrong. The question asks for the primary concern of the charter, which is to authorize the project.

19. A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually charter this project?

A. You, the project manager

B. The functional managers of each affected department

C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization

D. The project management team

Hint: Avoid power struggles.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Develop Project Charter

C is correct because all projects should be chartered and authorized external to the project and with the power to execute decisions for resources and time.

A is incorrect. The project manager needs authority from a higher entity within the organization. B is incorrect. There should be one entity that charters the project. This scenario will likely cause power struggles for the project resources and deliverables. D is also incorrect because the project management team does not authorize the project.

20. You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?

A. A project manager

B. A risk management plan

D. A project charter

Hint: You have no authority.

Reference: Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Project Charter Approval

D is correct. The functional manager is likely not allowing her employees to work on the project because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so.

A is incorrect because you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management plan is not applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be missing, but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.

21. As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try to use the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the project. Given this, who should charter the project?

A. The project manager

B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power

C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for authorizing the project’s funding

D. The primary customer affected by the project’s outcome

Hint: It’s an expensive project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Project Charter Approval

C is correct. The project should be charted by an entity outside of the project organization that can authorize the project funding.

A is incorrect because you are already the project manager. B is incorrect because the functional manager may not have the authority to authorize resources and funds for the project. D is also incorrect. The primary customer isn’t always the project sponsor. In addition, the question does not allude to which customer is affected by the project the most, so one must consider that the customer could be outside of the organization altogether.

22. Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and she’s working with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beth’s charter, she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to be approved. Which one does not need to be defined?

A. The project manager and the authority level

B. Anticipated quality standards

C. Summary milestones

Hint: Don’t get too far ahead.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Project Charter Approval

B is correct. Anticipated quality standards are not part of the project charter requirements. The project charter should define the project purpose, project objectives, high-level requirements, assumptions and constraints for the project, risks, project boundaries, milestones, budget, stakeholder list, approval requirements, project manager, and the project sponsor.

A is incorrect. The project manager and level of authority is one of the project charter requirements. C is incorrect because summary milestones is one of the project charter requirements. D is also incorrect because a summary budget is one of the project charter requirements.

23. You are the project manager for your organization. The ART project, which you have been working on for the last two months, has a very strict cost constraint, high requirements for quality, and must be completed within the next eight months. If the project exceeds its budget by more than 1 percent, management will deem the project a failure. Changes to your project have caused the project costs to increase slightly, thereby expanding the project schedule by two weeks. Of the following, which control mechanism is the most important in this project?

Hint: Determine the project constraint.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

B is correct. The predominant constraint on this project is cost, so cost control is the best answer.

A is incorrect. While time is important, cost is the defined constraint. C is incorrect. Quality is always important, but quality is affected by the project’s cost constraint. D is also incorrect. Scope control is important to a project, but cost control is of higher importance based on the information that the question provides. While changes to the scope can affect cost, unacceptable work within the scope can also affect cost.

24. A new project is forming to create a new warehouse. The warehouse plans call for completion within one year if the expected resources are available. Management requires the in-house development team on this project. The project manager and the project sponsor, however, feel the available resources are committed to too many other projects and won’t have adequate availability to the new project. Because of all this, additional time will be needed in developing which one of the following?

A. A team development plan

B. A resource-limited schedule

C. A procurement management plan

D. A responsibility assignment matrix

Hint: Find what the project needs.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

B is correct. Because the project team is assigned to many different projects and is not readily available for the project work, the project manager should develop a resource-limited schedule.

A is incorrect. A team development plan is a subsidiary plan to train the project team on new or missing skills. C is incorrect because procurement is not an option in this instance. D is also incorrect because the responsibility assignment matrix is not needed at this time in the project.

25. You are the project manager of the NHQA Project for your company and you’re working with the functional managers to define all of the needed resources on your construction project. All of the following are resources except for which one?

Hint: This element is a constraint.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

D is correct. Time is not a resource since it is necessary to complete the project work.

A is incorrect because people are resources. B is incorrect because equipment is an example of a resource. C is also incorrect because materials are resources.

26. Henry is the project manager of the GHY Project for his company. He’s working with the project team to develop a robust project plan for the project. Bethanne, one of the project team members, doesn’t understand why so much time is needed for the project plan and wants to get to work on the project more quickly. Harold should explain that the project plan is used for all except one of the following. Which one isn’t it used for?

A. Guiding the project’s execution

B. Documenting project planning assumptions

C. Creating methods to assign project resources to stakeholders

D. Facilitating communication among stakeholders

Hint: All projects have assumptions.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

C is correct. The project plan does not provide methods to assign the project resources to stakeholders.

A is incorrect because the project plan does guide project execution. B is incorrect because the project plan does guide project planning assumptions D is also incorrect because the project plan does facilitate communication among stakeholders.

27. There are many things you’ll need to plan for in project management, but you’ll always need to address the Triple Constraints of Project Management. What are the Triple Constraints of Project Management?

A. Time, cost, and scope

B. Time, schedule, and cost

C. Time, resources, scope

D. Schedule, quality, budget

Hint: This is also known as the Iron Triangle.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

A is correct. The Triple Constraints are time, cost, and scope.

B, C, and D are all incorrect because each is a false statement.

28. You must have an engineer on your project for the entire second phase. If you do not have an engineer available, the project will fail. The demand for the engineer can best be described as what?

Hint: You must have the engineer.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

B is correct because the demand for an engineer is a resource constraint.

A is incorrect because this is not an assumption. C is incorrect. This is not a risk because the question does not define whether or not the resource is available. Not enough information is provided in the question to know if there are many engineers available or none at all. In addition, risk does not answer the question as well as B does. D is incorrect because this statement is false.

29. You and your project team are executing a plan to install a new piece of software for every computer within your organization. Your project team has discovered that not all of the computers within the organization can run the new software the way they had hoped. This is an example of which one of the following?

Hint: The team believed it was true even though it wasn’t. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

A is correct. The project team is operating under an assumption that all of the computers can run the new software.

B is incorrect because this is not a constraint, but an assumption. C is also incorrect. Though there may be a risk present that the computers may not be able to load and run the application, initially the project team was operating under an assumption. D is incorrect as well. This statement is too general and does not answer the question as well as A does.

30. Your project is to build a bridge in your city. The project must be completed by December 1 or your company will have to pay $10,000 a day in fines. This is an example of which one of the following?

B. Critical chain method planning

C. A cost constraint

D. A schedule constraint

Hint: The project must end by December 1.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Define and Record Requirements, Constraints, and Assumptions

D is correct. The project must be completed by December 1, so this is an example of schedule constraint.

A is incorrect because this is not an assumption. B is incorrect because this answer is not valid for this question. C is also incorrect because this is not a cost constraint. The $10,000 penalty is only assessed if the project does not complete on time. In addition, in some instances it is more cost effective to be late with the project deliverable, accept the penalty, and deliver a higher-quality project.

31. You are the project manager of the AAA project, which requires different skills by different team members at various times throughout the project. Which of the following should detail how team members are brought onto, and released from, the project?

A. The procurement management plan

B. The staffing management plan

C. Organizational planning

D. The cost management plan

Hint: As the project manager, you’re not directly interested in financials in this scenario.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Identify Project Team and Define Roles and Responsibilities

B is correct. The staffing management plan details how project team members will be brought onto the project and excused from it.

A is incorrect. The procurement management plan is not applicable to this question. C is incorrect. Organizational planning is the process of mapping the project’s roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to the appropriate people or groups of people. D is incorrect. The cost management plan dictates how cost variances will be managed.

32. Resource planning is an important component of every project. You’ll need to know when resources are needed, when they’ll be released from the project, and what the schedule of each resource is. One tool, a resource histogram, can help with project planning. What is the purpose of a resource histogram?

A. It allows the project manager to identify when workers will be working on particular project activities.

B. It allows the project manager to determine how many resources are used in a given month on the project.

C. It allows the project manager to determine the cost of the resources.

D. It allows the project manager to identify slipping resources.

Hint: A histogram shows resource demands.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapters 6 and 9

Study Guide Objective: Identify Project Team and Define Roles and Responsibilities

B is correct. Resource histograms are charts that illustrate when workers are used in a project.

A is incorrect. Resource histograms show collective time, not the time mapped to individual project activities. C is incorrect. Resource histograms do not map costs to project activities. D is incorrect. Resource histograms do not identify resources that may be slipping on activities.

33. You are the project manager of the BNH project. You have the following project team members: Thomas, who’s very excited about the project work and will work overtime if needed; Emily, who always works overtime; Henry, who’s well liked by the customer and can work overtime if needed; and Samantha, who always completes the project requirements. Who is the best project team member for this project?

Hint: Get the work done.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Identify Project Team and Define Roles and Responsibilities

D is correct. Samantha always completes the project requirements, so she is the best resource for the project.

A is incorrect. Thomas may be excited and willing, but the question does not indicate whether he can complete the project requirements. B is incorrect. Emily may work overtime, but the question does not indicate whether she can complete the project requirements. In addition, a worker who always works overtime can increase project costs. C is also incorrect. Henry is well liked by the customer and can work overtime if needed, but the question does not indicate whether he can complete the project requirements. Unless the customer asks specifically for Henry—and Henry can complete the project requirements—he is not needed on the project.

34. Projects rely on the project manager to lead and direct the project work and the project team to execute the project work. Which one of the following will help a project manager determine which project team members complete activities in a project?

A. Functional managers

B. The responsibility assignment matrix

C. A network diagram

D. The work breakdown structure

Hint: Who does what?

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Identify Project Team and Define Roles and Responsibilities

B is correct because the responsibility matrix reveals who does what in a project.

A is incorrect. Functional managers will know what their employees’ roles are in a project, but it’s likely they won’t be a good resource to find out detailed information. C is incorrect because network diagrams illustrate the sequence of project activities. D is also incorrect because the WBS does not map team members to the project components.

35. Your organization is launching a new project that is similar to an older project. Which one of the following can streamline the project planning process?

A. Relying on the project deliverables of the previous project

B. Using the previous project’s risk matrix chart to guide the current project’s risk management planning session

C. Using the WBS of the previous project as a template for this project’s WBS

D. Reviewing the project’s financial control systems

Hint: Don’t reinvent the wheel.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

C is correct because the WBS of the previous project that’s similar to the current project is the best choice.

A is incorrect because the deliverable of the previous project won’t help with the planning of the current project as much as the prior project’s WBS will. B is incorrect. The previous project’s risk matrix chart may help guide the risk assessment, identification, and risk response process, but it won’t help the risk management planning session. Plus, the WBS for the current project is needed as well to complete this process, so that makes C the better choice. D is incorrect. The financial controls are most likely universal to all projects within an organization; they don’t simply operate on a per-project basis. Furthermore, if the projects did have independent financial controls, the WBS would still be needed to complete cost estimating and budgeting.

C. Progressive elaboration

Hint: Mozart used to compose but now he’s participating in this.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

A is correct. The subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is called decomposition.

B is incorrect because this term is not valid for this question. C is incorrect because progressive elaboration describes any process that progressively elaborates on its theme. For example, the concept of building a house may be developed into a sketch, which is then developed into blueprints, and so on. D is incorrect because work packages are the smallest item in the WBS.

37. You and the project team have just created a WBS for your project. Each item within the work package is recognized by a unique identifier. Your boss wants to know where the numbering scheme came from. Which of the following would be the best explanation to give him?

A. A charter of accounts

B. A code of projects

C. A chart of accounts

D. A code of accounts

Hint: It’s not a charter.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

D is correct because the code of accounts is the unique numbering system for each element in the WBS.

A is incorrect because this term isn’t valid. B is incorrect because the code of project is not a valid term. C is also incorrect because the chart of accounts is a numbering system to track costs by category within the project.

38. You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. This project is to create a new condo building in your city and is scheduled to last for just ten months.

Your project team has just decomposed all of the project deliverables for their construction project. What is the document that the decomposition creates?

A. An organizational breakdown structure

B. A work breakdown structure

C. A bill of materials

D. A resource breakdown structure

Hint: This is not a trick question.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

B is correct because the project team has created the work breakdown structure.

A is incorrect. The organizational breakdown structure defines the hierarchy of the project organization. C is incorrect as well because the bill of materials is a definition of all the materials required to complete the project work. D is also incorrect because the resource breakdown structure illustrates the resources used within the project.

39. You and your project team are working on the creation of the project’s WBS. Some of the elements cannot be decomposed until late in the project. What approach can the project team take in this scenario?

A. Decompose the packages as far as they can based on the current information.

B. Decompose the packages as far as they can based on past projects’ performances.

C. Utilize rolling wave planning.

D. The project work must be fully decomposed in order for the project’s work authorization system to be active.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

C is correct. The project team should utilize rolling wave planning, which would allow the project team to revisit the deliverables that need to be decomposed as more information becomes available.

A is incorrect because this answer does not fully satisfy the question. B is incorrect. It may be useful to use the WBS of past projects, but this answer assumes that the past projects are similar. In addition, the question states that some of the deliverables cannot be decomposed until later in the project duration. D is incorrect because this is not a true statement.

40. You, a project manager, must know all of the components of a project plan and be able to explain the importance, significance, and depth of each project management planning component. One document you’ll use often in project planning is the WBS. What is the smallest item in the WBS called? (Choose the best answer.)

C. A project component

Hint: You don’t have to wrap this.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

A is correct. The smallest item in the WBS is called the work package.

B is incorrect. This answer may be true, but it is not the best choice for the question. C is incorrect because this is not the best choice for the question. D is incorrect because this is not a true statement.

A. Identifying the deliverables and related work

B. Structuring and organizing the WBS

C. Developing and assigning identification codes to the WBS components

D. Evaluating the project risk components

Hint: This happens later.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

D is correct. Project risk assessment and evaluations come after the WBS has been created.

A, B, and C are incorrect because each is part of the WBS creation.

42. Joan is the project manager of the NQQ Project for her company and she’s working with the project team to create the work breakdown structure (WBS). What is the purpose of the WBS? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It identifies the project.

B. It organizes and defines the project scope.

C. It helps the project team visualize the project work.

D. It identifies areas of the project that need more planning.

Hint: It’s the scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

B is correct. The WBS organizes and defines the project scope.

A is incorrect because this is not the purpose of the WBS. C is incorrect. Though the WBS is a visual component, this is not its primary purpose. D is incorrect. This statement may be true, but this is not the purpose of the WBS.

A. The change control system

B. The cost management plan

C. The scope management plan

D. The risk management plan

Hint: Only the required work is needed.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

C is correct. The scope management plan explains how the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be factored into the project plan.

A is incorrect because the change control system (CCS) is the process of how changes are presented, processed, documented, and managed. B is incorrect because the cost management plan dictates how cost variances will be managed. D is incorrect because the risk management plan details how risks are planned for and responded to.

44. Your project is not costing as much as you predicted. If you do not use your entire budget allotment for the first phase of the project, you will receive a budget reduction for the second phase of your project. You elect to order slightly better materials that will provide a higher product for the customer, but that will also allow you to meet the predicted budget for this phase of the project. This condition is best described as which one of the following?

A. Effective cost management

B. Integrated change control

D. Parkinson’s Law

Hint: Don’t deliver more than what is needed.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

C is correct. When a project manager delivers higher-grade materials than what is needed to drive up the price of the project, this is known as gold plating. It is not an effective project management method.

A is incorrect because this is not effective cost management. B is incorrect. Integrated change control is the process of integrating changes across the entire project. D is also incorrect because this is not Parkinson’s Law. Parkinson’s Law states that work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it.

45. The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope. Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan details how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the project?

A. The scope management plan

B. The change control system

C. The communications management plan

D. The requirements management plan

Hint: Manage the requirements.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

D is correct. The requirements management plan defines everything when it comes to identifying, documenting, and controlling project requirements.

A is incorrect because the scope management plan defines just the details of the project scope and how it is defined and controlled. B is incorrect because the change control system is the process for all of change management. C is also incorrect because the communications management plan does not detail how changes to the scope will be documented.

46. You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing for another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project. The customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the building by 10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time schedule change. What must happen next?

A. The project scope must be revised.

B. The project must be started over.

C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the WBS.

D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.

Hint: The project is still early on in the planning process group.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

A is correct. Revisions are a special type of project schedule change, and cause the project start date and, more likely, the project end date to be changed. Revisions typically stem from project scope changes.

B is incorrect. The project has really just started because the WBS hasn’t even been created yet. Thus, it isn’t necessary to scrap the project and start over at this point. C is incorrect. The project manager cannot simply add the additional requests into the WBS. They must be added to the project scope, documented, planned for, and then migrated into the WBS. D is also incorrect. A cost control system may not be created at this point. In addition, the project is being completed for another entity and they demand the change.

47. You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project, and both of you realize that changes often happen in the field—changes that may be different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning activity is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in the blueprints in the office. You want consistency between what’s actually being constructed and what the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process called? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Project management planning

B. Change assessment

D. Configuration management

Hint: You want consistency.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

D is correct. This is an example of configuration management, which seeks consistency in tracking and monitoring approved changes in a project.

A is incorrect. Though this is part of project planning, it does not fully answer the question. B is incorrect. This is not a valid choice for this question because no changes have been proposed yet; the project team is simply planning on how configuration management should work within their project. C is incorrect. Scope validation happens with the customer and seeks acceptance of the project work.

48. In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled, changed, and approved?

A. The change control system

B. The project management information system

C. The change management system

D. The scope management system

Hint: Protect the scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

A is correct. The change control system seeks to control how deliverables are controlled, changed, and approved.

B is incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this question. C is incorrect because this, too, is not a valid answer for this question. D is also incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this question as well.

49. Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and he’s working with management and the project team to define the change control system. All of the following activities should be planned as part of the change control system except for which one?

A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)

B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes

C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes

D. A methodology to track team personnel changes

Hint: Focus on the project scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

D is correct. Changes to the team personnel are not part of the change control system.

A, B, and C are incorrect. Neither of them is a valid answer for the question because each is part of the change control system.

50. You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project. Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is the best answer to Marcy’s query?

A. A documented change control system is required by management.

B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.

C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve because the impact of each change must be considered before it is approved.

D. A documented change control system allows the project’s profitability to improve because each change may affect the profit and loss of the project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Develop Change Management Plan

C is correct. A change control system requires that each change request be evaluated and its impact on the project considered before approving the change request.

A is incorrect. While this is likely true in many organizations, it is not the best answer for this question. B is also incorrect. The project customer may not know or realize that a change control system exists. In addition, this is not the best answer for Marcy’s question. D is incorrect as well. This is not a valid answer for this question because not every project has a profit and loss statement (consider micro projects and not-for-profit endeavors).

51. You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique?

A. Influence diagrams

B. A network diagram

C. A process flowchart

D. Cause-and-effect diagrams

Hint: Think activity on the node. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

B is correct because a network diagram does not help identify risks but is instead a tool used in activity sequencing to identify precedents and dependencies.

A is incorrect because influence diagrams are graphical representations showing causal influences and can help identify risks. C is incorrect because process flowcharts show how elements of a system interrelate and can help identify risks. D is incorrect as well. Cause-and-effect diagrams are also known as Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams and can help identify risks.

52. Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all but one of the following. Which doesn’t it include?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Root causes of risks

C. Updated risk categories

D. A list of potential responses

Hint: Not the preliminaries.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

A is correct because qualitative risk analysis is not contained in the risk register.

B is incorrect because root causes of risks describe the fundamental conditions or events that give rise to the risk, and are included in the risk register. C is incorrect because the process of identifying risk can lead to new categories of risk and these are included in the risk register. D is also incorrect. Potential responses may be identified during the risk identification process and are included in the risk register.

53. You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and you’re working with your project team to create the project’s risk management plan. Which one of the following items is NOT part of the risk management plan?

C. The risk register

Hint: This should register with you.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

C is correct. The risk register is not part of the risk management plan but rather the output of the risk identification process.

A is incorrect because it assigns resources and cost estimates for risk management activities and is therefore part of the risk management plan. B is incorrect because risk categories provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process to identify risks to a consistent level of detail and is, therefore, part of the risk management plan. D is incorrect because a methodology defines the approach, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management and is thus part of the risk management plan.

54. As the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may be unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to the risk identification process?

A. Organizational process assets

C. The project scope statement

D. The risk management plan

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

B is correct. While Pareto charts are useful for quality control, they are not specific inputs to the risk identification process.

A is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an input to risk identification because information on prior projects may be available, including actual data and lessons learned. C is incorrect. The project scope statement is an input to risk identification because any uncertainty in project assumptions should be evaluated as a potential cause of risk. D is incorrect. The risk management plan is a key input to risk identification, including roles and responsibilities, provisions for risk management activities in the budget and schedule, and categories of risk.

55. Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project risks. Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?

B. Defect repair review

C. A strength, weakness, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis

D. A product analysis

Hint: Not a police force.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

C is correct. This technique ensures examination of the project from each of the SWOT perspectives to increase the breadth of considered risks. It is therefore an effective risk identification technique.

A is incorrect. The purpose of control charts is to determine whether or not a process is stable, or has predictable performance. Thus, it is not a risk identification technique. B is incorrect. Defect repair review is an action taken by the quality control department to ensure defects are repaired. It is therefore not a risk identification technique. D is also incorrect. Product analysis uses techniques like product breakdown to help define the scope of a project rather than identify risks.

56. You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This project will replace 128 network servers on your company’s network. Your project sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative risk analysis technique?

A. Risk categorization

B. Expected monetary value analysis

C. A probability-impact matrix

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

B is correct. Expected monetary value analysis is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. Therefore, it is a quantitative analysis technique.

A is incorrect. Risk categorization determines areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty, but it is not a quantitative analysis technique. C is incorrect because this matrix prioritizes risks for further quantitative analysis. D is incorrect because the risk register is an output of the risk identification process and is not a quantitative analysis technique.

57. Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each variable?

A. Alternatives identification

B. The precedence diagramming method

C. The arrow diagramming method

Hint: The root of the matter.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

D is correct. This is a decision tree diagram that describes a situation and the implications of each of the available choices with the costs and rewards of each choice.

A is incorrect. Alternatives identification is a technique used to generate different approaches to perform the work of the project rather than a quantitative risk analysis technique. B is incorrect. The precedence diagramming method is a way to construct the project schedule and thus is not a quantitative risk analysis technique. C is incorrect. The arrow diagramming method is a way to construct the project schedule network diagram and is therefore not a quantitative risk analysis technique.

C. An Ishikawa diagram

Hint: Avoid the quality tools.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Identify Risks and Define Risk Strategies

A is correct. Through numerous iterations, this chart describes the cumulative distribution of results from a cost simulation.

B is incorrect because a Pareto chart is a quality control technique. C is incorrect because an Ishikawa diagram is used for root cause analysis rather than quantitative risk analysis. D is also incorrect because a decision tree diagram is a quantitative risk analysis technique, but this is not what is shown in the diagram.

59. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating in a functional environment, you’d like some compromise with your functional manager. Which individual has the power in a functional organization?

A. The project manager

C. The functional manager

D. The program manager

Hint: This organizational structure limits the project manager’s autonomy.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Plan Approval

C is correct. The functional manager has the power in a functional organization.

A is incorrect. The project manager has limited power in a functional organization and may even be known as a project coordinator or team leader. B is incorrect. Although the customer sets the project requirements, they have little project management authority. D is incorrect because a program manager won’t likely exist in a functional organization.

60. Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which one of the following?

A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet performance objectives

B. Funds available to invest in a new project

C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed

D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested in a savings account rather than in a project

Hint: Companies put their money to work.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Determine Resource Requirements

B is correct. Working capital is the money an organization has to run the business and invest in new opportunities—which includes projects.

A is incorrect. This explanation describes sunk costs. C is incorrect. This explanation describes the return on investment for the project. D is incorrect. This explanation describes the time value of money.

61. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating in a strong matrix environment, you’d like some compromise with your functional manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix organization?

A. The project manager

C. The functional manager

D. The program manager

Hint: Strong is good for the project manager. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Plan Approval

A is correct. The project manager has the power in a strong matrix organization.

B is incorrect. Although the customer sets the project requirements, they have little project management authority. C is incorrect because the functional manager has limited power in a strong matrix organization. D is incorrect because a program manager may not even exist in a strong matrix organization.

62. Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. She’s working with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the following statements about the project plan is true?

A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.

B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.

C. Management must approve the project plan.

D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plan’s approval.

Hint: All projects require this.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Plan Approval

C is correct. Management must approve all project plans.

A is incorrect. All projects need a project plan. B is incorrect. Project plans can, and often are, changed during project implementation. D is incorrect. Customers have input, but not the final say on a project plan’s approval.

A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project planning because their presence may stifle creativity among the project team members.

B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the project work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.

C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning sessions in case the project team moves away from their requirements. This way they can correct the discussion and keep the planning on track for their deliverables.

D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the project plan.

Hint: Use the stakeholders’ knowledge.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Plan Approval

D is correct. Stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the project plan.

A is incorrect because this isn’t true. B is incorrect. While this statement may be true in many instances, it is not the best reason to involve stakeholders in the project planning sessions. C is also incorrect. This is not true because the goal of involving stakeholders is to use their knowledge about the deliverable they want, not to direct the project team in their discussion on how to best create the deliverables.

64. Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders, the project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting. What is this type of meeting called?

A. A requirements gathering meeting

B. A risk identification meeting

C. A kick-off meeting

D. A team development meeting

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 1

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Kick-Off Meeting

C is correct. A project kick-off meeting gets the project moving and identifies the individuals involved in the project.

A is incorrect. This is not the requirements gathering meeting, though project requirements may be touched on. B is incorrect because this is not a meeting for risk identification. D is also incorrect because this is not a team development meeting.

65. You are the project manager for your company and you’ve recently been assigned to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting happen?

A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first time

B. When the project manager has approved the project plan

C. When management has approved the initial project plan

D. At the start of scope validation

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 1

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Kick-Off Meeting

C is correct. The project kick-off meeting happens after the initial project plan has been approved.

A is incorrect because this does not answer the question as well as C. B is incorrect because the project manager does not necessarily approve the project plan—management does. D is incorrect because this is not a valid statement because scope validation is an inspection-drive process that aims for the project customer to accept the project work.

66. You are the project manager for your company and you’re managing a new project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesn’t want to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?

A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.

B. It allows the project to begin.

C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.

D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.

Hint: Seek understanding.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 1

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Kick-Off Meeting

C is correct. The project kick-off meeting happens so that the participants can all understand the project’s purpose.

A is incorrect because while this may be a true statement for many projects, it is not the primary purpose of the project’s kick-off meeting. B is incorrect because the project charter is technically what launches the project, not the kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because this is not the primary purpose of the project’s kick-off meeting.

A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.

B. Only the project team should attend.

C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.

D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.

Hint: Don’t leave anyone out.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 1

Study Guide Objective: Conduct Kick-Off Meeting

B is correct. All of the key stakeholders should attend the project kick-off meeting, not just the project team.

A is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. C is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting.

Hint: It’s waiting time.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

A is correct. Lag time is waiting time. When a project manager adds times between activities, he is adding lag.

B is incorrect. Lead is subtracting time between activities. C is incorrect because crashing adds resources to activities so they can finish faster. D is incorrect because fast tracking changes the relationship between activities so they can finish faster.

Some of the vendor’s activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following statements about the critical path is true?

A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.

B. The critical path is the path with zero float.

C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.

D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.

Hint: All projects have a critical path.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

B is correct. The critical path is the path with zero float.

A is incorrect. A path can have many activities and not be the critical path. C is also incorrect. While lag can increase a project’s duration, a path with the least lag does not make it the critical path. D is incorrect because this is not a valid answer.

70. You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a predetermined date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the activity, the work will take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team members to the work, the task won’t necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is because of which one of the following?

A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation

B. The law of diminishing returns

C. Parkinson’s Law

Hint: You can only get so much wheat from a wheat field.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

B is correct. The law of diminishing returns affects the yield of work in relation to work duration.

A is incorrect because Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation deals with hygiene agents and motivating agents. C is incorrect because Parkinson’s Law states that work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it. D is also incorrect because Ouchi’s Theory Z believes in cooperative management.

71. You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. You’re working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the project. Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know when the largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you tell the project sponsor?

A. During the initiation processes

B. During the planning processes

C. During the execution processes

D. During the control processes

Hint: Do the project work.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

C is correct. The largest percentage of the project budget will be spent during the project execution processes.

A is incorrect. The initiation processes do not require the bulk of the project budget. B is incorrect because the planning processes do not require the bulk of the project budget. D is also incorrect because the control processes do not require the bulk of the project budget.

72. You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the project plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the walls to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem that won’t change the project end date?

A. Add lead time to the painting activity.

B. Add lag time to the painting activity.

C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.

D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between activities can be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the project.

Hint: The critical path has no slack.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

D is correct. Because the critical path cannot be expanded, the only logical choice is to attempt to move the activities to later in the project. The project team should focus on other activities while the primer cures.

A is incorrect because lead time subtracts time from the scheduled start time of activities. B is incorrect. Lag time will increase the time of the painting activities. C is also incorrect because changing the relationship of activities will not help the primer cure faster.

73. You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected to add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on time. This is an example of which one of the following?

Hint: You should hope the workers don’t “bump” into each other.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

C is correct. Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to an activity to complete it faster. This does not always work because some activities have a fixed duration.

A is incorrect. This is not risk management. Fast tracking, not crashing, introduces new risk for projects. B is incorrect because this is not an example of time management. D is also incorrect. Fast tracking allows activities that should start in succession to overlap so the project may finish sooner. Fast tracking may also use lead time.

74. You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project is running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-to-start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an example of which one of the following?

C. Rolling wave planning

Hint: Don’t make waves.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

B is correct. Fast tracking changes the relationships of activities so the project may finish sooner than expected.

A is incorrect. Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to the project work in order to complete it sooner than expected. C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning allows planning to be completed based on the conditions within the project in waves or successions. D is also incorrect because this is not an example of expert judgment.

75. Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and he’s using earned value management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project has an SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what?

A. The project is behind schedule.

B. The project is ahead of schedule.

C. The project is losing money.

D. The project is 80 percent complete.

Hint: SPI is the schedule performance index.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Execute Tasks Defined in the Project Plan

A is correct. A schedule performance index of .80 means the project is behind schedule. The closer to “1” the SPI is, the better the project.

B is incorrect because an SPI of .80 means the project is behind schedule, not ahead. C is also incorrect. While the project likely will result in being over budget due to the labor demands to complete the project, the SPI deals with the project schedule. D is incorrect as well since an SPI does not reflect the percentage complete of the project.

76. A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes below 80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what?

B. The management horizon

Hint: You don’t want to cross this.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

D is correct because the 80 percent mark is known as a threshold.

A is incorrect because the 80 percent mark is not the risk. The risk comes after the threshold is passed. B is incorrect because the management horizon is the point in time when the project has paid for the investment. C is also incorrect because risk impact is the affect the risk event has on the project’s success.

77. The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of the first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following?

B. Progressive elaboration

C. Rolling wave planning

D. Project scheduling

Hint: The project can die here.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

A is correct. Based on the end result of a phase, management or the customer may elect to kill a project.

B is incorrect. Progressive elaboration is the refinement of the project concept as the project progresses. C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is the successions of planning that happen throughout a project based on conditions and results of the project work. D

is incorrect because this is not an example of project scheduling. Q78: Executing the Project

C. Change requests approved versus declined

D. Interviews with the project team

Hint: These predict.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

B is correct because baselines can be used to compare what is actual against what was predicted.

A is incorrect because variance reports don’t necessarily reflect project progress. C is incorrect because change requests do not reflect the progression of a project. D is also incorrect because interviews with the project team may not reflect the project’s overall progress.

79. A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is the most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?

A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel the project.

B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the project manager.

C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove the project manager and replace him with a more experienced project manager.

D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the project scope.

Hint: Correct the problem before adding anything new.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

B is correct. When a project is going badly, operating beyond its budget, or off schedule, changes may be made to reduce the project scope or to add quality activities to ensure the product is correct.

A is incorrect. Projects are not canceled via change requests. C is incorrect. Change requests are not made for administrative changes. D is also incorrect. A well-performing project should stay on course with no changes to project scope.

80. Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work. The project manager is using which form of estimating?

Hint: You don’t have to be an expert to use this method.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

B is correct. Because the project manager is using another similar project to predict the duration of the current project, he is using the analogous method.

A is incorrect because parametric estimating is based on parameters, such as units, metric tons, and so on. C is incorrect. Bottom-up estimates start at zero and take in all costs for each activity. D is also incorrect because this is not the best answer for the question.

81. Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements best defines quality assurance?

A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. If the results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager applies root cause analysis to determine the cause of the poor performance and then eliminates the cause.

B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the relevant quality standards.

C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective actions are applied to improve the product and the project.

D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own quality procedures.

Hint: Organizational standards apply for all projects.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

B is correct. Quality assurance maps to an organization’s quality policy and is typically a managerial process.

A is incorrect because this statement defines quality control. C is incorrect because this statement defines quality improvement. D is also incorrect because this statement defines ISO 9000.

82. You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance?

A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation

B. Benefit cost analysis

D. Design of experiments

Hint: Agents aren’t helpful here.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Common Understanding and Set Objectives

A is correct. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation is based on motivating agents and hygiene agents and is not applied to quality assurance.

B is incorrect because benefit cost analysis can be applied to quality assurance. C is incorrect because flowcharting can be applied to quality assurance. D is also incorrect. Design of experiments is a tool that can be applied to quality assurance.

83. Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software. Thus, you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In which process is the make-or-buy analysis used?

A. Contract closeout

C. Purchase planning

Hint: You’ve made no decisions yet.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

C is correct. You are creating a make-or-buy analysis to determine the need to complete the work in-house or send the work to a vendor. At this point in the project, you are completing procurement planning.

A is incorrect. This is not done in contract closeout. B is incorrect because source selection will happen if the decision is made to buy the product or service. D is incorrect because solicitation will happen if the result of the analysis is to buy the project or service from a vendor.

84. Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has a risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following?

Hint: Someone else owns the risk responsibility.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

B is correct because purchasing insurance as a response to a risk is transference.

A is incorrect because mitigations are actions taken to reduce the impact or probability of a risk event. C is incorrect because avoidance avoids the project risk. D is also incorrect because countermeasures are actions taken to neutralize the risk impact.

85. You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members are no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the procured project team members may be excused from the project?

A. The contract between your organization and the vendor

B. The staffing management plan

C. The scope management plan

D. The schedule management plan

Hint: There is a buyer and a seller.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 12 introduction

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

A is correct. The contract will determine how long the project team members will be allowed to, or are required to, stay on the project.

B is incorrect. The staffing management plan will concur with the contract details to determine how procured resources are released from the project. C is incorrect because the scope management plan determines how the project scope may be changed. D is incorrect because the schedule management plan determines how changes to the schedule will be managed.

A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.

B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.

C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.

D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 12

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

B is correct. Vendors should have ample time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.

A is incorrect. Vendors likely will not have pricing information during the bidder’s conference. C is incorrect because vendors will not negotiate pricing in the conference. D is also incorrect because the contract manager may handle negotiations with bidders, but the negotiation process does not happen at the bidder’s conference

87. You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the following must you do next in regard to the electrician?

A. Complete the invoice

C. Inspect the work results

D. Sign off on the work

Hint: Only sign off on approved work.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 12

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

C is correct. Once the vendor reports that the work is complete, the project manager should inspect the work. This inspection can be done firsthand, if the project manager is qualified, or by another qualified person or group. A is incorrect because the vendor completes the invoice for the buyer. B is incorrect. The project manager will pay the invoice according to the project contract—and after the work is verified as complete. D is also incorrect. The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and deemed acceptable.

88. The project has been completed and management wants to know exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project. Which of the following is most likely to happen in this situation?

A. An audit of the project plan

B. An audit of the quality of the project

C. An audit of the procurement documents

D. An audit of the project team members’ work

Hint: Vendors have been paid.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 12

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

C is correct. Management will likely want to complete an audit of the procurement records.

A is incorrect because a project plan audit is not needed. B is incorrect. While the quality of the project work is needed, it will not help management ascertain where the monies have been spent in the project. D is also incorrect. The project team members’ work may be audited for quality and completeness, but it will not answer management’s question about the finances.

89. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re starting the project process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example of a screening system?

A. An organization breakdown structure

B. An independent estimate

C. A requirement for the seller to have a PMP on staff

Hint: You will qualify soon.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Implement the Procurement of Project Resources

C is correct. The requirement for the vendor to have a PMP on staff can be used as a screening system to filter out vendors that do not have the proper qualifications.

A is incorrect because an organization breakdown structure shows how the organization is decomposed into departments, groups, managers, and other functional-based components. B is incorrect because an independent estimate is used to compare vendors’ bids on the project work. D is also incorrect because a weighted model scores vendors in different categories of qualification.

90. You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?

A. The project manager

B. The risk management plan

C. The project scope

D. The project charter

Hint: You have no authority.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

D is correct. The functional manager likely isn’t allowing her employees to work on the project because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so.

91. You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the following stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?

A. Functional managers

B. The project champion

C. Project team members

D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this structure.

Hint: Power is limited.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

A is correct. The functional managers in a weak matrix will have to approve the project schedule.

B is incorrect because the project champion does not approve the project schedule. C is incorrect. The project team does not approve the project schedule; they may provide input, but not approval. D is also incorrect because the project manager has limited authority in a weak matrix structure.

C. Add qualified resources to the critical path

D. Fast track the project

Hint: Use your project team.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

C is correct. When there are unused resources that can help, the project manager should add these resources to the critical path to reduce the duration of the activities.

A is incorrect because lead time is not the best solution. B is incorrect because lag time will cause the project to last longer. D is also incorrect. Fast tracking the project will shorten the project duration, but it also increases risk. Plus, adding unused resources is the best solution to attempt first.

93. You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining the physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following?

A. Resource selecting

C. Resource planning

D. Resource process selection

Hint: Always do this before committing.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

C is correct. Resource planning considers the resource pool, resource availability, resource costs, and resource calendars against the project calendar, scheduled activities, and overall need for particular resources to determine what is the best resource for a given activity.

A is incorrect. Resource selecting is simply choosing which resource is appropriate for the project team or the project work. B is incorrect. Source selection is a procurement process to determine which vendor is the best choice for the project work. D is incorrect because this answer is an invalid choice and is not appropriate.

94. You are the project manager for your organization and are currently determining which resource is the best fit for each of the project activities. Thus, you are completing which one of the following?

A. Project human resource management

B. Project role assignment

C. The development of the project team

D. The fulfillment of staff acquisitions

Hint: This is a formal process.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

A is correct. Project human resource management is the process of successfully applying the right resource to the project work in the most effective way in order to accomplish the project goals while maintaining cost and schedule.

B is incorrect because role assignment is not a viable choice for this question. C is incorrect. Developing the project team involves updating skill set and team relationships, so it is not a viable choice. D is also incorrect because the question does not indicate that project team members need to be acquired for the project.

95. John is the project sponsor for your project and you’ve been working with him regarding some quality and risk issues. Which of the following statements is true about the project sponsor’s activities?

A. The project sponsor manages the project with the project manager.

B. The project sponsor assigns the project team members to specific project activities.

C. The project sponsor allows the project manager to make all decisions in a functional environment.

D. The project sponsor ensures the project manager has the necessary resources to complete the project.

Hint: Look toward the project completion.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

D is correct. The project sponsor does ensure that the project manager has the necessary resources to complete the project.

A is incorrect because the project sponsor does not manage with the project manager. B is incorrect because the project sponsor does not assign project team members to activities, the project manager does. C is also incorrect because a project manager has little to no authority in a functional environment.

96. You and another project manager are in competition for Juan. Both of you need him for activities on your projects full-time, but your projects overlap in schedule. This is an example of which one of the following?

A. Resource pool availability

B. Conflict management

D. Resource constraint

Hint: Forget the castles.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Manage Resource Allocation

D is correct because if certain activities require a worker with a highly specialized skill, these activities are resource-dependent.

A is incorrect because while the availability of the resources must be examined, this is an example of resource-dependent activities. B is incorrect because the question does not provide enough information to determine if conflict management was involved or successful. C is also incorrect. Ivory tower is slang for resources that involve the only worker with a highly specialized skill set. Usually the individual is in demand and may develop a cocky attitude about their abilities within the organization.

A. Facilitate design of experiments

B. Complete the statistical analysis of defects

C. Offer insight into problems that are causing failure

D. Offer a complete cause-and-effect analysis

Hint: Ishikawa diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Quality Management Plan

D is correct. An Ishikawa diagram facilitates cause-and-effect analysis.

A is incorrect because Ishikawa diagrams do not facilitate design of experiments. B is incorrect because control charts and Pareto charts complete the statistical analysis of defects. C is also incorrect because a Pareto chart offers insights into problems that are causing failure.

98. A project manager has a project team member whose work is consistently not in alignment with the quality metrics as required by the customer. This discrepancy results in rework and wasted time. What should the project manager do?

A. Adjust the quality baseline.

B. Implement corrective actions.

C. Discipline the project team member.

D. Update the quality management plan.

Hint: Fix the problem.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Quality Management Plan

B is correct because corrective actions are actions taken to bring future performance into alignment with the project plan.

A is incorrect because adjusting the quality baseline will not change what is expected from the customer. C is incorrect. Corrective actions may include disciplining the project team member and other mechanisms to prevent the problem from recurring. D is also incorrect because updating any plans will not solve the actual problem of unacceptable work.

Hint: Stay away from targets.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Quality Management Plan

C is correct. Low grade may not be a problem if that is what the customer has asked for. Low quality, however, is always a problem.

A, B, and D are incorrect because these are not viable choices for this question.

100. You are the project manager of a project to solve customer service problems in your company’s call center. You would like to create a chart showing the frequency of problems your project team has identified. What is the name of the chart you would like to create?

Hint: Remember the 80/20 rule.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Quality Management Plan

A is correct because a Pareto chart lists the problems and shows their frequency of events.

B is incorrect because control charts are a graphic display of the end results of a process sampling over time. C is incorrect because flowcharts show the relationship between components in a system. D is incorrect because a Gantt chart shows activity time mapped to a calendar.

101. You are the project manager of a project to manufacture a new product. The project is almost complete. The initial product is being tested and the quality engineers discover a part is seven millimeters off target. Because of the errors, the product is rejected. What is the likely outcome of this scenario?

A. A change request must be immediately created to change the product’s design.

B. The project team must rework the part to correct the problem.

C. The project is deemed a failure and is canceled.

D. The prototype is discarded and the design document is re-created.

Hint: The project is not over yet.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Quality Management Plan

B is correct. The project is not over. Rework must be done to bring the project back into alignment with the product requirements.

A is incorrect. A change request is not the best answer for this question. Rework is required instead to correct the problem. A change request signifies an addition or subtraction from the project scope. C is incorrect because this is not a viable option. D is incorrect because the design document is not re-created. Rework is completed to meet the project objectives.

102. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re currently mentoring Marcy in the principles of project management. She does not understand the difference between quality and grade. Which of the following statements would best explain to Marcy what grade is?

A. Grade is the degree of perfection a component has.

B. Grade is the category or rank given to a component with the same functionality but different technical characteristics.

C. Grade is the category or rank given to a component with the same functionalities.

D. Grade is the category or rank given to project work as deemed by the customer.

Hint: Think of paint, metal, or travel.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Quality Management Plan

B is correct. Grade, according to the PMP Study Guide, “is a category or rank given to entities having the same functional use but different technical characteristics.”

A is incorrect. Grade and perfection may seem related, but a high grade of a component may still have multiple imperfections. C is incorrect because the products being measured for grade have the same functionality, but different characteristics. Consider travel, where travelers have coach, business class, and first class. D is incorrect. The customer has input to the quality and desire for a particular grade of the component, but does not determine what the grade may be.

103. You are a project manager responsible for the implementation of a software program. Your project team will travel to several hundred remote locations to install the software onsite. Project team members are reporting that the stakeholders in the locations are asking them to do extra configuration work as part of the install. If the changes are routed through the change control system, it may be several days before the changes can happen, and the project team members are only onsite for two days at each location. What should you do?

A. Refuse the changes because they are outside of the original project scope.

B. Evaluate the changes that have been requested so far in the project and determine if the changes are valid. If so, blanket-approve the changes if other sites request them.

C. Evaluate the changes that have been requested so far in the project and determine if the changes are valid. If so, approve the changes as part of the installation process for all sites.

D. Require all changes to flow through the change control system. If changes are approved, they’ll be added at a later date and time if the project team agrees to complete the work.

Hint: Aim for consistency.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

C is correct. If the changes the stakeholders are requesting at each of the sites are valid requests that should be approved, the project manager should integrate these changes across all installations, not just for the customers who request the changes.

A is incorrect because if the changes are valid, they should be approved. B is incorrect because changes should be uniform across the project, not piecemeal. D is also incorrect. Adding the changes later rather than anticipating the change requests is not cost-effective. The project manager should evaluate the changes and implement them as part of the project plan.

Hint: The further the project is from completing, the higher the risk and uncertainty.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

A is correct. Change is easily accepted in the beginning of a project. As the project moves toward completion, change is harder to incorporate.

B is incorrect. Risk is only accepted based on its impact on the project and the performing organization’s utility function. Recall that the utility function is an organization’s willingness to accept risk. C is incorrect because team development happens throughout the project. D is incorrect because scope validation happens throughout the project at phase completion, at major project deliverables, and at project completion.

A. The change control plan

B. The project scope management plan

C. The cost management plan

D. The quality management plan

Hint: Protect the scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

B is correct. The change control system is documented in the project scope management plan.

A is incorrect because this is not a valid project management plan. C is incorrect because this plan does not define change control. D is also incorrect for the same reason.

106. A change has been approved for your project. This change will cause the project to increase in costs by $25,000. What needs to be updated as a result of this change? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The change control plan

B. Project cost estimates

C. The project schedule

D. The cost baseline

Hint: More money doesn’t mean more time. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

D is correct. The cost baseline must be updated to reflect this change to the project scope.

A is incorrect because this is not a valid plan. B is incorrect because the cost estimates come before the project work has begun. This change has been approved. C is also incorrect. Just because additional expenses have been introduced to the project does not mean that the schedule will need to be updated as well. Consider the costs associated with changing materials.

A. The project charter

Hint: This document authorizes the project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

A is correct. The project charter has already been created because it authorizes the project.

B is incorrect. Risk does not need to be examined again because the change may introduce risk concerns into the project. C is incorrect. The schedule will need to be examined because the changes may cause the current schedule to change. D is also incorrect. The changes may bring additional costs with them so the project costs will need to be examined.

108. You are the project manager of the HGF Project. The project scope has been approved by all stakeholders and management. The project is now moving forward. A week later, however, two of the key stakeholders, John and Tina, come to you demanding to change some aspects of the scope statement. What should the project manager do?

A. Refuse to make any changes because the scope has already been approved.

B. Refuse to make any changes because the scope cannot be changed once it has been approved.

C. Refuse to make any changes, but have the stakeholders complete a change request form.

D. Refuse to make any changes, but refer the stakeholders to your project sponsor.

Hint: Stakeholders must follow the rules.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

C is correct. A change request form will allow the change request to be documented, considered, and approved or declined.

A is incorrect because this is not a correct statement about the circumstance described. B is incorrect because scope statements can be changed if the need is appropriate. D is also incorrect. The project sponsor is not the party to talk to about changes at this point. A change request is the best form of action.

109. Julianne is the project manager of the JGB Project. A change request has been approved that will add a considerable amount of time and cost to the project. What must be updated to reflect these changes?

A. The scope baseline

B. The project charter

C. The communications matrix

D. Contractual agreements

Hint: Document the deliverables.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Changes

A is correct. A change that adds to the project scope will likely cause the WBS and the WBS dictionary to be updated. The scope baseline is the combination of the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary so all three are updated and linked together.

B is incorrect. The project charter does not need to change. C is incorrect. In some instances, the communications matrix will need to be updated—but not in all instances.

That’s why A is a better answer to this question. D is incorrect. In some instances, the contractual agreements will need to be updated—but not in all instances. Again, that’s why A is a better answer to this question. For instance, not every project will have a contract.

110. You are the project manager for your organization. Your latest project is to create a web interface that allows customers to purchase items from an online catalog. If you create the product in-house, it will cost $150,000 to create and nearly $4,500 each month in administration and fees. A vendor has supplied a quote to create the software for $160,000 and to handle the administration for five cents per transaction. There are expected to be 65,000 transactions each month. Which one of the following will help you determine which decision has the best value?

Hint: Nothing has been created yet.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Actions and Workarounds

C is correct. A decision tree will help you determine which one is the best decision for the project.

A is incorrect because control charts illustrate patterns and the results of sampling. B is incorrect because trend analysis can use historical information to predict future trends. D is also incorrect because a Pareto chart illustrates the causes of defects and their frequency.

111. A project manager wants to assign resources to activities that must happen during off-hours. The labor union, however, wants to discuss this issue with the project manager before approving the schedule. The relationship between the labor union and management is represented by which one of the following?

B. A collective bargaining agreement

C. Time and materials

D. A project constraint

Hint: T–M doesn’t apply.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Actions and Workarounds

B is correct. The agreement between management and the labor union is known as a collective bargaining agreement.

A is incorrect. Although the agreement between management and the labor union is a contract, this answer is not as good as answer B. C is incorrect because this is not applicable to the agreement. D is also incorrect. The union’s rules and policies may be a project constraint, but this does not describe the relationship between management and the union.

112. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with management and the project team to create the project management plan. Which plan controls how team members are brought onto and released from the project?

A. The staffing management plan

B. The cost management plan

C. The communications management plan

D. The scope management plan

Hint: This answer doesn’t affect the scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Actions and Workarounds

A is correct. The staffing management plan details how workers are brought onto and released from the project. Note that the staffing management plan is a component within the project’s human resource management plan.

B is incorrect because the cost management plan details how variances to cost will be managed. C is incorrect because the communications management plan details who needs what information and when. D is incorrect because the scope management plan details how changes to the scope will be prevented or allowed.

113. Fred is the project manager of the HUT Project and he’s in a conflict with Sarah about requiring the project team to work overtime. Fred insists that overworking the project team may result in all but one of the following. Which one won’t result?

A. Unacceptable work

B. A decline in team morale

C. An increase in quality inspections

D. A decrease in the project team’s willingness to work

Hint: This comes from an outside influence.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Actions and Workarounds

C is correct. An increase in quality inspections may be needed, but there is no guarantee these will come as a result of an overworked team.

A is incorrect because an overworked team may create unacceptable work. B is incorrect because a decline in team morale is likely with an overworked project team. D is also incorrect. A willingness to work will likely decrease because the project team is exhausted and frustrated with both the project manager and the project work.

114. A project manager is completing a project for another organization and is currently completing risk planning in order to determine which risks demand actions in the project. Which one of the following must be considered when planning to take actions regarding the project risks?

A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation

B. The Utility method

C. The negative risk event value

D. The organizational structure

Hint: A willingness to accept risks determines the actions required.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Actions and Workarounds

B is correct. The Utility method describes an organization’s willingness to accept risk, and the willingness to accept risk will determine the level of response required for the identified risks.

A is incorrect because Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation is not relevant to this question. C is incorrect. The risk event value may be considered, but only after the Utility method is considered. D is also incorrect because the organizational structure has little input to the risk response in most projects.

115. Sarah is the project manager of a project to create an online help manual for customers of a product her company sells. Samuel, a writer for the project, is taking considerably longer than what was planned to create the documentation. While Samuel’s work is excellent, if he continues to be late with the needed documentation, the project will be late. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate corrective action for this problem?

A. Remove Samuel from the project team.

B. Assign other writers to some of Samuel’s project work.

C. Determine why Samuel’s work is late.

D. Assign Samuel to noncritical activities.

Hint: Samuel is a good writer.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Implement Approved Actions and Workarounds

A is correct. Because Samuel is a good writer, it would be detrimental to the project to remove him entirely. The project manager should determine why the problem exists and then respond to the problem with corrective actions.

B is incorrect. It may be beneficial to offload some of Samuel’s assigned work to other writers. C is incorrect. The project manager should determine why Samuel’s work is late. D is incorrect because it may be appropriate to assign Samuel to noncritical path activities.

116. You are the project manager of the generator upgrade and replacement project, which is expected to last 36 months. The project work is extremely dangerous so the project team will undergo intense safety training to ensure the safety of the workers and to make certain the project is not delayed due to faulty work. The cost of the safety training is known as which one of the following?

A. The cost of conformance to quality

B. The cost of nonconformance to quality

C. The cost of doing business

D. The cost of regulations

Hint: This ensures quality is met.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Improve Team Performance

A is correct. This is an example of the cost of conformance to quality.

B is incorrect. The cost of nonconformance is the cost of having to redo the project work, loss of sales, downtime, and other expenses caused by not doing the training. C is incorrect. The cost of doing business is usually assigned to regular expenses such as salaries, rent for office space, lights, and so on. Training, especially this type of training, is above and beyond the cost of doing business. D is incorrect because the question does not suggest that regulations require this training.

117. The communications management plan will detail the schedule for expected communications among other activities. One of the regularly scheduled meetings is used to record the status of project work. Which one of the following is used to record the status of project work?

A. A quality review meeting

B. A change control meeting

D. A team development meeting

Hint: Find out how the project is doing.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 10

Study Guide Objective: Improve Team Performance

C is correct. Status review meetings are regularly scheduled meetings to record the status of the project work.

A is incorrect. Quality review meetings review the overall quality of the project and how it may be improved if the quality is off target. B is incorrect because change control meetings are called for to review change requests. D is incorrect as well because team development meetings are used to foster project team relations.

118. Team development is an important part of project management. Team development fosters relationships and good communication among the project team members. Which one of the following can improve project teamwork?

D. Offsite activities

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Improve Team Performance

D is correct. Offsite activities can give the project team an opportunity to get to know each other without the stress and interference of the workplace.

A is incorrect because hallway meetings are part of communications. B is incorrect because informal e-mails are part of communications as well. C is incorrect because videoconferences do not develop the project team.

119. John is the project manager for his company. John believes that the project team should just know and do their assignments. Team development, John believes, is wasted time away from doing the project work. Why should the project manager work to develop the project team?

A. The project manager should not work for team development. It is a natural process that will occur on its own accord.

B. To improve the skills of team members in order to increase their ability to complete project activities

C. To increase the likelihood of the project being profitable

D. To increase communications

Hint: Focus on the project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Improve Team Performance

B is correct. Part of team development is to increase each team member’s ability to complete the project work.

A is incorrect. Team development may happen, to some extent, on its own, but it should be facilitated by the project manager. C is incorrect because not all projects have a focus on profits. D is incorrect as well. An increase in communications is not always a good thing; consider effective communications versus rampant communications.

120. You are the project manager of the JKG Project. You have determined that the project team needs additional training to complete the project work. The additional training is which type of cost?

Hint: The project team needs training for this project’s work.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 2

Study Guide Objective: Improve Team Performance

A is correct. This is an example of direct costs because the training is needed to complete the current project’s work.

B is incorrect since indirect costs are shared across multiple projects. C is incorrect. This is not an example of a variable cost. Variable costs fluctuate depending on the conditions within a project. D is incorrect because fixed costs are persistent throughout the project—such as leasing a piece of equipment.

121. You are the project manager of a large network upgrade project. The project scope has been approved and now you’re ready to create the WBS. Who actually creates the WBS?

B. The project sponsor

C. The project manager

Hint: The WBS creation is not a solo activity.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Create the WBS

D is correct. The project team creates the WBS.

A is incorrect. Stakeholders do not create the WBS. Consider a project that may have thousands of stakeholders—it would be impractical to have them contribute to the creation of the WBS. In addition, they likely would not have the required skills to contribute to the WBS. B is incorrect because the project sponsor does not create the WBS. C is incorrect as well. The project manager does not create the WBS. He may contribute, guide, and facilitate the process, but it is not a solo activity. Q122: Executing the Project

A. Ouchi’s Theory Z

C. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation

Hint: This doesn’t hurt.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 9

Study Guide Objective: Develop the Project Team

A is correct. Ouchi’s Theory Z, also known as the Japanese Management Style, believes that the project team can be self-led and productive if challenged.

B is incorrect. Deming offered philosophies on quality, not necessarily human resources. C is incorrect because Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation defines hygiene agents and motivating agents that cause an individual to excel. D is also incorrect. Pareto’s Law is commonly known as the 80/20 rule. For example, 80 percent of your business comes from 20 percent of your customers.

A. The work breakdown structure

B. The network diagram

D. Risk event triggers

Hint: This serves as an input to other planning processes.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

A is correct. The WBS is the best tool for tracking project scope.

B is incorrect because a network diagram illustrates the sequence of project activities. C is incorrect because QC involves methods to ensure the work meets the expected quality designed for the project. D is also incorrect. Risk event triggers are conditions that signal a risk event has occurred or is about to occur.

124. You need to know when project team members are available to work on the project. Which calendar will take into account project team members’ vacations?

A. The project calendar

B. The resource calendar

C. The project team calendar

D. The human resource management calendar

Hint: The answer is not HR-related.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

B is correct. The resource calendar controls when resources, such as project team members, consultants, and SMEs are available to work on the project. It takes into account vacations, other commitments within the organization, restrictions on contracted work, overtime issues, and so on.

A is incorrect because the project calendar details when work is allowed on the project. C and D are incorrect because neither is a valid answer.

125. You are a project manager for your organization. Your project has a BAC of $400,000 and is expected to last one year. The project work is scheduled to be completed in equal amounts each month. Currently, the project is in month three but is only 20 percent complete. You have spent $35,000 to complete the work. What is the earned value for this project?

D. Not enough information has been supplied to determine this

Hint: Find the percent complete. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

B is correct. The earned value for this project is 20 percent complete. The formula is EV = % complete × BAC.

A is incorrect. The EV is not a negative number since it is 20 percent complete. C is incorrect because $100,000 is the planned value amount. D is also incorrect because there is enough information to calculate the formula.

126. You are a project manager for your organization. Your project has a BAC of $400,000 and is expected to last one year. The project work is scheduled to be completed in equal amounts each month. Currently, the project is in month three, but is only 20 percent complete. You have spent $35,000 to complete the work. Given this, what is the planned value for this project?

Hint: Find out how much should have been spent.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

D is correct. The planned value is the amount the project should have spent to reach this point in the schedule. Because the project is scheduled to last one year with the work completed in separate parts each month, month three represents 25 percent of the project, or $100,000.

A is incorrect because $20,000 is not the planned value. B is incorrect because $35,000 is the actual cost. C is also incorrect because $80,000 is the earned value

127. You are a project manager for your organization. Your project has a BAC of $250,000 and is expected to last ten months. Currently, the project is in month six and is 40 percent complete, but the project was expected to be 60 percent complete by this time. You have spent $125,000 to complete the work. What is the cost performance index of the project?

Hint: Double-check your work.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

D is correct. The cost performance index is calculated by dividing the earned value by the actual costs. In this instance, the formula is CPI = 100,000 / 125,000. This results in .80.

A is incorrect. The CPI is .80, not 80. B is incorrect because this is an incorrect value.

C is incorrect as well. The CPI is not a dollar amount, so this value is incorrect.

128. You are a project manager for your organization. Your project has a BAC of $250,000 and is expected to last ten months. Currently, the project is in month six and is 40 percent complete, but the project was expected to be 60 percent complete by this time. You have spent $125,000 to complete the work. What is the schedule performance index of the project?

Hint: The answer doesn’t need a dollar amount.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

B is correct. The schedule performance index (SPI) is calculated by dividing the earned value by the planned value. In this instance, the formula is $100,000 / 150,000 = .67.

A is incorrect because this is the value of the cost performance index. C and D are incorrect because the SPI is not a dollar amount.

129: Lenny is the project manager of the GHA Project for his company. A recent earned value management calculation shows that Lenny has a CPI of .98 on this project. A project that has a CPI of .98 means what?

A. The project is late.

B. The project is making money.

C. The project has to spend one dollar for every 98 cents of work it receives.

D. The project is 98 percent complete.

Hint: CPI is the cost performance index.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

C is correct. A project with a CPI of .98 has to spend one dollar for every 98 cents of work it receives.

A is incorrect because there’s no evidence that the project is late. B is incorrect because the project is actually losing money with this CPI, not making it. D is also incorrect since a CPI of .98 does not mean the project is 98 percent complete.

130. Management in your company is tracking the status of all projects using earned value management. Which of the following values can alert management to a problem on the project?

D. A BAC of $125,000

Hint: The project is losing money.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

B is correct. A CPI of .90 means the project has to pay one dollar of every 90 cents of work.

A is incorrect because a CPI of 1 is perfect. C is incorrect because an SPI of .99 is close to perfect, while a CPI of .90 is far from perfect. D is also incorrect. A BAC of $125,000 is fine—this is the budget at completion and is set by the demands of the project.

131. You are the project manager for your organization. Your latest project has a BAC of $250,000. You have calculated your CPI to be .91 and your AC to $175,000. What is your project’s EAC?

Hint: Remember the formula EAC = BAC / CPI.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

D is correct. The formula EAC = BAC / CPI is written, in this instance, as EAC = 250,000 / .91. This equates to $274,725, which is rounded up to $275,000.

A, B, and C are all incorrect because these are erroneous calculations.

132. You have just taken over a project that is several months late and is in very bad shape. The previous project manager had not kept accurate records on the project work, project expenses, or the overall performance of the project. The customer is still very interested in having the project completed and is not holding you responsible for the project work up to this point. Of the following, which one is the best solution to move forward and to create accurate records of your progress?

A. Scrap the project and start over.

B. Create a work authorization system.

C. Create a new project plan.

D. Rebaseline the project.

Hint: The customer wants the project to move forward with your guidance.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 3

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

D is correct. Rebaselining the project is probably the best solution in this instance because the project is in such disarray. This also allows the project manager to record and compare work actions from this point forward.

A is incorrect because the customer does not want to cancel the project. B is incorrect. A work authorization system is needed, but it is not a solution to this problem. C is also incorrect because the question does not detail whether the project plan is bad or whether it’s just not being implemented properly.

133. A project has a budget of $7,500,000 and is expected to last five years. The project is now in year three and is 40 percent complete. What is the earned value of this project if the project manager has spent $4,225,000 of the project budget so far?

Hint: The project is 40 percent complete.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Measure Project Performance

A is correct. The EV is calculated by multiplying the percent complete times the budget at completion.

B is incorrect. This is the cost performance index for the project. C is incorrect because this is not a valid calculation for the question. D is incorrect for the same reason.

134. The project manager of a large software implementation project just finished a project status meeting. In the meeting, he learned that a crucial piece of the software his team was creating is faulty. The news will cause the project to be late by at least one month and will likely cost additional fees for the developers’ time. What is the next step the project manager should take?

A. Fire the project team member responsible for the mistake.

B. Create a change request for the immediate correction to the software.

C. Complete a root-cause analysis to determine why the problem occurred.

D. Present the news to management and the customer with a solution to resolve the problem.

Hint: Find a solution.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

D is correct. The project manager needs to share the news with management and the customers with a solution to fix the problem. The project manager should never go to management with a problem without a solution.

A is incorrect. An immediate reaction to fire the project team member may not be appropriate. In addition, the project manager may not have the authority to release the project team member. B is incorrect. Change requests are needed for additions to (or subtractions from) the project scope, not to complete rework. In addition, this answer calls for immediate correction to the software. C is also incorrect. Root-cause analysis can be helpful, but it should be completed after informing both management and the customer.

135. Virginia is a project manager overseeing the construction of a new retail shopping center. The project is scheduled to last one year and is currently in month five. She is working with several subcontractors on the project to complete the paving, road connections, and parking lot lighting. It has come to her attention from the paving contractor that the city has raised the fees to connect the parking lot to the city drive. Which of the following communications is most appropriate for this change?

A. A formal presentation

B. A memo to management regarding the fees

C. A cost variance report

D. A memo from the paving contractor to management

Hint: Document the variance.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

C is correct. The change in the cost of the connection should be documented in a cost variance report.

A is incorrect. A formal presentation may or may not be necessary for the cost increase, but a cost variance report is needed. B is incorrect because a memo is not the appropriate report needed. D is incorrect because a memo from the contractor to management is also inappropriate.

136. Protecting the project scope is paramount in all projects, but sometimes changes will happen. In which of the following is the project scope change control system documented?

A. The project scope management plan

B. The quality management plan

C. The change control board documentation

D. The project charter

Hint: Protect the scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

A is correct. The project scope change control system is documented in the project scope management plan.

B is incorrect. The quality management plan addresses the quality of the project, not the process for controlling changes. C is incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this question. D is incorrect because the project charter authorizes the project and does not address the process for managing changes.

137. You are the project manager for the BNH Project. A stakeholder is demanding that your project team make some immediate changes to the product your project is creating. You inform the customer that the changes cannot happen immediately because of the project processes that are established by your organization. In which of the following are these processes documented?

A. The change control board

B. The organizational assets

C. The scope change control system

D. The project charter

Hint: Protect the scope.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 7

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

C is correct. The scope change control system documents how changes are authorized for a project.

A is incorrect. Not every project will have a change control board. In addition, the processes for change are documented in the scope change control system. B is incorrect. This is not a valid answer for this question. D is incorrect. The charter authorizes the project; it does not document the change control process.

138. A value-added change has been approved for your project. The change will require the project to take two months longer and will cost $25,000. What must the project manager do once these changes have been approved?

A. Reflect the changes in change control documentation.

B. Complete a risk assessment of the change.

C. Update the change control system to reflect the new changes to the project scope.

D. Update the time, cost, and scope baselines to reflect the new changes.

Hint: Reflect the change.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

D is correct. Once the changes have been approved, the project manager should reflect the additional time, cost, and scope changes accordingly in each baseline.

A is incorrect. The changes are not reflected in the change control documentation because this documentation explains the process for how changes may enter the project scope. B is incorrect. A risk assessment of each change is completed as part of the change control process—not after the change has been approved. C is also incorrect. The change control system is not updated because of the change.

139. You are a project manager for your organization. Your project utilizes a vendor to complete all of the electrical work within your project. Your stakeholder has requested a change in the scope of the project which will cause additional work for the vendor. Which of the following documents will dictate how the change will proceed in regard to the vendor?

A. The change control documentation

B. The scope document

C. The procurement management plan

Hint: This document overrides everything else.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

D is correct. The contractual agreement between the vendor and the customer override all other documents.

A is incorrect. The change control system should comply with the contractual agreement between the vendor and the customer. B is incorrect because the scope details the project work, not the contractual obligations between the vendor and the customer. C is also incorrect because the procurement management plan is not as specific as the terms defined within the contract.

140. Change control is essential to project success. Part of change control is the coordination of all changes across the entire project. When does integrated change control happen?

A. From project inception through completion

B. During project execution

C. During project monitoring and controlling

D. During project planning

Hint: Don’t rule out anything.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

A is correct. Integrated change control happens throughout the entire project, not just during any one process group.

B, C, and D are incorrect because integrated change control happens throughout the entire project.

141. Mary is the project manager of a software development project. The stakeholders of the project have requested a major change to the project scope. The change control board has reviewed and approved the change even though it will require six additional weeks of the development team’s time. What must Mary do next?

A. Hire additional project team members to complete the project on time.

B. Complete a risk assessment on the proposed change.

C. Work with the project team to update the project scope, WBS, and WBS dictionary.

D. Calculate the project costs with the additional change.

Hint: This change has already been approved.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapters 4 and 5

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

C is correct. Once the scope has been modified, as in this instance, the project manager and the project team should reflect the scope addition in the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.

A is incorrect. While crashing the project may be appropriate in some instances, this question already acknowledges the additional time for the added work. B is incorrect. A risk assessment is likely to have already happened because the change requested passed through the change control board process. D is incorrect because costs and time are calculated before the change has been accepted.

142. Your organization completes projects for other organizations. You are the project manager of the BGV Project. It is almost complete but the stakeholders have requested a change to the project scope. The customer is willing to pay any additional fees for this change. This additional change will cause the project to run three weeks longer than was planned. The problem, you realize, is that you have already scheduled your current project team to start a three-year project for a different customer that will overlap with the new work the customer has just added to the scope. You need to complete the current project, keep your current customer happy, and start the next project on time. What should you do?

A. Hire additional project team members to complete the project on time.

B. Promise the customer that the changes can be added at a later date.

C. Refuse to add the changes to the current project.

D. Promise the customer that you can do the changes as requested but you will need to stop the current project, move your project team to the other project, and then return to the project when the team is available.

Hint: Crash the project.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 6

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

A is correct. The best choice is to hire additional work to ensure that your current project ends on time.

B is incorrect. This choice, while feasible, likely won’t keep your current customer happy. C and D are incorrect because they won’t keep your customer happy.

143. David is a project manager for his company and he’s reviewing the defined change control processes as part of his company’s enterprise environmental factors. In his review, he sees that changes to the project’s product are controlled by a particular system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the project’s product?

A. The scope configuration system

B. The change configuration system

C. The product scope

D. The configuration management system

Hint: It’s a subsystem of the project management information system.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Verify and Manage Changes to the Project

D is correct. The configuration management system controls changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a product or component.

A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.

144. You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable. This change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent. Which one of the following best describes the cost of the materials?

C. The project management cost

D. Discretionary costs

Hint: Meet the customer’s demands. Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

B is correct. The cost to quality is the best choice. The expense of the better materials is attributed to the better product the project will create.

A is incorrect. Gold plating is the act of adding work, additional materials, or more expensive than needed materials to drive up the project cost for personal gain. C is incorrect. This is not an example of project management costs. D is incorrect. These are not discretionary costs but costs attributed to the cost of the quality as demanded by the customer.

145. You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several OSHA guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate reference to these guidelines?

Hint: These are requirements.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

D is correct. OSHA guidelines are requirements your project must meet.

A is incorrect. While some project managers may view these regulations as constraints, regulations are a better description for the rules. If the project manager does not follow these regulations, it may cause fines, penalties, and even injuries or death to the project team members. B is incorrect because these are not assumptions. C is incorrect. Standards are optional, while OSHA regulations are not optional.

Hint: It is not teamwork.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

A is correct. Quality is planned into a project from the start. Inspections prove its existence.

B is incorrect. While safety is important, it is not the correct answer. Safety may be inspected into a project when you consider construction projects, electrical wiring projects, or similar work. C is incorrect because control is not a viable choice. D is incorrect. Teamwork is developed, planned, and hoped for, but this is not the best choice for the question.

147. Dean’s company uses ISO 9000 as part its manufacturing environment. Dean has been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO 9000?

A. A quality management system

B. A quality control system

C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects

D. A method of following procedures created internally to an organization

Hint: You can have bad procedures and still be ISO 9000 certified.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

D is correct. ISO 9000 is not a quality system, but a method of following procedures created internally to an organization.

A is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality management system. B is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality control system. C is incorrect because ISO 9000 is an organization-wide approach, not just a project-centric one.

148. You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your project team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in the customer service support of the call center agents. You and the call center manager have set operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the following is an operational definition?

A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.

B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30 days.

C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.

D. All customer service reps will answer the telephone calls with their name and a standard greeting.

Hint: Look for the metric.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

C is correct. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute is an example of an operational definition because it has a given metric.

A, B, and D are incorrect because these are examples of project requirements.

149. The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month analysis of production in a manufacturer’s environment. The quality engineer now wants to plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or diagram that will best satisfy the request?

B. An Ishikawa diagram

Hint: The quality engineer is looking for assignable cause.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

C is correct. A control chart will allow the quality engineer and the project manager to plot out the results to find assignable causes for variances.

A is incorrect because a Pareto chart maps out the causes and frequency of quality problems. B is incorrect because an Ishikawa diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram to determine root-cause analysis. D is incorrect because a flowchart shows the relation of components within a system and how a process works through a system.

150. Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to the achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is NOT an example of the cost of poor quality?

B. Corrective actions

D. A loss of customers

Hint: This ensures quality.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

C is correct. Safety measures are a cost of the conformance to quality. If the measures are not taken, accidents may happen and the project then stopped for investigation, rework, and other measures.

A is incorrect. Rework is an example of the cost of nonconformance to quality. When work is unacceptable, it has to be corrected. B is incorrect. Corrective actions are part of the cost of nonconformance to quality. When work, performance, and other components are unacceptable, corrective actions steer the project back online. D is also incorrect because when customers get disgusted due to quality issues, they will find other providers.

151. As a project manager and a PMP candidate, you should be able to discern quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about quality control is true?

A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project deliverables.

B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in alignment with the project scope.

C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the work.

D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.

Hint: The work must be exact for it to be accepted by the customer.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

D is correct. Quality control is focused on the correctness of the work.

A, B, and C are incorrect because these statements describe scope validation.

152. Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in order to track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the quality management plans not dictate?

B. Quality assurance

C. Quality improvement

D. Six Sigma programs

Hint: Not all companies have this.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 8

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

D is correct. Not all companies will use a quality management program like Six Sigma.

A is incorrect because quality control is detailed in the quality management plan. B is incorrect because quality assurance is also detailed in the quality management plan. C is incorrect as well. Quality improvement is detailed in the quality management plan.

A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been completed.

B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has been completed according to the project scope.

C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control while the project team does scope validation.

D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control without the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.

Hint: The processes are slightly different.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Ensure Project Deliverables Conform to Quality Standards

D is correct. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, while scope validation is concerned with the customer accepting the work.

A, B, and C are incorrect because all of these statements are false.

154. You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system from as part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which subsidiary plan should be updated?

A. The risk management plan

B. The risk response plan

C. The procurement management plan

D. The scope management plan

Hint: Manage the problem.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

B is correct. Responses to risks are identified and documented in the risk response plan.

A is incorrect because the risk management plan details how risk analysis, risk identification, and other risk-related management activities will proceed. It does not include the responses to individual risk. C is incorrect. The procurement management plan does not need to be updated based on this scenario. The question does not indicate that a different vendor is needed. D is incorrect. The scope management plan does not need to be changed because there is no indication of changes, or threats of changes, to the project scope.

A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.

B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.

C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.

D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to occur.

Hint: Triggers are like hints.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

D is correct. These are warning signs or symptoms that a risk has occurred or is about to occur.

A is incorrect because a secondary risk can be created by solutions to a different risk in the project. B is incorrect. Residual risks are smaller risks caused by response to other risks. C is incorrect because a risk trigger is not a plan to respond to the risk event.

156. You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will cost your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency amount you’ll need for this risk event?

D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.

Hint: Find the likelihood of the risk happening.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

B is correct. The risk has a 20 percent chance of happening and will cost the project $150,000. Twenty percent of $150,000 is $30,000—the expected amount of contingency.

A is incorrect. $150,000 is 100 percent of the risk event occurring. C is incorrect. $75,000 is based on a 50 percent likelihood of the risk occurring. D is incorrect because the risk is real even if the risk event does not occur.

157. You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your organization’s sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each of the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method of dealing with the project risks?

A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.

B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.

C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk event is coming into the project schedule.

D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk events overlap at any one time.

Hint: Own the risk event.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

A is correct. Risk owners can monitor, respond, and communicate on risk events.

B is incorrect. Buying insurance, also known as transference, may not be an affordable or available solution for all the risks within the project. C is incorrect. This is not feasible because multiple risks may overlap each other in the schedule. In addition, the project manager’s presence won’t address the risk event itself. D is incorrect. This also is not a feasible option. A project may have multiple risks on multiple paths. It would be highly unlikely for the project manager to schedule activities so that activities with risks do not overlap.

158. You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What stipulation must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the project?

B. It should not exceed specifications.

C. The costs per hour

D. The total costs for the procured work

Hint: Amounts over this point are a risk trigger.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

B is correct. A time and materials (T–M) contract needs a Not to Exceed (NTE) stipulation.

A is incorrect because not all T–M contracts have deadlines. C is incorrect because the costs per hour is a prerequisite for this type of contract. D is incorrect. Not all T–M contracts have a total costs for the projected work. This is why the NTE clause is needed.

159. You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the project is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the shopping area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she is working on that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk response you have planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk response that Mary should now implement is which one of the following?

D. A contingency plan

Hint: Requires planning and funds set aside to respond to the risk event.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

D is correct. Contingency planning requires additional funding and time set aside for the risk event.

A is incorrect because a countermeasure is an action to neutralize the risk event. B is incorrect because mitigation is steps taken to reduce the impact and likelihood of the risk event. C is also incorrect. Transference moves the risk ownership to a third party.

160. Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance is an example of which risk response?

Hint: Someone else owns the risk.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

C is correct. Transference transfers the risk to someone else.

A is incorrect because a trigger is a sign that a risk event has occurred or is about to occur. B is incorrect because thresholds are metrics that mean a risk event is occurring as conditions pass the preset mark. D is also incorrect because countermeasures are actions to neutralize the risk event.

161. You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project is scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a new risk in your project. What must be updated?

A. The risk response plan

B. The work breakdown structure

C. The risk register

D. The scope statement

Hint: Record the risk.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

C is correct. When a new risk has been identified, the risk register must be updated.

A is incorrect. The risk response may need to be updated—if there is to be a response to the identified risk. The first step is to update the risk register. B is incorrect because the WBS does not need to be updated since the project scope has not changed. D is also incorrect because the scope statement is not updated as a result of risk discovery.

162. As a PMP, you should be somewhat familiar with the project management processes and their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control?

A. The project management plan

B. The work breakdown structure

C. The risk register

D. Work performance data

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

B is correct. The WBS is not an input to risk monitoring and control.

A is incorrect because the project management plan, specifically its risk management plan, is an input to risk monitoring and control. C is incorrect. The risk register is an input to risk monitoring and control. D is incorrect because work performance data is also an input to risk monitoring and control.

A. The historical records

B. The work breakdown structure

C. The risk register

D. The risk response plan

Hint: It’s the center of all risk documentation.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

C is correct. When a risk has been identified, it is documented in the risk register. The risk is then tracked through the risk register.

A is incorrect. Historical records are records that have occurred before this project began. Your project is creating future historical records. B is incorrect because the WBS is not updated. D is incorrect because the risk response is not updated.

164. Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has not changed and to react properly and quickly should it change. Which of the following is

NOT a valid reason for risk control?

A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid

B. To identify trends within risk identification

C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate

D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid

Hint: Don’t buy it.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 11

Study Guide Objective: Monitor All Risks

D is correct. The contract type is determined as part of the procurement process.

A, B, and C are incorrect because these are not valid reasons for risk monitoring and control. Project managers will need to test assumptions for risks, identify risk trends, and evaluate the contingency reserve of risk events.

A. Quality inspections

B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms

D. Contract closeout

Hint: The project manager needs more than just quality.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Final Acceptance for the Project

C is correct. Scope validation is the process of obtaining formal acceptance.

A is incorrect. While scope validation uses inspections, it is not only concerned with quality, but with the fulfillment of the requirements. B is incorrect because the sign-off of the project mechanisms is not an applicable choice. D is incorrect because contract closeout can happen throughout the project when vendors have completed their project obligations, not just at the project’s conclusion.

166: Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When does scope validation happen?

A. Only at the end of the project

B. At the end of each project phase

C. With each deliverable

D. As the customer sees fit

Hint: These are scheduled inspections.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Final Acceptance for the Project

B is correct. Scope validation is the assurance that the project deliverables have met the project scope.

A is incorrect because scope validation does not happen only at the end of a project. C is incorrect because each deliverable does not demand a scope validation. D is also incorrect. Scope validation happens as phases or projects are completed, not only when the customer sees fit.

167. You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best describes scope validation in this case?

A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were created up to the point of the project’s cancellation.

B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management canceled the project due to circumstances outside of your control.

C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.

D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent complete.

Hint: Some scope validation is needed.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 5

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Final Acceptance for the Project

A is correct. Although the project has been canceled, scope validation should take place for the deliverables up to the point the project was canceled.

B is incorrect. Scope validation is still needed although management canceled the project due to outside circumstances. C is also incorrect. Although the scope was never completed, scope validation is still needed. D is incorrect because this is not a valid option for the question.

A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion

C. Operational transfer of the project’s product

Hint: Closure happens when the work is complete.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 4

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Financial, Legal, and Administrative Closure

B is correct. Rework is not an output of administrative closure. If rework is needed, the project or phase cannot be closed.

A is incorrect. You’ll need to complete all of the planned activities in order to do administrative closure. C is incorrect. Once the project is completed, the operational transfer of the product must happen so the project can be closed and resources released. D is incorrect because lessons learned are also part of administrative closure.

Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract. What should happen next?

A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for

Hint: A deal is a deal.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 12

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Financial, Legal, and Administrative Closure

A is correct. The terms of the contract should be followed here since they may have provisions for an audit, payment procedures, and forms that the vendor may have to complete to be paid.

B is incorrect. Just because a vendor has completed work on the project does not mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The question does not state that the entire project is finished so this answer is not valid. D is incorrect. Lessons learned are important, but this is not the best choice for the question.

170. You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The vendor is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their demands.

What is the likely outcome of this scenario?

A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation

D. Procurement audits

Hint: Lawsuits are not fun.

Reference: PMP Study Guide, Chapter 12

Study Guide Objective: Obtain Financial, Legal, and Administrative Closure

A is correct. Unresolved claims may result in litigation.

B is incorrect. Just because you and a vendor have a disagreement about the completed work on the project does not mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The question does not state that the entire project is finished, so this answer is not valid. D is incorrect. A procurement audit may show your internal process for procurement, but it does not resolve the issue between you and the vendor.